INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding GenomeIndia Project
- It is an initiative of CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology (IGIB), Delhi.
- The GIP aims to collect one lakh genetic samples from citizens across India, to build a reference genome.
- It will help in advancing personalized medicine regimen in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Taking inspiration from the Human Genome Project, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) initiated the ambitious “Genome India Project” (GIP) on 3rd January 2020. The GIP aims to collect 10,000 genetic samples from citizens across India, to build a reference genome.
GenomeIndia: “Cataloguing the Genetic Variation in Indians” is a Pan India initiative focused on Whole Genome Sequencing of representative populations across India. The goal is to start with and execute whole genome sequencing and subsequent data analysis of 10,000 individuals representing the country’s diverse population. This will help build an exhaustive catalogue of genetic variations in Indian population, and aid in the designing of a genome wide association chip for Indian population which will facilitate further large-scale genetic studies in a cost-effective manner. Furthermore, it would also open new vistas for advancing personalized medicine regimen in the country paving the way for predicting health and disease outcomes and modulating treatment protocols on the basis of the genome sequences.
The proposed target of Whole Genome Sequencing (WGS) is to do it for total 10,000 individuals representing the country’s diverse population in 3 years.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Taking inspiration from the Human Genome Project, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) initiated the ambitious “Genome India Project” (GIP) on 3rd January 2020. The GIP aims to collect 10,000 genetic samples from citizens across India, to build a reference genome.
GenomeIndia: “Cataloguing the Genetic Variation in Indians” is a Pan India initiative focused on Whole Genome Sequencing of representative populations across India. The goal is to start with and execute whole genome sequencing and subsequent data analysis of 10,000 individuals representing the country’s diverse population. This will help build an exhaustive catalogue of genetic variations in Indian population, and aid in the designing of a genome wide association chip for Indian population which will facilitate further large-scale genetic studies in a cost-effective manner. Furthermore, it would also open new vistas for advancing personalized medicine regimen in the country paving the way for predicting health and disease outcomes and modulating treatment protocols on the basis of the genome sequences.
The proposed target of Whole Genome Sequencing (WGS) is to do it for total 10,000 individuals representing the country’s diverse population in 3 years.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding CAR T-cell therapy
- It is a type of treatment in which a patient’s T cells are changed in the laboratory so they will attack cancer cells.
- Humoral immunity depends on the T Cells.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
CAR T-cell therapy
A type of treatment in which a patient’s T cells (a type of immune system cell) are changed in the laboratory so they will attack cancer cells. T cells are taken from a patient’s blood. Then the gene for a special receptor that binds to a certain protein on the patient’s cancer cells is added to the T cells in the laboratory. The special receptor is called a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR). Large numbers of the CAR T cells are grown in the laboratory and given to the patient by infusion. CAR T-cell therapy is used to treat certain blood cancers, and it is being studied in the treatment of other types of cancer. Also called chimeric antigen receptor T-cell therapy.
The immune system is the body’s defense against infection and cancer. It is made up of billions of cells that are divided into several different types.
Lymphocytes, a subtype of white blood cells, comprise a major portion of the immune system. There are three types of lymphocytes
- B lymphocytes (B cells) make antibodies to fight infection.
- T lymphocytes (T cells) have several functions, including helping B lymphocytes to make antibodies to fight infection, and directly killing infected cells in the body.
- Natural killer cells also attack infected cells and eliminate viruses.
- The B Cells have the ability to transform into plasmocytes and are responsible for producing antibodies (Abs). Thus, humoral immunity depends on the B Cells while cell immunity depends on the T Cells.
Incorrect
Solution: A
CAR T-cell therapy
A type of treatment in which a patient’s T cells (a type of immune system cell) are changed in the laboratory so they will attack cancer cells. T cells are taken from a patient’s blood. Then the gene for a special receptor that binds to a certain protein on the patient’s cancer cells is added to the T cells in the laboratory. The special receptor is called a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR). Large numbers of the CAR T cells are grown in the laboratory and given to the patient by infusion. CAR T-cell therapy is used to treat certain blood cancers, and it is being studied in the treatment of other types of cancer. Also called chimeric antigen receptor T-cell therapy.
The immune system is the body’s defense against infection and cancer. It is made up of billions of cells that are divided into several different types.
Lymphocytes, a subtype of white blood cells, comprise a major portion of the immune system. There are three types of lymphocytes
- B lymphocytes (B cells) make antibodies to fight infection.
- T lymphocytes (T cells) have several functions, including helping B lymphocytes to make antibodies to fight infection, and directly killing infected cells in the body.
- Natural killer cells also attack infected cells and eliminate viruses.
- The B Cells have the ability to transform into plasmocytes and are responsible for producing antibodies (Abs). Thus, humoral immunity depends on the B Cells while cell immunity depends on the T Cells.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Somatic cell nuclear transfer
- Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) is a laboratory strategy for creating a viable embryo from a body cell and an egg cell.
- It is used in both therapeutic and reproductive cloning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Somatic cell nuclear transfer
In genetics and developmental biology, somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) is a laboratory strategy for creating a viable embryo from a body cell and an egg cell. The technique consists of taking an enucleated oocyte (egg cell) and implanting a donor nucleus from a somatic (body) cell. It is used in both therapeutic and reproductive cloning. In 1996, Dolly the sheep became famous for being the first successful case of the reproductive cloning of a mammal.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Somatic cell nuclear transfer
In genetics and developmental biology, somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) is a laboratory strategy for creating a viable embryo from a body cell and an egg cell. The technique consists of taking an enucleated oocyte (egg cell) and implanting a donor nucleus from a somatic (body) cell. It is used in both therapeutic and reproductive cloning. In 1996, Dolly the sheep became famous for being the first successful case of the reproductive cloning of a mammal.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Stem cells
- Totipotent cells can form only one cell type.
