INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
Click Here to Download the Insta Test PDF
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
- It functions under Ministry of Science and Technology.
- GEAC is co-chaired by the representatives from Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and MoEF&CC.
- Clearance of Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is mandatory for the environmental release of Genetically Modified (GM) crops.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). As per Rules, 1989, it is responsible for the appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. The committee is also responsible for appraisal of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the enviornment including experimental field trials.
GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
Clearance of Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is mandatory for the environmental release of Genetically Modified (GM) crops. As per the ‘’Rules 1989’’, State/UT Biotechnology Coordination Committees and District Level Committees are responsible for monitoring instances of illegal cultivation of GM crops and taking appropriate action under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). As per Rules, 1989, it is responsible for the appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. The committee is also responsible for appraisal of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the enviornment including experimental field trials.
GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
Clearance of Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is mandatory for the environmental release of Genetically Modified (GM) crops. As per the ‘’Rules 1989’’, State/UT Biotechnology Coordination Committees and District Level Committees are responsible for monitoring instances of illegal cultivation of GM crops and taking appropriate action under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the application of DNA Sequencing?
- Improving agriculture through effective plant and animal breeding
- Diagnosis and treatment of diseases
- Protecting and improving the natural environment for both humans and wildlife.
- To understand evolutionary patterns and processes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
What Is DNA Sequencing?
DNA Sequencing is the method that determines the order of the four nucleotides bases (adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine) that make up the DNA molecule and convey important genetic information.
Applications of DNA Sequencing Technologies
DNA sequencing has been used in medicine including diagnosis and treatment of diseases and epidemiology studies. Sequencing has the power to revolutionize food safety and sustainable agriculture including animal, plant and public health, improving agriculture through effective plant and animal breeding and reducing the risks from disease outbreaks. Additionally, DNA sequencing can be used for protecting and improving the natural environment for both humans and wildlife.
Aligned DNA sequences form the base of many analyses used to infer evolutionary patterns and processes. Within species, we can use this information to quantify the degree of population differentiation, migration rates among populations, and even the demographic history of populations.
Incorrect
Solution: D
What Is DNA Sequencing?
DNA Sequencing is the method that determines the order of the four nucleotides bases (adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine) that make up the DNA molecule and convey important genetic information.
Applications of DNA Sequencing Technologies
DNA sequencing has been used in medicine including diagnosis and treatment of diseases and epidemiology studies. Sequencing has the power to revolutionize food safety and sustainable agriculture including animal, plant and public health, improving agriculture through effective plant and animal breeding and reducing the risks from disease outbreaks. Additionally, DNA sequencing can be used for protecting and improving the natural environment for both humans and wildlife.
Aligned DNA sequences form the base of many analyses used to infer evolutionary patterns and processes. Within species, we can use this information to quantify the degree of population differentiation, migration rates among populations, and even the demographic history of populations.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Gene Bank
- It has the capacity to preserve about one million germplasm in the form of seeds.
- It is world’s largest state-of-the-art Gene Bank.
- It was established in 1996 to preserve the seeds of Plant Genetic Resources (PGR) for future generations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Union Minister for Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Shri Narendra Singh Tomar inaugurated the world’s second-largest refurbished state-of-the-art National Gene Bank at the National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR), Pusa, New Delhi.
The National Gene Bank established in the year 1996 to preserve the seeds of Plant Genetic Resources (PGR) for future generations, has the capacity to preserve about one million germplasm in the form of seeds. Presently it is protecting 4.52 lakh accessions, of which 2.7 lakh are Indian germplasm and the rest have been imported from other countries.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Union Minister for Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Shri Narendra Singh Tomar inaugurated the world’s second-largest refurbished state-of-the-art National Gene Bank at the National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR), Pusa, New Delhi.
The National Gene Bank established in the year 1996 to preserve the seeds of Plant Genetic Resources (PGR) for future generations, has the capacity to preserve about one million germplasm in the form of seeds. Presently it is protecting 4.52 lakh accessions, of which 2.7 lakh are Indian germplasm and the rest have been imported from other countries.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding LiFi work
- LiFi is a Visible Light Communications system transmitting wireless internet communications at very high speeds.
- The range of LiFi is greater than WiFi.
- Li-Fi is unlikely to face any interference from external light sources, hence it is more secured.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
How does LiFi work?
LiFi is a Visible Light Communications system transmitting wireless internet communications at very high speeds. LiFi transmission speeds can go over 100 Gbps, 14 times faster than WiGig, also known as the world’s fastest WiFi.
Advantages:
- Li-Fi could make a huge impact on the internet of things too, with data transferred at much higher levels with even more devices able to connect to one another.
- Li-Fi offers great promise to overcome the existing limitations of Wi-Fi by providing for data-heavy communication in short ranges.
- Due to its shorter range, Li-Fi is more secure than Wi-Fi.
- Since it does not pollute, it can be called a green technology for device-to-device communication in the Internet of Things (IoT).
- Li-Fi systems consume less power.
Limitations of Li-Fi:
- As visual light can’t pass through opaque objects and needs line of sight for communication, its range will remain very restricted to start with. In order to enjoy full connectivity, more capable LED bulbs will need to be placed at various places.
- Li-Fi requires the lightbulb is on at all times to provide connectivity, meaning that the lights will need to be on during the day.
- Li-Fi is likely to face interference from external light sources, such as sunlight and bulbs, and obstructions in the path of transmission, and hence may cause interruptions in communication.
Incorrect
Solution: A
How does LiFi work?
LiFi is a Visible Light Communications system transmitting wireless internet communications at very high speeds. LiFi transmission speeds can go over 100 Gbps, 14 times faster than WiGig, also known as the world’s fastest WiFi.
Advantages:
- Li-Fi could make a huge impact on the internet of things too, with data transferred at much higher levels with even more devices able to connect to one another.
