INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
Click Here to Download the Insta Test PDF
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following physical features are located in Australia?
- Gibson Desert
- Macdonnell Ranges
- Drakensberg
- Ogaden Desert
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsEastern Ghats run through which of the following states?
- Odisha
- Tamil Nadu
- Telangana
- Karnataka
- Kerala
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
The Eastern Ghats or Kizhakku thodarchi malaigal or Pūrva Ghaṭ or toorpu kanumalu, also known as Mahendra Parvatam in the south, are a discontinuous range of mountains along India’s eastern coast. The Eastern Ghats run from the northern Odisha through Andhra Pradesh to Tamil Nadu in the south passing some parts of Karnataka. They are eroded and cut through by the four major rivers of peninsular India, known as the Godavari, Mahanadi, Krishna, and Kaveri.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Eastern Ghats or Kizhakku thodarchi malaigal or Pūrva Ghaṭ or toorpu kanumalu, also known as Mahendra Parvatam in the south, are a discontinuous range of mountains along India’s eastern coast. The Eastern Ghats run from the northern Odisha through Andhra Pradesh to Tamil Nadu in the south passing some parts of Karnataka. They are eroded and cut through by the four major rivers of peninsular India, known as the Godavari, Mahanadi, Krishna, and Kaveri.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsMatch the following city with the country they belong to:
- Gaziantep: Turkey.
- Latakia: Syria.
- Diyarbakir: Jordan.
- Mosul: Iraq.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: C
Gaziantep is a major city in south-central Turkey.
Latakia is a port city in Syria.
Diyarbakır is the largest Kurdish-majority city in Turkey.
Mosul is a city in Iraq.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding surface waves
- Love waves are propagated when the solid medium near the surface has varying vertical elastic properties.
- Of all seismic waves, Love waves spread out most in time, producing a long wave duration on seismographs.
- Rayleigh wave’s motion is a combination of longitudinal compression and dilation that results in an elliptical motion of points on the surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Earthquakes generate four principal types of elastic waves; two, known as body waves, travel within the Earth, whereas the other two, called surface waves, travel along its surface.
Of the two surface seismic waves, Love waves—named after the British seismologist A.E.H. Love, who first predicted their existence—travel faster. They are propagated when the solid medium near the surface has varying vertical elastic properties. Displacement of the medium by the wave is entirely perpendicular to the direction of propagation and has no vertical or longitudinal components. The energy of Love waves, like that of other surface waves, spreads from the source in two directions rather than in three, and so these waves produce a strong record at seismic stations even when originating from distant earthquakes.
The other principal surface waves are called Rayleigh waves after the British physicist Lord Rayleigh, who first mathematically demonstrated their existence. Rayleigh waves travel along the free surface of an elastic solid such as the Earth. Their motion is a combination of longitudinal compression and dilation that results in an elliptical motion of points on the surface. Of all seismic waves, Rayleigh waves spread out most in time, producing a long wave duration on seismographs.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Earthquakes generate four principal types of elastic waves; two, known as body waves, travel within the Earth, whereas the other two, called surface waves, travel along its surface.
Of the two surface seismic waves, Love waves—named after the British seismologist A.E.H. Love, who first predicted their existence—travel faster. They are propagated when the solid medium near the surface has varying vertical elastic properties. Displacement of the medium by the wave is entirely perpendicular to the direction of propagation and has no vertical or longitudinal components. The energy of Love waves, like that of other surface waves, spreads from the source in two directions rather than in three, and so these waves produce a strong record at seismic stations even when originating from distant earthquakes.
The other principal surface waves are called Rayleigh waves after the British physicist Lord Rayleigh, who first mathematically demonstrated their existence. Rayleigh waves travel along the free surface of an elastic solid such as the Earth. Their motion is a combination of longitudinal compression and dilation that results in an elliptical motion of points on the surface. Of all seismic waves, Rayleigh waves spread out most in time, producing a long wave duration on seismographs.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the Evidence in Support of the Continental Drift?
- The shorelines of Africa and South America facing each other have a remarkable and unmistakable match.
- The belt of ancient rocks of 2,000 million years from Brazil coast matches with those from western Africa.