- Pluripotent cells can form all the cell types in a body, plus the extraembryonic, or placental cells.
- Adult stem cells and cord blood stem cells are considered multipotent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Stem cells are the body’s raw materials — cells from which all other cells with specialized functions are generated. Under the right conditions in the body or a laboratory, stem cells divide to form more cells called daughter cells. No other cell in the body has the natural ability to generate new cell types.
Totipotent cells can form all the cell types in a body, plus the extraembryonic, or placental, cells. Embryonic cells within the first couple of cell divisions after fertilization are the only cells that are totipotent. Pluripotent cells can give rise to all of the cell types that make up the body (but not the placenta); embryonic stem cells are considered pluripotent. Multipotent cells can develop into more than one cell type, but are more limited than pluripotent cells; adult stem cells and cord blood stem cells are considered multipotent.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Stem cells are the body’s raw materials — cells from which all other cells with specialized functions are generated. Under the right conditions in the body or a laboratory, stem cells divide to form more cells called daughter cells. No other cell in the body has the natural ability to generate new cell types.
Totipotent cells can form all the cell types in a body, plus the extraembryonic, or placental, cells. Embryonic cells within the first couple of cell divisions after fertilization are the only cells that are totipotent. Pluripotent cells can give rise to all of the cell types that make up the body (but not the placenta); embryonic stem cells are considered pluripotent. Multipotent cells can develop into more than one cell type, but are more limited than pluripotent cells; adult stem cells and cord blood stem cells are considered multipotent.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding RNA interference (RNAi)
- It is a conserved biological response to double-stranded RNA that mediates resistance to both endogenous parasitic and exogenous pathogenic nucleic acids.
- It is a natural mechanism for sequence-specific gene silencing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
RNA interference (RNAi) or Post-Transcriptional Gene Silencing (PTGS) is a conserved biological response to double-stranded RNA that mediates resistance to both endogenous parasitic and exogenous pathogenic nucleic acids, and regulates the expression of protein-coding genes. This natural mechanism for sequence-specific gene silencing promises to revolutionize experimental biology and may have important practical applications in functional genomics, therapeutic intervention, agriculture and other areas.
RNA interference (RNAi) is a biological process in which RNA molecules are involved in sequence-specific suppression of gene expression by double-stranded RNA, through translational or transcriptional repression. Historically, RNAi was known by other names, including co-suppression, post-transcriptional gene silencing (PTGS), and quelling. The detailed study of each of these seemingly different processes elucidated that the identity of these phenomena were all actually RNAi. Andrew Fire and Craig C. Mello shared the 2006 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for their work on RNAi in the nematode worm Caenorhabditis elegans, which they published in 1998. Since the discovery of RNAi and its regulatory potentials, it has become evident that RNAi has immense potential in suppression of desired genes. RNAi is now known as precise, efficient, stable and better than antisense therapy for gene suppression. Antisense RNA produced intracellularly by an expression vector may be developed and find utility as novel therapeutic agents.
Incorrect
Solution: C
RNA interference (RNAi) or Post-Transcriptional Gene Silencing (PTGS) is a conserved biological response to double-stranded RNA that mediates resistance to both endogenous parasitic and exogenous pathogenic nucleic acids, and regulates the expression of protein-coding genes. This natural mechanism for sequence-specific gene silencing promises to revolutionize experimental biology and may have important practical applications in functional genomics, therapeutic intervention, agriculture and other areas.
RNA interference (RNAi) is a biological process in which RNA molecules are involved in sequence-specific suppression of gene expression by double-stranded RNA, through translational or transcriptional repression. Historically, RNAi was known by other names, including co-suppression, post-transcriptional gene silencing (PTGS), and quelling. The detailed study of each of these seemingly different processes elucidated that the identity of these phenomena were all actually RNAi. Andrew Fire and Craig C. Mello shared the 2006 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for their work on RNAi in the nematode worm Caenorhabditis elegans, which they published in 1998. Since the discovery of RNAi and its regulatory potentials, it has become evident that RNAi has immense potential in suppression of desired genes. RNAi is now known as precise, efficient, stable and better than antisense therapy for gene suppression. Antisense RNA produced intracellularly by an expression vector may be developed and find utility as novel therapeutic agents.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
- In both Eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles (such as the nucleus and mitochondria).
- DNA in eukaryotic cells is found inside the nucleus, while DNA in prokaryotic cells is located in the cytoplasm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
- Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles (such as the nucleus and mitochondria), while prokaryotic cells do not.
- DNA in eukaryotic cells is found inside the nucleus, while DNA in prokaryotic cells is located in the cytoplasm.
- Eukaryotic cells are generally larger and more complex than prokaryotic cells.
- Eukaryotic organisms include animals, plants, fungi, and paramecia. Prokaryotic organisms include bacteria and archaea.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
- Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles (such as the nucleus and mitochondria), while prokaryotic cells do not.
- DNA in eukaryotic cells is found inside the nucleus, while DNA in prokaryotic cells is located in the cytoplasm.
- Eukaryotic cells are generally larger and more complex than prokaryotic cells.
- Eukaryotic organisms include animals, plants, fungi, and paramecia. Prokaryotic organisms include bacteria and archaea.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Parker Solar Probe
- It is a joint project of NASA, ESA and CSA.
- Parker Solar Probe is the first-ever mission to “touch” the Sun.
- It is a mission named for Dr. Eugene Parker, the scientist who theorized the existence of the solar wind.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
What is Parker Solar Probe?