- Li-Fi offers great promise to overcome the existing limitations of Wi-Fi by providing for data-heavy communication in short ranges.
- Due to its shorter range, Li-Fi is more secure than Wi-Fi.
- Since it does not pollute, it can be called a green technology for device-to-device communication in the Internet of Things (IoT).
- Li-Fi systems consume less power.
Limitations of Li-Fi:
- As visual light can’t pass through opaque objects and needs line of sight for communication, its range will remain very restricted to start with. In order to enjoy full connectivity, more capable LED bulbs will need to be placed at various places.
- Li-Fi requires the lightbulb is on at all times to provide connectivity, meaning that the lights will need to be on during the day.
- Li-Fi is likely to face interference from external light sources, such as sunlight and bulbs, and obstructions in the path of transmission, and hence may cause interruptions in communication.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Micro-LED vs OLED
- OLEDs use tiny sub-pixels made from organic emissive materials, whereas, Micro-LEDs are made with an inorganic LED structure.
- Compared to OLEDs, Micro-LEDs promise to be much more efficient and brighter, more durable and with a higher color gamut.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Micro-LED vs LED
Current so-called LED displays are actually LCD displays that use LED as backlighting units – which are always on with a liquid-crystal layer that is used to create the actual image (i.e. block the light where needed). This complicated LCD structure results in a device with serious image quality drawbacks (mainly a low response time and relatively poor contrast ratio) and also difficulties in achieving flexibility and high-quality transparency.
Compared to an LCD display, a micro-LED is much simpler, as the LEDs themselves emit the light and can be individually controlled. This results in displays that offer a much better image quality (contrast, response time) and are highly efficient, too, as there are no filters as in LCDs. As opposed to LCDs, micro-LEDs can be made flexible.
Micro-LED vs OLED
OLEDs use tiny sub-pixels made from organic emissive materials. Micro-LEDs are somewhat similar – but with an inorganic LED structure. Compared to OLEDs, Micro-LEDs promise to be much more efficient and brighter, more durable (higher lifetime) and with a higher color gamut. Micro-LEDs are based on well-established LED devices, which means that it could potentially be a technology that is relatively easy to scale up.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Micro-LED vs LED
Current so-called LED displays are actually LCD displays that use LED as backlighting units – which are always on with a liquid-crystal layer that is used to create the actual image (i.e. block the light where needed). This complicated LCD structure results in a device with serious image quality drawbacks (mainly a low response time and relatively poor contrast ratio) and also difficulties in achieving flexibility and high-quality transparency.
Compared to an LCD display, a micro-LED is much simpler, as the LEDs themselves emit the light and can be individually controlled. This results in displays that offer a much better image quality (contrast, response time) and are highly efficient, too, as there are no filters as in LCDs. As opposed to LCDs, micro-LEDs can be made flexible.
Micro-LED vs OLED
OLEDs use tiny sub-pixels made from organic emissive materials. Micro-LEDs are somewhat similar – but with an inorganic LED structure. Compared to OLEDs, Micro-LEDs promise to be much more efficient and brighter, more durable (higher lifetime) and with a higher color gamut. Micro-LEDs are based on well-established LED devices, which means that it could potentially be a technology that is relatively easy to scale up.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the application of geospatial Technology?
- Vulnerability mapping for disasters.
- Precision agriculture
- Enhance road safety measures
- Detection of illegal mining
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Application of geospatial Technology
- Disaster Management: early warning systems, detection, vulnerability mapping and for taking preventive measures.
- Agriculture and forest management: satellite-based fishing, precision agriculture, monitoring and modelling of crop conditions, insurance monitoring, forestry monitoring.
- Energy: determine the suitability of a location for generating solar energy).
- Logistics: Road Asset Management system, land management, scientific maintenance planning, enhance road safety measures etc.
- Natural Resource Management: Potential areas of mining and detection of illegal mining.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Application of geospatial Technology
- Disaster Management: early warning systems, detection, vulnerability mapping and for taking preventive measures.
- Agriculture and forest management: satellite-based fishing, precision agriculture, monitoring and modelling of crop conditions, insurance monitoring, forestry monitoring.
- Energy: determine the suitability of a location for generating solar energy).
- Logistics: Road Asset Management system, land management, scientific maintenance planning, enhance road safety measures etc.
- Natural Resource Management: Potential areas of mining and detection of illegal mining.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Quantum computing
- The manipulation of qubits by control devices is at the core of a quantum computer’s processing power.
- Superposition is a quantum mechanical effect that correlates the behavior of two separate things.
- Decoherence is the ability of qubit to maintain quantum state in the changing environment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
What is Quantum computing?
Quantum computing is a multidisciplinary field comprising aspects of computer science, physics, and mathematics that utilizes quantum mechanics to solve complex problems faster than on classical computers. The field of quantum computing includes hardware research and application development.
What is a qubit?
Quantum bits, or qubits, are represented by quantum particles. The manipulation of qubits by control devices is at the core of a quantum computer’s processing power. Qubits in quantum computers are analogous to bits in classical computers. At its core, a classical machine’s processor does all its work by manipulating bits. Similarly, the quantum processor does all its work by processing qubits.
Superposition
A qubit itself isn’t very useful. But it can perform an important trick: placing the quantum information it holds into a state of superposition, which represents a combination of all possible configurations of the qubit. Groups of qubits in superposition can create complex, multidimensional computational spaces. Complex problems can be represented in new ways in these spaces.
Entanglement
Entanglement is a quantum mechanical effect that correlates the behavior of two separate things. When two qubits are entangled, changes to one qubit directly impact the other. Quantum algorithms leverage those relationships to find solutions to complex problems.
Decoherence
Decoherence is the loss of the quantum state in a qubit. Environmental factors, like radiation, can cause the quantum state of the qubits to collapse. A large engineering challenge in constructing a quantum computer is designing the various features that attempt to delay decoherence of the state, such as building specialty structures that shield the qubits from external fields.