- The Gondawana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
- The observations that Lemurs occur in India, Madagascar and Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Evidence in Support of the Continental Drift
The Matching of Continents (Jig-Saw-Fit)
The shorelines of Africa and South America facing each other have a remarkable and unmistakable match. It may be noted that a map produced using a computer programme to find the best fit of the Atlantic margin was presented by Bullard in 1964. It proved to be quite perfect. The match was tried at 1,000- fathom line instead of the present shoreline.
Rocks of Same Age Across the Oceans
The radiometric dating methods developed in the recent period have facilitated correlating the rock formation from different continents across the vast ocean. The belt of ancient rocks of 2,000 million years from Brazil coast matches with those from western Africa. The earliest marine deposits along the coastline of South America and Africa are of the Jurassic age. This suggests that the ocean did not exist prior to that time.
Tillite
It is the sedimentary rock formed out of deposits of glaciers. The Gondawana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. At the base, the system has thick tillite indicating extensive and prolonged glaciation. Counterparts of this succession are found in Africa, Falkland Island, Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia. Overall resemblance of the Gondawana-type sediments clearly demonstrates that these landmasses had remarkably similar histories. The glacial tillite provides unambiguous evidence of palaeoclimates and also of drifting of continents.
Placer Deposits
The occurrence of rich placer deposits of gold in the Ghana coast and the absolute absence of source rock in the region is an amazing fact. The gold bearing veins are in Brazil and it is obvious that the gold deposits of the Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
Distribution of Fossils
When identical species of plants and animals adapted to living on land or in fresh water are found on either side of the marine barriers, a problem arises regarding accounting for such distribution. The observations that Lemurs occur in India, Madagascar and Africa led some to consider a contiguous landmass ‘Lemuria’ linking these three landmasses. Mesosaurus was a small reptile adapted to shallow brackish water. The skeletons of these are found only in two localities: the Southern Cape province of South Africa and Iraver formations of Brazil. The two localities are presently 4,800 km apart with an ocean in between them.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Evidence in Support of the Continental Drift
The Matching of Continents (Jig-Saw-Fit)
The shorelines of Africa and South America facing each other have a remarkable and unmistakable match. It may be noted that a map produced using a computer programme to find the best fit of the Atlantic margin was presented by Bullard in 1964. It proved to be quite perfect. The match was tried at 1,000- fathom line instead of the present shoreline.
Rocks of Same Age Across the Oceans
The radiometric dating methods developed in the recent period have facilitated correlating the rock formation from different continents across the vast ocean. The belt of ancient rocks of 2,000 million years from Brazil coast matches with those from western Africa. The earliest marine deposits along the coastline of South America and Africa are of the Jurassic age. This suggests that the ocean did not exist prior to that time.
Tillite
It is the sedimentary rock formed out of deposits of glaciers. The Gondawana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. At the base, the system has thick tillite indicating extensive and prolonged glaciation. Counterparts of this succession are found in Africa, Falkland Island, Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia. Overall resemblance of the Gondawana-type sediments clearly demonstrates that these landmasses had remarkably similar histories. The glacial tillite provides unambiguous evidence of palaeoclimates and also of drifting of continents.
Placer Deposits
The occurrence of rich placer deposits of gold in the Ghana coast and the absolute absence of source rock in the region is an amazing fact. The gold bearing veins are in Brazil and it is obvious that the gold deposits of the Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
Distribution of Fossils
When identical species of plants and animals adapted to living on land or in fresh water are found on either side of the marine barriers, a problem arises regarding accounting for such distribution. The observations that Lemurs occur in India, Madagascar and Africa led some to consider a contiguous landmass ‘Lemuria’ linking these three landmasses. Mesosaurus was a small reptile adapted to shallow brackish water. The skeletons of these are found only in two localities: the Southern Cape province of South Africa and Iraver formations of Brazil. The two localities are presently 4,800 km apart with an ocean in between them.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding plate tectonic boundaries
- The Pacific Ring of Fire is an example of a convergent plate boundary.
- Along the divergent plate boundaries, deep seafloor trench is formed.
- Crust is cracked and broken at transform margins, but is not created or destroyed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
What are the different types of plate tectonic boundaries?