- A scientific mission to unlock the mysteries of the Sun’s corona and solar wind
- A spacecraft that uses breakthrough technology and autonomy to endure heat and radiation like no other mission
- A unique solar observatory that will orbit within 4 million miles of our star’s surface to directly study the formation of the solar wind
- A mission named for Dr. Eugene Parker, the scientist who theorized the existence of the solar wind.
- NASA’s Parker Solar Probe is the first-ever mission to “touch” the Sun.
Incorrect
Solution: D
What is Parker Solar Probe?
- A scientific mission to unlock the mysteries of the Sun’s corona and solar wind
- A spacecraft that uses breakthrough technology and autonomy to endure heat and radiation like no other mission
- A unique solar observatory that will orbit within 4 million miles of our star’s surface to directly study the formation of the solar wind
- A mission named for Dr. Eugene Parker, the scientist who theorized the existence of the solar wind.
- NASA’s Parker Solar Probe is the first-ever mission to “touch” the Sun.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC)
- NavIC is designed with a constellation of 9 satellites and a network of ground stations operating 24 x 7.
- NavIC offers two services, Standard Position Service (SPS) for civilian users and Restricted Service (RS) for strategic users.
- These two services are provided in S band only, making it more accurate than other systems.
- NavIC SPS signals are non-interoperable with the other global navigation satellite system (GNSS) signals namely GPS and Glonass, hence Indian Electronics manufactures have not included them in navigation devices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC)
To meet the positioning, navigation and timing requirements of the nation, ISRO has established a regional navigation satellite system called Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC). NavIC was erstwhile known as Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS).
NavIC is designed with a constellation of 7 satellites and a network of ground stations operating 24 x 7. Three satellites of the constellation are placed in geostationary orbit, at 32.5°E, 83°E and 129.5°E respectively, and four satellites are placed in inclined geosynchronous orbit with equatorial crossing of55°E and 111.75°E respectively, with inclination of 29° (two satellites in each plane).
NavIC offers two services: Standard Position Service (SPS) for civilian users and Restricted Service (RS) for strategic users. These two services are provided in both L5 (1176.45 MHz) and S band (2498.028 MHz). NavIC coverage area includes India and a region up to 1500 km beyond Indian boundary. NavIC signals are designed to provide user position accuracy better than 20m (2s) and timing accuracy better than 50ns (2s). NavIC SPS signals are interoperable with the other global navigation satellite system (GNSS) signalsnamely GPS,Glonass,Galileo, and BeiDou.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC)
To meet the positioning, navigation and timing requirements of the nation, ISRO has established a regional navigation satellite system called Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC). NavIC was erstwhile known as Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS).
NavIC is designed with a constellation of 7 satellites and a network of ground stations operating 24 x 7. Three satellites of the constellation are placed in geostationary orbit, at 32.5°E, 83°E and 129.5°E respectively, and four satellites are placed in inclined geosynchronous orbit with equatorial crossing of55°E and 111.75°E respectively, with inclination of 29° (two satellites in each plane).
NavIC offers two services: Standard Position Service (SPS) for civilian users and Restricted Service (RS) for strategic users. These two services are provided in both L5 (1176.45 MHz) and S band (2498.028 MHz). NavIC coverage area includes India and a region up to 1500 km beyond Indian boundary. NavIC signals are designed to provide user position accuracy better than 20m (2s) and timing accuracy better than 50ns (2s). NavIC SPS signals are interoperable with the other global navigation satellite system (GNSS) signalsnamely GPS,Glonass,Galileo, and BeiDou.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gaganyaan project
- Gaganyaan project envisages demonstration of human spaceflight capability by launching crew of 3 members for a 3 days mission.
- It will be launched into Medium Earth orbit.
- Vyommitra is a female-looking spacefaring humanoid robot being developed by the ISRO to function on-board the Gaganyaan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Gaganyaan
Gaganyaan project envisages demonstration of human spaceflight capability by launching crew of 3 members to an orbit of 400 km (Low earth orbit) for a 3 days mission and bring them back safely to earth, by landing in Indian sea waters.
The project is accomplished through an optimal strategy by considering inhouse expertise, experience of Indian industry, intellectual capabilities of Indian academia & research institutions along with cutting edge technologies available with international agencies.
Vyommitra is a female-looking spacefaring humanoid robot being developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation to function on-board the Gaganyaan, a crewed orbital spacecraft. Vyommitra was first unveiled on 22 January 2020 at the Human Spaceflight and Exploration symposium in Bengaluru.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Gaganyaan
Gaganyaan project envisages demonstration of human spaceflight capability by launching crew of 3 members to an orbit of 400 km (Low earth orbit) for a 3 days mission and bring them back safely to earth, by landing in Indian sea waters.
The project is accomplished through an optimal strategy by considering inhouse expertise, experience of Indian industry, intellectual capabilities of Indian academia & research institutions along with cutting edge technologies available with international agencies.
Vyommitra is a female-looking spacefaring humanoid robot being developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation to function on-board the Gaganyaan, a crewed orbital spacecraft. Vyommitra was first unveiled on 22 January 2020 at the Human Spaceflight and Exploration symposium in Bengaluru.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Dark Matter and Dark Energy
- The composition of universe is ~27% dark energy, ~68% dark matter and rest ~5% is normal matter.
- Stephen Hawking was the first person to realize that empty space is not nothing, but composed of matter and energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
What Is Dark Energy?