Incorrect
Solution: A
What is Quantum computing?
Quantum computing is a multidisciplinary field comprising aspects of computer science, physics, and mathematics that utilizes quantum mechanics to solve complex problems faster than on classical computers. The field of quantum computing includes hardware research and application development.
What is a qubit?
Quantum bits, or qubits, are represented by quantum particles. The manipulation of qubits by control devices is at the core of a quantum computer’s processing power. Qubits in quantum computers are analogous to bits in classical computers. At its core, a classical machine’s processor does all its work by manipulating bits. Similarly, the quantum processor does all its work by processing qubits.
Superposition
A qubit itself isn’t very useful. But it can perform an important trick: placing the quantum information it holds into a state of superposition, which represents a combination of all possible configurations of the qubit. Groups of qubits in superposition can create complex, multidimensional computational spaces. Complex problems can be represented in new ways in these spaces.
Entanglement
Entanglement is a quantum mechanical effect that correlates the behavior of two separate things. When two qubits are entangled, changes to one qubit directly impact the other. Quantum algorithms leverage those relationships to find solutions to complex problems.
Decoherence
Decoherence is the loss of the quantum state in a qubit. Environmental factors, like radiation, can cause the quantum state of the qubits to collapse. A large engineering challenge in constructing a quantum computer is designing the various features that attempt to delay decoherence of the state, such as building specialty structures that shield the qubits from external fields.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding AI For All initiative
- It was launched by NITI Aayog.
- The program aims to introduce AI to 1 million citizens in its first year.
- AI For All is a 4-hour, self-paced learning program that demystifies AI in an inclusive manner.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Intel in collaboration with Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE), Ministry of Education today announced the launch of the AI For All initiative with the purpose of creating a basic understanding of artificial intelligence (AI) for everyone in India. Based on Intel’s AI For Citizens program, AI For All is a 4-hour, self-paced learning program that demystifies AI in an inclusive manner. It is as applicable to a student, a stay-at-home parent as it is to a professional in any field or even a senior citizen. The program aims to introduce AI to 1 million citizens in its first year.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Intel in collaboration with Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE), Ministry of Education today announced the launch of the AI For All initiative with the purpose of creating a basic understanding of artificial intelligence (AI) for everyone in India. Based on Intel’s AI For Citizens program, AI For All is a 4-hour, self-paced learning program that demystifies AI in an inclusive manner. It is as applicable to a student, a stay-at-home parent as it is to a professional in any field or even a senior citizen. The program aims to introduce AI to 1 million citizens in its first year.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding James Webb Space Telescope
- JWST is a joint venture between the NASA, ESA, ISRO and CSA.
- It will be a 6.5-meter large multiwavelength spectrum telescope in the range of IR, Visible light and UV.
- The JWST orbits around the Earth at an altitude of ~570 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
James Webb Space Telescope
About JSWT:
Launched in December 2021, JWST is a joint venture between the US (Nasa), European (ESA) and Canadian space agencies (CSA).
- It is an orbiting infrared observatory that will complement and extend the discoveries of the Hubble Space Telescope, with longer wavelength coverage and greatly improved sensitivity.
- Webb was formerly known as the “Next Generation Space Telescope” (NGST) and it was renamed in 2002 after a former NASA administrator, James Webb.
- It will be a large infrared telescope with an approximately 6.5 meter primary mirror. The telescope uses infrared light, which cannot be perceived by the human eye, to study every phase in cosmic history.
Orbit:
- The Hubble Space Telescope orbits around the Earth at an altitude of ~570 km above it.
- Webb will not actually orbit the Earth, instead it will sit at the Earth-Sun L2 Lagrange point,5 million km away.
Incorrect
Solution: A
James Webb Space Telescope
About JSWT:
Launched in December 2021, JWST is a joint venture between the US (Nasa), European (ESA) and Canadian space agencies (CSA).
- It is an orbiting infrared observatory that will complement and extend the discoveries of the Hubble Space Telescope, with longer wavelength coverage and greatly improved sensitivity.
- Webb was formerly known as the “Next Generation Space Telescope” (NGST) and it was renamed in 2002 after a former NASA administrator, James Webb.
- It will be a large infrared telescope with an approximately 6.5 meter primary mirror. The telescope uses infrared light, which cannot be perceived by the human eye, to study every phase in cosmic history.
Orbit:
- The Hubble Space Telescope orbits around the Earth at an altitude of ~570 km above it.
- Webb will not actually orbit the Earth, instead it will sit at the Earth-Sun L2 Lagrange point,5 million km away.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsProject NETRA, an initiative of ISRO is related to
Correct
Solution: D
Project NETRA
An early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites.
What is Project NETRA (Network for space object Tracking and Analysis)?
Under the project, the ISRO plans to put up many observational facilities: connected radars, telescopes; data processing units and a control center.
They can, among others, spot, track and catalogue objects as small as 10 cm, up to a range of 3,400 km and equal to a space orbit of around 2,000 km.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Project NETRA
An early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites.
What is Project NETRA (Network for space object Tracking and Analysis)?
Under the project, the ISRO plans to put up many observational facilities: connected radars, telescopes; data processing units and a control center.
They can, among others, spot, track and catalogue objects as small as 10 cm, up to a range of 3,400 km and equal to a space orbit of around 2,000 km.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding solar cycle
- The solar cycle is the cycle that the Sun’s magnetic field goes through approximately every 11 years.
- One way to track the solar cycle is by counting the number of sunspots.
- The beginning of a solar cycle is a solar minimum and the cycle ends with solar maximum.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The solar cycle is the cycle that the Sun’s magnetic field goes through approximately every 11 years.
Our Sun is a huge ball of electrically-charged hot gas. This charged gas moves, generating a powerful magnetic field. The Sun’s magnetic field goes through a cycle, called the solar cycle.