There are three kinds of plate tectonic boundaries: divergent, convergent, and transform plate boundaries.
A divergent boundary occurs when two tectonic plates move away from each other. Along these boundaries, earthquakes are common and magma (molten rock) rises from the Earth’s mantle to the surface, solidifying to create new oceanic crust. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is an example of divergent plate boundaries.
When two plates come together, it is known as a convergent boundary. The impact of the colliding plates can cause the edges of one or both plates to buckle up into a mountain range or one of the plates may bend down into a deep seafloor trench. A chain of volcanoes often forms parallel to convergent plate boundaries and powerful earthquakes are common along these boundaries. The Pacific Ring of Fire is an example of a convergent plate boundary.
At convergent plate boundaries, oceanic crust is often forced down into the mantle where it begins to melt. Magma rises into and through the other plate, solidifying into granite, the rock that makes up the continents. Thus, at convergent boundaries, continental crust is created and oceanic crust is destroyed.
Two plates sliding past each other forms a transform plate boundary. One of the most famous transform plate boundaries occurs at the San Andreas fault zone, which extends underwater. Natural or human-made structures that cross a transform boundary are offset — split into pieces and carried in opposite directions. Rocks that line the boundary are pulverized as the plates grind along, creating a linear fault valley or undersea canyon. Earthquakes are common along these faults. In contrast to convergent and divergent boundaries, crust is cracked and broken at transform margins, but is not created or destroyed.
Incorrect
Solution: C
What are the different types of plate tectonic boundaries?
There are three kinds of plate tectonic boundaries: divergent, convergent, and transform plate boundaries.
A divergent boundary occurs when two tectonic plates move away from each other. Along these boundaries, earthquakes are common and magma (molten rock) rises from the Earth’s mantle to the surface, solidifying to create new oceanic crust. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is an example of divergent plate boundaries.
When two plates come together, it is known as a convergent boundary. The impact of the colliding plates can cause the edges of one or both plates to buckle up into a mountain range or one of the plates may bend down into a deep seafloor trench. A chain of volcanoes often forms parallel to convergent plate boundaries and powerful earthquakes are common along these boundaries. The Pacific Ring of Fire is an example of a convergent plate boundary.
At convergent plate boundaries, oceanic crust is often forced down into the mantle where it begins to melt. Magma rises into and through the other plate, solidifying into granite, the rock that makes up the continents. Thus, at convergent boundaries, continental crust is created and oceanic crust is destroyed.
Two plates sliding past each other forms a transform plate boundary. One of the most famous transform plate boundaries occurs at the San Andreas fault zone, which extends underwater. Natural or human-made structures that cross a transform boundary are offset — split into pieces and carried in opposite directions. Rocks that line the boundary are pulverized as the plates grind along, creating a linear fault valley or undersea canyon. Earthquakes are common along these faults. In contrast to convergent and divergent boundaries, crust is cracked and broken at transform margins, but is not created or destroyed.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Igneous rocks
- The word igneous derives from ignis, the Latin word for “fire.”
- Intrusive igneous rocks are generally wholly crystalline and characterized by large crystal sizes visible to the naked eye.
- Extrusive igneous rocks have generally smaller crystal size and usually have a very-fine-grained or glassy groundmass.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Igneous rocks are “fire-born,” meaning that they are formed from the cooling and solidification of molten (melted) rock. The word igneous derives from ignis, the Latin word for “fire.” Molten rock material is known as magma until it is erupted onto the surface when it then is termed lava.
There are two broad types of igneous rocks:
- Intrusive (plutonic) rocks
- Extrusive (volcanic) rocks
Intrusive (Plutonic) Rocks
Intrusive igneous rocks solidify within Earth. These rocks are also known as plutonic rocks—named for Pluto, the Greek god of the underworld. Intrusive igneous rocks are generally wholly crystalline and characterized by large crystal sizes visible to the naked eye because they cool slowly.