More is unknown than is known. We know how much dark energy there is because we know how it affects the universe’s expansion. Other than that, it is a complete mystery. But it is an important mystery. It turns out that roughly 68% of the universe is dark energy. Dark matter makes up about 27%. The rest – everything on Earth, everything ever observed with all of our instruments, all normal matter – adds up to less than 5% of the universe. Come to think of it, maybe it shouldn’t be called “normal” matter at all, since it is such a small fraction of the universe.
One explanation for dark energy is that it is a property of space. Albert Einstein was the first person to realize that empty space is not nothing.
What Is Dark Matter?
By fitting a theoretical model of the composition of the universe to the combined set of cosmological observations, scientists have come up with the composition that we described above, ~68% dark energy, ~27% dark matter, ~5% normal matter.
Incorrect
Solution: D
What Is Dark Energy?
More is unknown than is known. We know how much dark energy there is because we know how it affects the universe’s expansion. Other than that, it is a complete mystery. But it is an important mystery. It turns out that roughly 68% of the universe is dark energy. Dark matter makes up about 27%. The rest – everything on Earth, everything ever observed with all of our instruments, all normal matter – adds up to less than 5% of the universe. Come to think of it, maybe it shouldn’t be called “normal” matter at all, since it is such a small fraction of the universe.
One explanation for dark energy is that it is a property of space. Albert Einstein was the first person to realize that empty space is not nothing.
What Is Dark Matter?
By fitting a theoretical model of the composition of the universe to the combined set of cosmological observations, scientists have come up with the composition that we described above, ~68% dark energy, ~27% dark matter, ~5% normal matter.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Dark Sky Reserve
- They are defined under Outer Space treaty.
- India’s first dark sky reserve is set to come up in Lakshadweep Islands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
India’s first dark sky reserve is set to come up in Hanle, Ladakh.
What is a Dark Sky Reserve?
The International Dark Sky Association (IDSA) defines an international dark sky reserve (IDSR) as “a public or private land of substantial size (at least 700 km², or about 173,000 acres) possessing an exceptional or distinguished quality of starry nights and nocturnal environment, and that is specifically protected for its scientific, natural, educational, cultural heritage, and/or public enjoyment.”
Why Ladakh?
The Hanle Dark Sky Reserve (HDSR) will come up within the Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary, situated 4,500 metres above sea level, which makes it a perfect host for telescopes. Ladakh is also ideal for long-term observatories and dark-sky sites because of its large arid area, high elevation, and sparse population.
Incorrect
Solution: D
India’s first dark sky reserve is set to come up in Hanle, Ladakh.
What is a Dark Sky Reserve?
The International Dark Sky Association (IDSA) defines an international dark sky reserve (IDSR) as “a public or private land of substantial size (at least 700 km², or about 173,000 acres) possessing an exceptional or distinguished quality of starry nights and nocturnal environment, and that is specifically protected for its scientific, natural, educational, cultural heritage, and/or public enjoyment.”
Why Ladakh?
The Hanle Dark Sky Reserve (HDSR) will come up within the Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary, situated 4,500 metres above sea level, which makes it a perfect host for telescopes. Ladakh is also ideal for long-term observatories and dark-sky sites because of its large arid area, high elevation, and sparse population.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ramjet Engine
- A ramjet is a variant of an air breathing jet engine that includes a rotary compressor.
- A ramjet cannot function at zero airspeed and therefore cannot be used to power an aircraft in all phases of flight.
- Ramjet engines are used for Mach 0.3 to Mach 2 speed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Generally, there are five types of engines: ramjet engines, turbo jet engines, turbo-fan engines, turbo-prop engines, and piston engines. Ramjet engines and turbo jet engines are used for very high speed, turbo fans engines are used for Mach 0.3 to Mach 2, turbo prop and piston engines are used for very low speed.
A ramjet is a variant of an air breathing jet engine that does not include a rotary compressor; rather, it uses the engine’s forward motion to compress the incoming air. A ramjet cannot function at zero airspeed and therefore cannot be used to power an aircraft in all phases of flight. A ramjet equipped aircraft requires another type of propulsion to accelerate it to a speed at which the ramjet is capable of producing thrust.
A ramjet can theoretically be started at speeds as low as 100 knots but it does not start to produce any significant thrust until the airspeed reaches approximately mach 0.5. Even at this speed, efficiency is very low and peak efficiency will not be attained until reaching supersonic speeds in the realm of mach 3. Ramjet engines are limited to a maximum speed of about mach 6 due to the shockwave induced pressure loss which occurs when slowing the intake air to subsonic speed.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Generally, there are five types of engines: ramjet engines, turbo jet engines, turbo-fan engines, turbo-prop engines, and piston engines. Ramjet engines and turbo jet engines are used for very high speed, turbo fans engines are used for Mach 0.3 to Mach 2, turbo prop and piston engines are used for very low speed.
A ramjet is a variant of an air breathing jet engine that does not include a rotary compressor; rather, it uses the engine’s forward motion to compress the incoming air. A ramjet cannot function at zero airspeed and therefore cannot be used to power an aircraft in all phases of flight. A ramjet equipped aircraft requires another type of propulsion to accelerate it to a speed at which the ramjet is capable of producing thrust.