Every 11 years or so, the Sun’s magnetic field completely flips. This means that the Sun’s north and south poles switch places. Then it takes about another 11 years for the Sun’s north and south poles to flip back again.
One way to track the solar cycle is by counting the number of sunspots. The beginning of a solar cycle is a solar minimum, or when the Sun has the least sunspots. Over time, solar activity—and the number of sunspots—increases.
The middle of the solar cycle is the solar maximum, or when the Sun has the most sunspots. As the cycle ends, it fades back to the solar minimum and then a new cycle begins.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The solar cycle is the cycle that the Sun’s magnetic field goes through approximately every 11 years.
Our Sun is a huge ball of electrically-charged hot gas. This charged gas moves, generating a powerful magnetic field. The Sun’s magnetic field goes through a cycle, called the solar cycle.
Every 11 years or so, the Sun’s magnetic field completely flips. This means that the Sun’s north and south poles switch places. Then it takes about another 11 years for the Sun’s north and south poles to flip back again.
One way to track the solar cycle is by counting the number of sunspots. The beginning of a solar cycle is a solar minimum, or when the Sun has the least sunspots. Over time, solar activity—and the number of sunspots—increases.
The middle of the solar cycle is the solar maximum, or when the Sun has the most sunspots. As the cycle ends, it fades back to the solar minimum and then a new cycle begins.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsMatch the following vaccines with the examples
- Inactivated vaccines: Bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine
- Toxoid Vaccine: Diphtheria vaccine
- Conjugate Vaccine: Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
- Recombinant Vaccine: Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: C
Types of vaccine: Vaccines can be synthesized in many ways based on which they are classified:
- Live attenuated vaccines
Examples:
- Oral Sabin polio vaccine
- MRV Vaccine (Measles, Mumps, Rubella, and Varicella)
- Nasal influenza vaccine
- Bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine
- Varicella vaccine
- Rotavirus vaccine
- Inactivated or Dead vaccines
Examples:
- Typhoid vaccine
- Influenza vaccine
- Salk polio vaccine
- Hepatitis A vaccine
- Acellular or Subunit vaccines
- Toxoid Vaccine:
Examples:
- Diphtheria vaccine
- Tetanus vaccine
- Pertussis vaccine
- Conjugate Vaccine:
Examples:
- Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib) conjugate vaccine
- Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
- Meningococcal C conjugate vaccine
- Recombinant Vaccine:
Examples:
- Hepatitis B vaccine
- Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
Incorrect
Solution: C
Types of vaccine: Vaccines can be synthesized in many ways based on which they are classified:
- Live attenuated vaccines
Examples:
- Oral Sabin polio vaccine
- MRV Vaccine (Measles, Mumps, Rubella, and Varicella)
- Nasal influenza vaccine
- Bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine
- Varicella vaccine
- Rotavirus vaccine
- Inactivated or Dead vaccines
Examples:
- Typhoid vaccine
- Influenza vaccine
- Salk polio vaccine
- Hepatitis A vaccine
- Acellular or Subunit vaccines
- Toxoid Vaccine:
Examples:
- Diphtheria vaccine
- Tetanus vaccine
- Pertussis vaccine
- Conjugate Vaccine:
Examples:
- Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib) conjugate vaccine
- Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
- Meningococcal C conjugate vaccine
- Recombinant Vaccine:
Examples:
- Hepatitis B vaccine
- Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding COVAX No-Fault Compensation Program
- The Program is the first vaccine injury compensation mechanism operating on an international scale.
- The Program is open to all eligible individuals – citizens, residents, refugees and other populations of concern in an AMC Eligible Economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
What is COVAX No-Fault Compensation Program?
The Program is the first vaccine injury compensation mechanism operating on an international scale.
The purpose of the Program is to provide a mechanism to compensate those individuals in Advance Market Commitment (AMC) Eligible Economies who suffer from certain serious adverse events that are confirmed to be associated with vaccines earmarked for delivery through the COVAX Facility for use in AMC Eligible Economies until 30 June 2023, or the administration of such vaccines.
The Program is designed to be fast, robust and transparent, making it easier for any affected individual to get fair compensation, without having to go through a lengthy and expensive legal process.
Who is eligible to receive compensation from the No-Fault Compensation fund?
The Program is open to all eligible individuals – citizens, residents, refugees and other populations of concern (as defined by the Inter-Agency Standing Committee) in an AMC Eligible Economy, who have suffered a serious adverse event resulting in permanent impairment or death following the administration of a COVID-19 Vaccine received through the COVAX Facility until 30 June 2023.
Incorrect
Solution: C
What is COVAX No-Fault Compensation Program?
The Program is the first vaccine injury compensation mechanism operating on an international scale.
The purpose of the Program is to provide a mechanism to compensate those individuals in Advance Market Commitment (AMC) Eligible Economies who suffer from certain serious adverse events that are confirmed to be associated with vaccines earmarked for delivery through the COVAX Facility for use in AMC Eligible Economies until 30 June 2023, or the administration of such vaccines.
The Program is designed to be fast, robust and transparent, making it easier for any affected individual to get fair compensation, without having to go through a lengthy and expensive legal process.
Who is eligible to receive compensation from the No-Fault Compensation fund?
The Program is open to all eligible individuals – citizens, residents, refugees and other populations of concern (as defined by the Inter-Agency Standing Committee) in an AMC Eligible Economy, who have suffered a serious adverse event resulting in permanent impairment or death following the administration of a COVID-19 Vaccine received through the COVAX Facility until 30 June 2023.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Trans-fats
- Trans fats are a form of saturated fat.
- Natural trans fats occur in the meat and dairy from ruminant animals.
- Artificial trans fats occur when vegetable oils are chemically altered to stay solid at room temperature, which gives them a much longer shelf life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
What are trans fats?
Trans fats, or trans-fatty acids, are a form of unsaturated fat.
They come in both natural and artificial forms.