Extrusive (Volcanic) Rocks
Extrusive igneous rocks are erupted onto the surface or into the atmosphere. Extrusive igneous rocks are also termed volcanic rocks—named for Vulcan, the Roman god of fire. Volcanic rocks have generally smaller crystal size and usually have a very-fine-grained or glassy groundmass that formed due to rapid cooling at the time of eruption.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Igneous rocks are “fire-born,” meaning that they are formed from the cooling and solidification of molten (melted) rock. The word igneous derives from ignis, the Latin word for “fire.” Molten rock material is known as magma until it is erupted onto the surface when it then is termed lava.
There are two broad types of igneous rocks:
- Intrusive (plutonic) rocks
- Extrusive (volcanic) rocks
Intrusive (Plutonic) Rocks
Intrusive igneous rocks solidify within Earth. These rocks are also known as plutonic rocks—named for Pluto, the Greek god of the underworld. Intrusive igneous rocks are generally wholly crystalline and characterized by large crystal sizes visible to the naked eye because they cool slowly.
Extrusive (Volcanic) Rocks
Extrusive igneous rocks are erupted onto the surface or into the atmosphere. Extrusive igneous rocks are also termed volcanic rocks—named for Vulcan, the Roman god of fire. Volcanic rocks have generally smaller crystal size and usually have a very-fine-grained or glassy groundmass that formed due to rapid cooling at the time of eruption.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Deltas and estuaries
- Deltas form at the mouths of rivers that transport enough sediment to build outward.
- Estuaries are present where the ocean or lake waters flood up into the river valley.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Deltas form at the mouths of rivers that transport enough sediment to build outward. In contrast, estuaries are present where the ocean or lake waters flood up into the river valley. The key difference between the two is where the sediment transported by the river is deposited. It accumulates seaward or lakeward of the average shoreline for a delta and within the river valley for an estuary. Whether any specific river-sea/lake interface is an estuary or a delta depends on the balance between the supply of sediment, the rate at which the sediment is transported away from the river mouth, and changes in sea/lake level.
Deltas require substantial accumulation of sediment at the river mouth, which can happen when the river supplies a large amount of sediment, transport processes in the sea/lake are relatively slow, and/or the sea or lake level is going down through time. In each of these cases, the river extends farther out into the standing body of water through time. River valleys are flooded, creating estuaries, when the sediment supply is low, significant amounts of sediment are transported away from the shoreline by tides and storms, and/or sea level or lake level is going up faster than sediment is accumulating.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Deltas form at the mouths of rivers that transport enough sediment to build outward. In contrast, estuaries are present where the ocean or lake waters flood up into the river valley. The key difference between the two is where the sediment transported by the river is deposited. It accumulates seaward or lakeward of the average shoreline for a delta and within the river valley for an estuary. Whether any specific river-sea/lake interface is an estuary or a delta depends on the balance between the supply of sediment, the rate at which the sediment is transported away from the river mouth, and changes in sea/lake level.
Deltas require substantial accumulation of sediment at the river mouth, which can happen when the river supplies a large amount of sediment, transport processes in the sea/lake are relatively slow, and/or the sea or lake level is going down through time. In each of these cases, the river extends farther out into the standing body of water through time. River valleys are flooded, creating estuaries, when the sediment supply is low, significant amounts of sediment are transported away from the shoreline by tides and storms, and/or sea level or lake level is going up faster than sediment is accumulating.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding vegetation in Andaman & Nicobar Islands
- The Evergreen forests are dominant in the Central & Southern Islands of the Nicobar group.
- The moist deciduous forests are common in the Andamans, they are almost absent in the Nicobar Islands.
- Grasslands occur only in the Andaman Islands.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Andaman & Nicobar Islands support very luxuriant and rich vegetation due to tropical hot and humid climate with abundant rains.
The forests in these islands have a tropical rainforest canopy, made of a mixed flora with elements from Indo-Myanmar and Indo-Malayan floral realms.
Forests in the South Andaman’s have a profuse growth of epiphytic vegetation, mostly ferns, and orchids. The Middle & North Andaman are characterized by Moist Deciduous & Wet Evergreen forests respectively. The Evergreen forests are dominant in the Central & Southern Islands of the Nicobar group. The moist deciduous forests are common in the Andamans, they are almost absent in the Nicobar Islands. Grasslands occur only in the Nicobars.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Andaman & Nicobar Islands support very luxuriant and rich vegetation due to tropical hot and humid climate with abundant rains.