A ramjet can theoretically be started at speeds as low as 100 knots but it does not start to produce any significant thrust until the airspeed reaches approximately mach 0.5. Even at this speed, efficiency is very low and peak efficiency will not be attained until reaching supersonic speeds in the realm of mach 3. Ramjet engines are limited to a maximum speed of about mach 6 due to the shockwave induced pressure loss which occurs when slowing the intake air to subsonic speed.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsMatch the following Joint Military exercise by India
- China: Ex HAND IN HAND
- UK: Ex GARUDA SHAKTI
- Russia: Ex INDRA
- USA: Ex VAJRA PRAHAR
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: C
Joint Exercises conducted by Army
China Ex HAND IN HAND Indonesia Ex GARUDA SHAKTI Mongolia Ex NOMADIC ELEPHANT Russia Ex INDRA Thailand Ex MAITREE USA Ex VAJRA PRAHAR Incorrect
Solution: C
Joint Exercises conducted by Army
China Ex HAND IN HAND Indonesia Ex GARUDA SHAKTI Mongolia Ex NOMADIC ELEPHANT Russia Ex INDRA Thailand Ex MAITREE USA Ex VAJRA PRAHAR -
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Scorpène-class submarines
- The Scorpène-class submarines are a class of nuclear submarines.
- They were developed by Royal Navy of United Kingdom.
- The Kalvari class submarines in India are based on the Scorpène-class submarine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Scorpène-class submarines are a class of diesel-electric attack submarines jointly developed by the French Naval Group (formerly the DCNS) and the Spanish company Navantia. It features diesel propulsion and an additional air-independent propulsion (AIP).
The Kalvari class is a class of diesel-electric attack submarines based on the Scorpène-class submarine being built for the Indian Navy. The class and submarines take their names from the first submarines inducted in the Indian Navy. The submarines are designed by French naval defence and energy company DCNS and are being manufactured by Mazagon Dock Limited in Mumbai.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Scorpène-class submarines are a class of diesel-electric attack submarines jointly developed by the French Naval Group (formerly the DCNS) and the Spanish company Navantia. It features diesel propulsion and an additional air-independent propulsion (AIP).
The Kalvari class is a class of diesel-electric attack submarines based on the Scorpène-class submarine being built for the Indian Navy. The class and submarines take their names from the first submarines inducted in the Indian Navy. The submarines are designed by French naval defence and energy company DCNS and are being manufactured by Mazagon Dock Limited in Mumbai.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) interceptor AD-1 missile
- The AD-1 is a long-range interceptor missile designed exclusively for exo-atmospheric interception of long-range ballistic missiles as well as aircraft.
- It is propelled by a two-stage solid motor.
- AD-1 missile can target a weaponised flying object in the range of 1,500 km to 3,000 km.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) interceptor AD-1 missile
The AD-1 is a long-range interceptor missile designed for both low exo-atmospheric and endo-atmospheric interception of long-range ballistic missiles as well as aircraft. It is propelled by a two-stage solid motor and equipped with indigenously-developed advanced control system, navigation and guidance algorithm to precisely guide the vehicle to the target.
Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) conducted a successful maiden flight-test of Phase-II Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) interceptor AD-1 missile which can target a weaponised flying object in the range of 1,500 km to 3,000 km.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) interceptor AD-1 missile
The AD-1 is a long-range interceptor missile designed for both low exo-atmospheric and endo-atmospheric interception of long-range ballistic missiles as well as aircraft. It is propelled by a two-stage solid motor and equipped with indigenously-developed advanced control system, navigation and guidance algorithm to precisely guide the vehicle to the target.
Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) conducted a successful maiden flight-test of Phase-II Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) interceptor AD-1 missile which can target a weaponised flying object in the range of 1,500 km to 3,000 km.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The defining features of Nagara Style of temples are Garbagriha, Shikhara and Mandapa.
- The temples of Khajuraho are an example of the Nagara style as the temples consist of antarala and mahamandapa.
- The initial mention of Khajuraho temples is found in the accounts of Al Biruni and Ibn Batuta.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
The art and architecture involved in the construction of Hindu Temples is well defined in the Shilpa Shastra.
It mentions three main kinds of temple architecture in India: Nagara or the Northern Style, Dravida or the Southern style and Vesara or the Mixed style.
Statement 1 is correct: The defining features of a Nagara style are Garbhagriha (Sanctum Sanctorum), Shikhara (Curvilinear tower), and Mandapa (Entrance Hall).
The Nagara style developed gradually as the earlier temples had only one Shikhara, while the later temples were constructed with multiple Shikharas and the Garbhagriha can always be found under the tallest tower.
Statement 2 is correct: The Temples of Khajuraho are a magnificent example of the Nagara style of temples as the temples consist of a sanctum, a narrow ante-chamber (antarala), a transept (mahamandapa), additional halls (ardha mandapa), a mandapa or nave and an ambulatory passage (Pradakshina-path) which is lighted by large windows.
Statement 3 is correct: Khajuraho, known for its ornate temples, was built by the Chandela rulers between 900 CE to 1130 CE. The first mention of Khajuraho and its temples is in the accounts of Abu Rahyan al Biruni (1022 CE) and Ibn Batuta (1335 CE).
Source: https://indianculture.gov.in/stories/temples-khajuraho
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
The art and architecture involved in the construction of Hindu Temples is well defined in the Shilpa Shastra.
It mentions three main kinds of temple architecture in India: Nagara or the Northern Style, Dravida or the Southern style and Vesara or the Mixed style.
Statement 1 is correct: The defining features of a Nagara style are Garbhagriha (Sanctum Sanctorum), Shikhara (Curvilinear tower), and Mandapa (Entrance Hall).
The Nagara style developed gradually as the earlier temples had only one Shikhara, while the later temples were constructed with multiple Shikharas and the Garbhagriha can always be found under the tallest tower.
Statement 2 is correct: The Temples of Khajuraho are a magnificent example of the Nagara style of temples as the temples consist of a sanctum, a narrow ante-chamber (antarala), a transept (mahamandapa), additional halls (ardha mandapa), a mandapa or nave and an ambulatory passage (Pradakshina-path) which is lighted by large windows.