Natural, or ruminant, trans fats occur in the meat and dairy from ruminant animals, such as cattle, sheep, and goats. They form naturally when bacteria in these animals’ stomachs digest grass.
However, dairy and meat eaters needn’t be concerned.
The best-known ruminant trans-fat is conjugated linoleic acid (CLA), which is found in dairy foods, butter and lamb.
However, artificial trans fats — otherwise known as industrial trans fats or partially hydrogenated fats — are hazardous to your health.
- These fats occur when vegetable oils are chemically altered to stay solid at room temperature, which gives them a much longer shelf life.
Incorrect
Solution: B
What are trans fats?
Trans fats, or trans-fatty acids, are a form of unsaturated fat.
They come in both natural and artificial forms.
Natural, or ruminant, trans fats occur in the meat and dairy from ruminant animals, such as cattle, sheep, and goats. They form naturally when bacteria in these animals’ stomachs digest grass.
However, dairy and meat eaters needn’t be concerned.
The best-known ruminant trans-fat is conjugated linoleic acid (CLA), which is found in dairy foods, butter and lamb.
However, artificial trans fats — otherwise known as industrial trans fats or partially hydrogenated fats — are hazardous to your health.
- These fats occur when vegetable oils are chemically altered to stay solid at room temperature, which gives them a much longer shelf life.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Agni Prime missile
- It is a inter-continental ballistic missile with a range of 5500Kms.
- It is a four-stage canisterised solid propellant ballistic missile with a payload capacity of 1000KGs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The ‘Agni Prime’, or ‘Agni-P’, is a nuclear-capable new-gen advanced variant of the Agni class of missiles; it is a two-stage canisterised solid propellant ballistic missile with a maximum range of 2,000 km.
- Agni Prime’ is a short-range (surface to a surface) ballistic missile that will have a maximum range of 2,000 km and will have advanced features in agility and road mobility.
- It can carry a payload of around 1,000 Kg or a nuclear warhead.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The ‘Agni Prime’, or ‘Agni-P’, is a nuclear-capable new-gen advanced variant of the Agni class of missiles; it is a two-stage canisterised solid propellant ballistic missile with a maximum range of 2,000 km.
- Agni Prime’ is a short-range (surface to a surface) ballistic missile that will have a maximum range of 2,000 km and will have advanced features in agility and road mobility.
- It can carry a payload of around 1,000 Kg or a nuclear warhead.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources:
- Any country that is a member of the United Nations, or any of its specialized agencies or of the International Atomic Energy Agency can join the International Treaty.
- The Svalbard Global Seed Vault was established under the treaty.
- It established and operates a special initiative operated for the benefit of developing countries – the Benefit-Sharing Fund (BSF).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources:
- The International Treaty is the major international agreement between member countries to conserve, use and manage plant genetic resources for food and agriculture around the world for the benefit of people everywhere.
- The Treaty ensures that farmers and plant breeders access, easily, the raw genetic material needed to develop new crop varieties, including those with higher yields and those that are resilient to climate change.
- It provides a global solution to the challenges of crop diversity loss and climate change adaptation through mechanisms such as the Multilateral System and Benefit-sharing Fund.
- Any country that is a member of the United Nations, or any of its specialized agencies or of the International Atomic Energy Agency can join the International Treaty. To join, they have to formally inform the Director-General of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), the parent organization of the International Treaty, of their decision to join the treaty through ratification, accession, approval or acceptance.
- The International Treaty established and operates a special initiative operated for the benefit of developing countries – the Benefit-sharing Fund (BSF). This Fund supports agricultural projects for farmers, public institutions and others in developing countries to conserve and use PGRFA to improve food crop production, fight plant pests and adapt to the effects of climate change.
- The Svalbard Global Seed Vault, also known as the “Doomsday Vault,” is a secure seed bank located on the Norwegian island of Spitsbergen in the Svalbard archipelago.
- The Svalbard Global Seed Vault is owned by Norway and managed in partnership between the Norwegian Ministry of Agriculture and Food, the regional genebank NordGen and the Crop Trust.
- The seed vault was established in 2008 as a backup to existing seed banks around the world, in case of natural or man-made disasters that could threaten the preservation of important crop genetic diversity.
- The International Treaty provided the international legal framework needed for the establishment of the Svalbard Global Seed Vault in Norway
- Both the International Treaty and the Svalbard Global Seed Vault work to conserve and safeguard seeds. Both works to ensure food security in a sustainable way. The Svalbard Global Seed Vault contributes conservation by providing a safety backup of the world’s major crops and plants for future food security.
Incorrect
Solution: A
International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources:
- The International Treaty is the major international agreement between member countries to conserve, use and manage plant genetic resources for food and agriculture around the world for the benefit of people everywhere.
- The Treaty ensures that farmers and plant breeders access, easily, the raw genetic material needed to develop new crop varieties, including those with higher yields and those that are resilient to climate change.
- It provides a global solution to the challenges of crop diversity loss and climate change adaptation through mechanisms such as the Multilateral System and Benefit-sharing Fund.
- Any country that is a member of the United Nations, or any of its specialized agencies or of the International Atomic Energy Agency can join the International Treaty. To join, they have to formally inform the Director-General of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), the parent organization of the International Treaty, of their decision to join the treaty through ratification, accession, approval or acceptance.
- The International Treaty established and operates a special initiative operated for the benefit of developing countries – the Benefit-sharing Fund (BSF). This Fund supports agricultural projects for farmers, public institutions and others in developing countries to conserve and use PGRFA to improve food crop production, fight plant pests and adapt to the effects of climate change.
- The Svalbard Global Seed Vault, also known as the “Doomsday Vault,” is a secure seed bank located on the Norwegian island of Spitsbergen in the Svalbard archipelago.
- The Svalbard Global Seed Vault is owned by Norway and managed in partnership between the Norwegian Ministry of Agriculture and Food, the regional genebank NordGen and the Crop Trust.
- The seed vault was established in 2008 as a backup to existing seed banks around the world, in case of natural or man-made disasters that could threaten the preservation of important crop genetic diversity.
- The International Treaty provided the international legal framework needed for the establishment of the Svalbard Global Seed Vault in Norway
- Both the International Treaty and the Svalbard Global Seed Vault work to conserve and safeguard seeds. Both works to ensure food security in a sustainable way. The Svalbard Global Seed Vault contributes conservation by providing a safety backup of the world’s major crops and plants for future food security.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Indian millets:
- India is the largest producer of millet in the world.
- Millets have a high Glycemic Index (GI), thus helps in preventing diabetes.
- Millets are gluten-free and can be consumed by celiac disease patients.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Indian millets are a group of nutritiously rich, drought tolerant and mostly grown in the arid and semi-arid regions of India. They are small-seeded grasses belonging to the botanical family Poaceae.
- They constitute an important source of food and fodder for millions of resource-poor farmers and play a vital role in ecological and economic security of India.
- These millets are also known as “coarse cereals” or “cereals of the poor”.
Benefits of Millets: - . Millets are highly adaptive to a wide range of ecological conditions and thrive well in rain-fed; arid climate and they have minimal requirement of water, fertilizers, and pesticides.
- . Health-promoting nutritious crop: Compared to other cereals they have superior micronutrient profile and bioactive flavonoids.
- . Millets have a low Glycemic Index (GI) and also associated with the prevention of diabetes.
- They are good source of minerals like iron, zinc, and calcium.
- Millets are gluten-free and can be consumed by celiac disease patients.
- . Millet has a beneficial effect on the management and prevention of hyperlipidemia and risk of CVD.
- . Millets are found to be helpful with the reduction of weight, BMI, and high blood pressure.
- . In India, Millet is generally consumed with legumes, which creates mutual supplementation of protein, increases the amino acid content, and enhances the overall digestibility of protein.
- . Millet based value-added products in ready to cook, ready to eat category are easily accessible and convenient to the urban population.
- . Millets are used for dual purposes as food as well as fodder, which make it more farming efficient.
- . Millet cultivation helps to reduce the carbon footprint.
- India is the largest producer of millet, followed by Niger and China. Other major millet-producing countries include Burkina Faso, Mali, and Senegal.
- While millet is not a major food crop in the developed world, it plays a vital role in the diets of many people in developing countries. Millet is a drought-tolerant crop that can be grown in dry, arid climates where other crops would fail. It is also a nutritious grain that is high in fiber and essential minerals. For these reasons, millet will continue to be an important food crop in the years to come.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Indian millets are a group of nutritiously rich, drought tolerant and mostly grown in the arid and semi-arid regions of India. They are small-seeded grasses belonging to the botanical family Poaceae.
- They constitute an important source of food and fodder for millions of resource-poor farmers and play a vital role in ecological and economic security of India.
- These millets are also known as “coarse cereals” or “cereals of the poor”.
Benefits of Millets: - . Millets are highly adaptive to a wide range of ecological conditions and thrive well in rain-fed; arid climate and they have minimal requirement of water, fertilizers, and pesticides.
- . Health-promoting nutritious crop: Compared to other cereals they have superior micronutrient profile and bioactive flavonoids.
- . Millets have a low Glycemic Index (GI) and also associated with the prevention of diabetes.
- They are good source of minerals like iron, zinc, and calcium.
- Millets are gluten-free and can be consumed by celiac disease patients.
- . Millet has a beneficial effect on the management and prevention of hyperlipidemia and risk of CVD.
- . Millets are found to be helpful with the reduction of weight, BMI, and high blood pressure.
- . In India, Millet is generally consumed with legumes, which creates mutual supplementation of protein, increases the amino acid content, and enhances the overall digestibility of protein.
- . Millet based value-added products in ready to cook, ready to eat category are easily accessible and convenient to the urban population.
- . Millets are used for dual purposes as food as well as fodder, which make it more farming efficient.
- . Millet cultivation helps to reduce the carbon footprint.
- India is the largest producer of millet, followed by Niger and China. Other major millet-producing countries include Burkina Faso, Mali, and Senegal.
- While millet is not a major food crop in the developed world, it plays a vital role in the diets of many people in developing countries. Millet is a drought-tolerant crop that can be grown in dry, arid climates where other crops would fail. It is also a nutritious grain that is high in fiber and essential minerals. For these reasons, millet will continue to be an important food crop in the years to come.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Sperm whales:
- They are the largest of the toothed whales.
- Their habitat is restricted to deep waters of temperate and polar regions only, as they are sensitive to higher temperature of tropical oceans.
- They are classified as critically endangered under IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Sperm whales are the largest of the toothed whales and have one of the widest global distributions of any marine mammal species.
- They are found in all deep oceans, from the equator to the edge of the pack ice in the Arctic and Antarctic.
- They are named after the waxy substance—spermaceti—found in their heads. The spermaceti is an oil sac that helps the whales focus sound. Spermaceti was used in oil lamps, lubricants, and candles.
- According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), the sperm whale (Physeter macrocephalus) is listed as a species of “Vulnerable” status. This means that the species is at high risk of extinction in the wild in the medium-term future.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Sperm whales are the largest of the toothed whales and have one of the widest global distributions of any marine mammal species.
- They are found in all deep oceans, from the equator to the edge of the pack ice in the Arctic and Antarctic.
- They are named after the waxy substance—spermaceti—found in their heads. The spermaceti is an oil sac that helps the whales focus sound. Spermaceti was used in oil lamps, lubricants, and candles.