Statement 3 is correct: Khajuraho, known for its ornate temples, was built by the Chandela rulers between 900 CE to 1130 CE. The first mention of Khajuraho and its temples is in the accounts of Abu Rahyan al Biruni (1022 CE) and Ibn Batuta (1335 CE).
Source: https://indianculture.gov.in/stories/temples-khajuraho
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsThe objectives of PM-DevINE Scheme are-
- Fund infrastructure in the spirit of PM Gati Shakti.
- Development of modern infrastructure in religious destinations.
- Harness pilgrimage tourism for employment generation.
- Support social development projects in the North-East Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Prime Minister’s Development Initiative for North East Region (PM-DevINE) will lead to creation of infrastructure, support industries, social development projects and create livelihood activities for youth and women, thus leading to employment generation.
PM-DevINE will be implemented by Ministry of DoNER through North Eastern Council or Central Ministries/ agencies.
The objectives of PM-DevINE are to:
- Fund infrastructure convergently, in the spirit of PM Gati Shakti;
- Support social development projects based on felt needs of the NER;
- Enable livelihood activities for youth and women;
Fill the development gaps in various sectors
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Prime Minister’s Development Initiative for North East Region (PM-DevINE) will lead to creation of infrastructure, support industries, social development projects and create livelihood activities for youth and women, thus leading to employment generation.
PM-DevINE will be implemented by Ministry of DoNER through North Eastern Council or Central Ministries/ agencies.
The objectives of PM-DevINE are to:
- Fund infrastructure convergently, in the spirit of PM Gati Shakti;
- Support social development projects based on felt needs of the NER;
- Enable livelihood activities for youth and women;
Fill the development gaps in various sectors
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following protected areas has been designated as a Dark-Sky Reserve recently?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: The district administration of Ladakh designated six hamlets within the Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary a “dark-sky reserve” – an area whose skies were free of light pollution.
- The designation meant that the reserve had a responsibility to keep the skies dark, particularly for the astronomical observatories located in the area.
- These incidents also rendered the absence of a global treaty to reduce light pollution more conspicuous.
- But while authorities safeguard telescopes’ access to dark skies by actively lowering light pollution around their sites, the night is actually becoming brighter in almost the rest of the world thanks to ‘skyglow’ with significant ecological, health and cultural consequences.
- The proposed dark sky reserve will be located at Hanle in Ladakh as a part of Changthang wildlife sanctuary.
- The night sky sanctuary will attract tourists from across the world over to picturesque Ladakh and also boost astro-tourism in the region.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/work-on-indias-first-ever-night-sky-sanctuary-in-ladakh-will-be-over-in-months-time-jitendra-singh/article66183668.ece
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: The district administration of Ladakh designated six hamlets within the Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary a “dark-sky reserve” – an area whose skies were free of light pollution.
- The designation meant that the reserve had a responsibility to keep the skies dark, particularly for the astronomical observatories located in the area.
- These incidents also rendered the absence of a global treaty to reduce light pollution more conspicuous.
- But while authorities safeguard telescopes’ access to dark skies by actively lowering light pollution around their sites, the night is actually becoming brighter in almost the rest of the world thanks to ‘skyglow’ with significant ecological, health and cultural consequences.
- The proposed dark sky reserve will be located at Hanle in Ladakh as a part of Changthang wildlife sanctuary.
- The night sky sanctuary will attract tourists from across the world over to picturesque Ladakh and also boost astro-tourism in the region.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/work-on-indias-first-ever-night-sky-sanctuary-in-ladakh-will-be-over-in-months-time-jitendra-singh/article66183668.ece
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsThe ancient linguistics text “Ashtadhyayi” is written by-
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: Written more than 2,000 years ago, the ‘Ashtadhyayi’ is a linguistics text that set the standard for how Sanskrit was meant to be written and spoken.
It delves deep into the language’s phonetics, syntax and grammar, and also offers a ‘language machine’, where you can feed in the root and suffix of any Sanskrit word, and get grammatically correct words and sentences in return.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/panini-grammar-puzzle-ashtadhyayi-rishi-rajpopat-explained-8329338/
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: Written more than 2,000 years ago, the ‘Ashtadhyayi’ is a linguistics text that set the standard for how Sanskrit was meant to be written and spoken.
It delves deep into the language’s phonetics, syntax and grammar, and also offers a ‘language machine’, where you can feed in the root and suffix of any Sanskrit word, and get grammatically correct words and sentences in return.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/panini-grammar-puzzle-ashtadhyayi-rishi-rajpopat-explained-8329338/
Indian Coffee began during 1600 AD when holy saint Baba Budan planted coffee beans from Yemen in the Chandragiri hills of Karnataka.
British started commercial plantations of coffee during the 18th century. India produces two types of coffee: Arabica and Robusta. Arabica has high market value while Robusta is the majorly manufactured coffee with a share of 72% of the total production.
Coffee industry provides direct employment to more than 2 million people in India.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsThe Artemis Accords, sometimes seen in news, is primarily related to:
Correct
Solution: B
The Artemis Accords are a set of statements that set out common principles, guidelines, and best practices that are applicable to the safe exploration of the moon and eventually beyond as humanity extends the duration of space missions and its reach to Mars.
While NASA is leading the Artemis program, which aims to kick start a new era of space exploration and put the first woman and person of color on the moon in 2024, international partnerships with numerous countries and private companies are vital to its success.
Initiated by NASA the aim of the accords is to establish a common set of principles to ensure missions that fall under the Artemis mission umbrella are undertaken responsibly.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Artemis Accords are a set of statements that set out common principles, guidelines, and best practices that are applicable to the safe exploration of the moon and eventually beyond as humanity extends the duration of space missions and its reach to Mars.
While NASA is leading the Artemis program, which aims to kick start a new era of space exploration and put the first woman and person of color on the moon in 2024, international partnerships with numerous countries and private companies are vital to its success.
Initiated by NASA the aim of the accords is to establish a common set of principles to ensure missions that fall under the Artemis mission umbrella are undertaken responsibly.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsBrazil is not surrounded by which of the following country?
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bioplastics
- They are derived from sources such as sugars and starches, rather than oil or gas.
- These do not create any toxic waste in their production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Bioplastics
They are derived from sources such as sugars and starches, rather than oil or gas. These do not create any toxic waste in their production. There are various types of bio plastics depending on the material they are made from, starch, cellulose, sugar, starch etc.
Thermo plastics are starch based, used for making drug capsules because of their ability to absorb waterThermo plastics are most widely used constituting approximately 50% of the market.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Bioplastics
They are derived from sources such as sugars and starches, rather than oil or gas. These do not create any toxic waste in their production. There are various types of bio plastics depending on the material they are made from, starch, cellulose, sugar, starch etc.
Thermo plastics are starch based, used for making drug capsules because of their ability to absorb waterThermo plastics are most widely used constituting approximately 50% of the market.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsNine-Dash Line Dispute, sometime seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: C
China currently claims ‘indisputable sovereignty’ over the South China Sea, and some Chinese officials refer to it as the country’s ‘blue national soil’ — a term used to refer to the country’s offshore waters.
The origins of the nine-dash line can be traced back to the official maps made by the Nationalist Kuomintang (also known as the Chinese Nationalist Party) government before and after World War II, according to the book, Asia’s Cauldron, by US scholar and strategist Robert D. Kaplan.
Eventually, Mao Zedong’s Communist forces defeated the Kuomintang government, who then fled to Taiwan, establishing their rule there. As a result, both the People’s Republic of China and Taiwan officially claim ownership over the South China Sea.
Incorrect
Solution: C
China currently claims ‘indisputable sovereignty’ over the South China Sea, and some Chinese officials refer to it as the country’s ‘blue national soil’ — a term used to refer to the country’s offshore waters.
The origins of the nine-dash line can be traced back to the official maps made by the Nationalist Kuomintang (also known as the Chinese Nationalist Party) government before and after World War II, according to the book, Asia’s Cauldron, by US scholar and strategist Robert D. Kaplan.
Eventually, Mao Zedong’s Communist forces defeated the Kuomintang government, who then fled to Taiwan, establishing their rule there. As a result, both the People’s Republic of China and Taiwan officially claim ownership over the South China Sea.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF)
- It is a US-led initiative that aims to strengthen economic partnerships among participating countries to enhance resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness, economic growth.
- It represents nearly 40% of the world GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF)
Source: PIB
Context: An Inter-Ministerial delegation from India led by the Department of Commerce participated in the second Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) negotiating round in Bali, Indonesia.
About IPEF:
- It is a US-led initiative that aims to strengthen economic partnerships among participating countries to enhance resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness, economic growth, fairness, and competitiveness in the Indo-Pacific region.
- Launched in 2021 with a dozen initial partners who together represent 40% of the world GDP.
The IPEF is not a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) but allows members to negotiate the parts they want. The negotiations will be along four main “pillars”.
- Supply-chain resilience
- Clean energy, decarbonisation & infrastructure
- Taxation & anti-corruption
- Fair & resilient
Incorrect
Solution: C
Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF)
Source: PIB
Context: An Inter-Ministerial delegation from India led by the Department of Commerce participated in the second Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) negotiating round in Bali, Indonesia.
About IPEF:
- It is a US-led initiative that aims to strengthen economic partnerships among participating countries to enhance resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness, economic growth, fairness, and competitiveness in the Indo-Pacific region.
- Launched in 2021 with a dozen initial partners who together represent 40% of the world GDP.
The IPEF is not a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) but allows members to negotiate the parts they want. The negotiations will be along four main “pillars”.
- Supply-chain resilience
- Clean energy, decarbonisation & infrastructure
- Taxation & anti-corruption
- Fair & resilient
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding International Liquid Mirror Telescope (LMT)
- It is the first liquid mirror telescope designed exclusively for astronomical observations
- It has the largest aperture telescope available in India
- It is also the first optical survey telescope in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
What are LMTs?
LMTs are stationary telescopes that image a strip of sky. It can capture all possible celestial objects — from stars, galaxies, supernovae explosions, and asteroids to space debris
Working of the telescope: ILMT employs a 4-metre-diameter rotating mirror made up of a thin layer of liquid mercury to collect and focus light.
- However, other liquids like low-melting alloys of gallium, are also used.
- The telescope is designed to survey the strip of the skypassing overhead each night.
- The data collected will be analyzed using AI/Machine learning to discover and discern variable and transient stellar sources.
About ILMT
- It is the first liquid mirror telescope designed exclusively for astronomical observations
- It has the largest aperture telescope available in India
- It is also the first optical survey telescope in India.
Incorrect
Solution: D
What are LMTs?
LMTs are stationary telescopes that image a strip of sky. It can capture all possible celestial objects — from stars, galaxies, supernovae explosions, and asteroids to space debris
Working of the telescope: ILMT employs a 4-metre-diameter rotating mirror made up of a thin layer of liquid mercury to collect and focus light.
- However, other liquids like low-melting alloys of gallium, are also used.
- The telescope is designed to survey the strip of the skypassing overhead each night.
- The data collected will be analyzed using AI/Machine learning to discover and discern variable and transient stellar sources.