- According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), the sperm whale (Physeter macrocephalus) is listed as a species of “Vulnerable” status. This means that the species is at high risk of extinction in the wild in the medium-term future.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsBrent Crude, sometimes seen in news, is primarily associated with:
Correct
Solution: A
Brent crude is the most traded of all of the oil benchmarks, and is defined as crude mostly drilled from the North Sea oilfields: Brent, Forties, Oseberg and Ekofisk (collectively known as BFOE). This oil type is widely used as it is both sweet and light, making it easy to refine into diesel fuel and gasoline.
https://indianexpress.com/article/business/market/oil-falls-as-banking-concerns-persist-likely-fed-rate-hike-8507491/
Incorrect
Solution: A
Brent crude is the most traded of all of the oil benchmarks, and is defined as crude mostly drilled from the North Sea oilfields: Brent, Forties, Oseberg and Ekofisk (collectively known as BFOE). This oil type is widely used as it is both sweet and light, making it easy to refine into diesel fuel and gasoline.
https://indianexpress.com/article/business/market/oil-falls-as-banking-concerns-persist-likely-fed-rate-hike-8507491/
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Inflatable Aerodynamic Decelerator (IAD) technology:
- It is used to increase the speed of an object, such as a spacecraft, during atmospheric entry.
- Recently, ISRO has successfully demonstrated this new technology
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
An Inflatable Aerodynamic Decelerator (IAD) is a device that is used to slow down an object, such as a spacecraft, during atmospheric entry. IADs are designed to increase the drag of the object as it moves through the atmosphere, thus slowing it down and reducing the amount of heat generated by the friction between the object and the air.
IADs can come in various shapes and sizes, but they typically consist of a large, inflatable structure that is deployed prior to atmospheric entry. As the object enters the atmosphere, the IAD inflates and expands, creating a large surface area that generates drag and slows the object down.
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully demonstrated a new technology with Inflatable Aerodynamic Decelerator (IAD). Designed and developed by ISRO’s Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), IAD is a game-changer with multiple applications for future missions including to Mars and Venus. The IAD was successfully test flown in a ‘Rohini’ sounding rocket from Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station.
Incorrect
Solution: B
An Inflatable Aerodynamic Decelerator (IAD) is a device that is used to slow down an object, such as a spacecraft, during atmospheric entry. IADs are designed to increase the drag of the object as it moves through the atmosphere, thus slowing it down and reducing the amount of heat generated by the friction between the object and the air.
IADs can come in various shapes and sizes, but they typically consist of a large, inflatable structure that is deployed prior to atmospheric entry. As the object enters the atmosphere, the IAD inflates and expands, creating a large surface area that generates drag and slows the object down.
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully demonstrated a new technology with Inflatable Aerodynamic Decelerator (IAD). Designed and developed by ISRO’s Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), IAD is a game-changer with multiple applications for future missions including to Mars and Venus. The IAD was successfully test flown in a ‘Rohini’ sounding rocket from Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Indian Wolf is an endangered species.
- Indian Wolf is a subspecies of grey wolf inhabiting in semi-arid and arid areas.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Status of the wolf in India:
- The population of wolves in India was estimated to be 3,100 — Gujarat’s wolf population was estimated to be 494, the third highest after Madhya Pradesh (772) and Rajasthan (532).
The Central Zoo Authority (CZA) and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) are also working on the conservation breeding of endangered cat species (Asiatic lion, Bengal tiger, snow leopard and clouded leopard), canine species (Tibetan wolf) and bustard species (great Indian bustard, lesser florican).
Incorrect
Solution: B
Status of the wolf in India:
- The population of wolves in India was estimated to be 3,100 — Gujarat’s wolf population was estimated to be 494, the third highest after Madhya Pradesh (772) and Rajasthan (532).
The Central Zoo Authority (CZA) and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) are also working on the conservation breeding of endangered cat species (Asiatic lion, Bengal tiger, snow leopard and clouded leopard), canine species (Tibetan wolf) and bustard species (great Indian bustard, lesser florican).
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Hypersonic Missiles
- It has a capability of flying at least at speed of Mach 5
- It is extremely difficult to detect due to maneuverability and speed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
What is a hypersonic missile?
- A hypersonic missile, such as Kinzhal, is capable of flying at least at the speed of Mach 5, i.e., five times the speed of sound, and is maneuverable.
- The maneuverability of the hypersonic missile is what differentiates it from a ballistic missile, as the latter follows a set course or a ballistic trajectory.
- This makes them extremely lethal because, by the time they are detected by ground-based radars, they are already quite near to their target.
There are two types of hypersonic weapons systems: Hypersonic Glide Vehicles (HGV) and Hypersonic Cruise Missiles. The HGVs are fired from a rocket before gliding to the intended target while the hypersonic cruise missile is powered by air-breathing high-speed engines or ‘scramjets’ after
Incorrect
Solution: C
What is a hypersonic missile?
- A hypersonic missile, such as Kinzhal, is capable of flying at least at the speed of Mach 5, i.e., five times the speed of sound, and is maneuverable.
- The maneuverability of the hypersonic missile is what differentiates it from a ballistic missile, as the latter follows a set course or a ballistic trajectory.
- This makes them extremely lethal because, by the time they are detected by ground-based radars, they are already quite near to their target.
There are two types of hypersonic weapons systems: Hypersonic Glide Vehicles (HGV) and Hypersonic Cruise Missiles. The HGVs are fired from a rocket before gliding to the intended target while the hypersonic cruise missile is powered by air-breathing high-speed engines or ‘scramjets’ after
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Cheetahs introduced in India share the space with the Asiatic Lions.
- Leopard population might pose threat to existing of the cheetahs in India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Committees
- A Parliamentary Committee is a panel of MPs that are appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the President of India.
- They draw their authority from Article 105 and Article 118.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
About Parliament’s Committees:
A Parliamentary Committee is a panel of MPs that are appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker/Chairman. They work under the direction of the Speaker/Chairman and present their report to them or to the House.