About ILMT
- It is the first liquid mirror telescope designed exclusively for astronomical observations
- It has the largest aperture telescope available in India
- It is also the first optical survey telescope in India.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsMonthly incomes of A and B are in the ratio of 5:4. Their savings are in the ratio 4:3. If their respective expenditures are Rs.900 and Rs.800 respectively, what is the ratio of income and savings of B?
Correct
Solution: a) 5:3
Explanation:
Let the income of A be ‘5x’
So, the income of B is ‘4x’
Similarly,
Let the savings of A be ‘4y’
So, the savings of B is ‘3y’
From the respective expenditures, we can construct equations,
5x-4y=900
4x-3y=800
Solving the simultaneous equations in two variables,
We get
x=500 and y=400
Therefore, Income of B = 4x = 4 × 500 = 2000
Savings of B = 3y = 3 × 400 = 1200
Thus, the ratio of income and savings of B = 2000:1200
= 5:3
Incorrect
Solution: a) 5:3
Explanation:
Let the income of A be ‘5x’
So, the income of B is ‘4x’
Similarly,
Let the savings of A be ‘4y’
So, the savings of B is ‘3y’
From the respective expenditures, we can construct equations,
5x-4y=900
4x-3y=800
Solving the simultaneous equations in two variables,
We get
x=500 and y=400
Therefore, Income of B = 4x = 4 × 500 = 2000
Savings of B = 3y = 3 × 400 = 1200
Thus, the ratio of income and savings of B = 2000:1200
= 5:3
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThe ratio of the present ages of Ravi and Karan is 4:5. Five years ago, the ratio of their ages was 7:9. Find their present ages? (In years)
Correct
Sol : Option A) . 40, 50
Their present ages be 4X and 5X.
5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 7:9, then (4X – 5) 🙁 5X – 5) = 7:9
X = 45 – 35 ⇒ X = 10.
Their present ages are: 40, 50.
Incorrect
Sol : Option A) . 40, 50
Their present ages be 4X and 5X.
5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 7:9, then (4X – 5) 🙁 5X – 5) = 7:9
X = 45 – 35 ⇒ X = 10.
Their present ages are: 40, 50.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsIn a mixture, the ratio of the alchohol and water is 6 : 5. When 22 litre mixture are replaced by water, the ratio becomes 9 : 13. Find the quantity of water after replacement.
Correct
Correct Option: D) 52litres
Let alchohol = 6x, water = 5x
According to the question,
6x – 22 × (6/11) : 5x – 22 × (5/11) + 22 = 9 : 13
6x – 12 : 5x – 10 + 22 = 9 : 13
13 (6x – 12) = 9 (5x + 12)
78x – 156 = 45x + 108
78x – 45x = 156 + 108
33x = 264
x = 8
Water after replacement = 5 × 8 – 10 + 22 = 40 + 22 = 52 litre
Hence, option D is correct.
Incorrect
Correct Option: D) 52litres
Let alchohol = 6x, water = 5x
According to the question,
6x – 22 × (6/11) : 5x – 22 × (5/11) + 22 = 9 : 13
6x – 12 : 5x – 10 + 22 = 9 : 13
13 (6x – 12) = 9 (5x + 12)
78x – 156 = 45x + 108
78x – 45x = 156 + 108
33x = 264
x = 8
Water after replacement = 5 × 8 – 10 + 22 = 40 + 22 = 52 litre
Hence, option D is correct.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsGlobalisation does need a language for global transaction. How do we define global language? Any language can merit the nomenclature of ‘global language’ provided it is used in many countries. Chinese, Hindi or Arabic did not become global languages as they are country or region/religion-specific. Spanish and French could have come close to being global languages, but they were eclipsed by English, thanks to the superior backing of British imperialism and advancing technology it had. English was already the language of administration, judiciary and education in most British colonies, but even so, imperialism by itself would perhaps not have catapulted English into being the language of global transaction but for the rise of the United States as a global power. This posited English as the international language of finance, politics and culture.
Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the above passage?
Correct
Ans. B) The power enjoyed by Britain in the age of Pax Britannica led to the emergence of English as a global language
The passage talks about how Globalization is linked to the acceleration of use of English as a global language. B and C are wrong as both B and C contributed to the rise of English as a global language, however it is primarily globalization and use of technology that catapulted English into the status that it enjoys today.
Incorrect
Ans. B) The power enjoyed by Britain in the age of Pax Britannica led to the emergence of English as a global language
The passage talks about how Globalization is linked to the acceleration of use of English as a global language. B and C are wrong as both B and C contributed to the rise of English as a global language, however it is primarily globalization and use of technology that catapulted English into the status that it enjoys today.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsThere is a need to capture the space created by trade protection measures adopted globally, particularly by the United States and China. We should focus on exporting to the US such products whose imports from China (and other countries) have been recently subjected to higher tariffs. Simultaneously, specific companies should be attracted to make products in India through foreign direct investment, joint ventures, technology transfers and value chains for further export to the US (and other countries) to benefit from a favorable tariff regime.
Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the above passage?
Correct
Ans. C) The recent trade war provides an opportunity to India to boost its export
The passage highlights the opportunity that presents itself before India as a result of trade war going on between US and China which India can leverage to its own advantage. The passage is not focused on the impact of FDI, nor on the harm that the trade war has caused to the global economy or the two nations involved. Hence C is the most accurate answer.
Incorrect
Ans. C) The recent trade war provides an opportunity to India to boost its export
The passage highlights the opportunity that presents itself before India as a result of trade war going on between US and China which India can leverage to its own advantage. The passage is not focused on the impact of FDI, nor on the harm that the trade war has caused to the global economy or the two nations involved. Hence C is the most accurate answer.
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