- They draw their authority from Article 105 (Privileges) and Article 118 (rules to regulate the conduct of the house)
- The Standing Committees are permanent (constituted every year or periodically) and work on a continuous basis. While the Ad Hoc Committees are temporary and cease to exist on completion of the task assigned to them.
Incorrect
Solution: B
About Parliament’s Committees:
A Parliamentary Committee is a panel of MPs that are appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker/Chairman. They work under the direction of the Speaker/Chairman and present their report to them or to the House.
- They draw their authority from Article 105 (Privileges) and Article 118 (rules to regulate the conduct of the house)
- The Standing Committees are permanent (constituted every year or periodically) and work on a continuous basis. While the Ad Hoc Committees are temporary and cease to exist on completion of the task assigned to them.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Di-Ammonium Phosphate is the second most widely used fertilizer in India.
- Nano DAP could help in precision farming.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 points3 years ago the population of a town was 1,60,000. In the three respective years the population increased by 3%, 2.5% and 5% respectively. What is the population of town after 3 years?
Correct
Correct Answer: A) 1,77,366
Explanation:
New population
= 1,60,000 [(1 + (3/100)] [(1 + (2.5/100)] [(1 + (5/100)]
= 1,77,366
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A) 1,77,366
Explanation:
New population
= 1,60,000 [(1 + (3/100)] [(1 + (2.5/100)] [(1 + (5/100)]
= 1,77,366
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsWhile selling a watch, a shopkeeper gives a discount of 15%. If he gives a discount of 20%, he earns Rs 51 less as profit. What is the original price of the watch?
Correct
Answer: D) 1020RS
Explanation:
Let the marked price be Rs.x
x * (100-15)/100 – x * (100-20)/100 = 51
x * 85/100 – x* 80/100 = 51
x * [5/100] = 51
x = Rs.1020
Incorrect
Answer: D) 1020RS
Explanation:
Let the marked price be Rs.x
x * (100-15)/100 – x * (100-20)/100 = 51
x * 85/100 – x* 80/100 = 51
x * [5/100] = 51
x = Rs.1020
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsA reduction of 20% in the price of oranges enables a man to buy 5 oranges more for Rs 10. The price of an orange before reduction was
Correct
Answer: C) 50 paise
Explanation:
Reduction in price = 20/100 * 10 = Rs 2
For 5 oranges, reduction in cost = 2/5 Rs or 200/5 = 40 paise
So actual cost before reduction = 40/1-0.20 = 50 paiseIncorrect
Answer: C) 50 paise
Explanation:
Reduction in price = 20/100 * 10 = Rs 2
For 5 oranges, reduction in cost = 2/5 Rs or 200/5 = 40 paise
So actual cost before reduction = 40/1-0.20 = 50 paise -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsP & Q entered in to partnership P investing Rs 8000 and Rs 6000 respectively. After 3 months P withdrew Rs 2000 while Q invested Rs 2000 more. After 3 more months, R joins the business with a capital of Rs 11000. The share of Q exceeds that of R. Out of the a total profit of Rs 35,100 after one year by.
Correct
Correct Option: B) Rs 3600
P : Q : R = (8000 × 3 + 6000 × 9) : (6000 × 3 + 8000 × 9) : (11000 × 6)
⇒ (24000 + 54000) : (18000 + 72000) : (6600)
⇒ 78000 : 90000 : 66000
⇒ 26 : 30 : 22
⇒ 13 : 15 : 11
∴ Difference of Q’s & R’s shares
= Rs[35100 × (15/39) – 35100 × (11/39)]
⇒ Rs.(900 × 15 – 900 × 11) ⇒ 13500 – 9900 ⇒ Rs 3600.
Hence, option B is correct.
Incorrect
Correct Option: B) Rs 3600
P : Q : R = (8000 × 3 + 6000 × 9) : (6000 × 3 + 8000 × 9) : (11000 × 6)
⇒ (24000 + 54000) : (18000 + 72000) : (6600)
⇒ 78000 : 90000 : 66000
⇒ 26 : 30 : 22
⇒ 13 : 15 : 11
∴ Difference of Q’s & R’s shares
= Rs[35100 × (15/39) – 35100 × (11/39)]
⇒ Rs.(900 × 15 – 900 × 11) ⇒ 13500 – 9900 ⇒ Rs 3600.
Hence, option B is correct.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsThe YouGov-Mint Millennial Survey was conducted in January 2019 as an online poll asking over 5,000 respondents, across different age groups in 180 cities, about their habits, preferences and values with specific questions about women’s role in society. The survey revealed that the majority (75%) of men and women in Urban India supported women working outside their homes.
This support cuts across ages with both those aged under and above 30 supporting women’s right to work. Similarly, there is an overwhelming acceptance of gender equality in salaries. Around 90% of Indians online agreed that men and women should be paid equally for the same work.
However, breaking down the results by gender reveals that there remains a significant minority of men who believe that it is unacceptable for women to work. One in five men surveyed disagreed with women working outside their homes. There is also little difference in this belief between generations: both men under 30 and above 30 felt equally strongly about women working.
Which of the following is/are valid conclusion that can be made on the basis of your reading the passage?
- Equal pay for equal work is an idea whose time has come
- Spread of education has helped in erasing the patriarchal notions with respect to women’s right to work
- The people who have an online presence generally have progressive views
Correct
Answer. A) 1 only.
2 is wrong as to education might be one of the factors but there are also other factors like economic necessity, socio-cultural factors which have not been discussed in the passage. Hence we cannot arrive at the conclusion given in 2 based on the facts given in the passage. 3 is wrong again as the passage does not have sufficient data to come to that conclusion. Hence A.
Incorrect
Answer. A) 1 only.
2 is wrong as to education might be one of the factors but there are also other factors like economic necessity, socio-cultural factors which have not been discussed in the passage. Hence we cannot arrive at the conclusion given in 2 based on the facts given in the passage. 3 is wrong again as the passage does not have sufficient data to come to that conclusion. Hence A.
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