The forests in these islands have a tropical rainforest canopy, made of a mixed flora with elements from Indo-Myanmar and Indo-Malayan floral realms.
Forests in the South Andaman’s have a profuse growth of epiphytic vegetation, mostly ferns, and orchids. The Middle & North Andaman are characterized by Moist Deciduous & Wet Evergreen forests respectively. The Evergreen forests are dominant in the Central & Southern Islands of the Nicobar group. The moist deciduous forests are common in the Andamans, they are almost absent in the Nicobar Islands. Grasslands occur only in the Nicobars.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following forces influence wind?
- Pressure gradient force
- Frictional force
- Coriolis force
- Gravitational force
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
The wind blows from high pressure to low pressure. The wind at the surface experiences friction. In addition, rotation of the earth also affects the wind movement. The force exerted by the rotation of the earth is known as the Coriolis force. Thus, the horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined effect of three forces – the pressure gradient force, the frictional force and the Coriolis force. In addition, the gravitational force acts downward.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The wind blows from high pressure to low pressure. The wind at the surface experiences friction. In addition, rotation of the earth also affects the wind movement. The force exerted by the rotation of the earth is known as the Coriolis force. Thus, the horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined effect of three forces – the pressure gradient force, the frictional force and the Coriolis force. In addition, the gravitational force acts downward.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Salinity of ocean waters
- The salinity for normal open ocean ranges between 33 PPT and 37 PPT.
- In the land locked seas such as Red Sea, salinity is relatively less than the surrounding oceans.
- Salinity, generally, increases with depth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Salinity of ocean waters
All waters in nature, whether rain water or ocean water, contain dissolved mineral salts. Salinity is the term used to define the total content of dissolved salts in sea water. It is calculated as the amount of salt (in gm) dissolved in 1,000 gm (1 kg) of seawater.
The salinity for normal open ocean ranges between 33o/oo and 37 o/oo. In the land locked Red Sea, it is as high as 41o/oo, while in the estuaries and the Arctic, the salinity fluctuates from 0 – 35 o/oo, seasonally. In hot and dry regions, where evaporation is high, the salinity sometimes reaches to 70 o/oo.
Salinity changes with depth.
There is a marked difference in the salinity between the surface zones and the deep zones of the oceans. The lower salinity water rests above the higher salinity dense water. Salinity, generally, increases with depth and there is a distinct zone called the halocline, where salinity increases sharply.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Salinity of ocean waters
All waters in nature, whether rain water or ocean water, contain dissolved mineral salts. Salinity is the term used to define the total content of dissolved salts in sea water. It is calculated as the amount of salt (in gm) dissolved in 1,000 gm (1 kg) of seawater.
The salinity for normal open ocean ranges between 33o/oo and 37 o/oo. In the land locked Red Sea, it is as high as 41o/oo, while in the estuaries and the Arctic, the salinity fluctuates from 0 – 35 o/oo, seasonally. In hot and dry regions, where evaporation is high, the salinity sometimes reaches to 70 o/oo.
Salinity changes with depth.
There is a marked difference in the salinity between the surface zones and the deep zones of the oceans. The lower salinity water rests above the higher salinity dense water. Salinity, generally, increases with depth and there is a distinct zone called the halocline, where salinity increases sharply.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements Dew
- For the formation of dew, it is necessary that the dew point is below the freezing point.
- The ideal conditions for its formation are clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Dew
When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects (rather than nuclei in air above the surface) such as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is known as dew. The ideal conditions for its formation are clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights. For the formation of dew, it is necessary that the dew point is above the freezing point.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Dew
When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects (rather than nuclei in air above the surface) such as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is known as dew. The ideal conditions for its formation are clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights. For the formation of dew, it is necessary that the dew point is above the freezing point.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Doon Valley
- The Doon Valley is an unusually wide, long valley within the Sivalik Hills and the Greater Himalayas.
- The valley forms a watershed between the Yamuna and Ganges River systems.
- The valley is rich in hardwood deciduous forests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Doon Valley is an unusually wide, long valley within the Sivalik Hills and the Lesser Himalayas, in the Indian states of Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Haryana.
The valley also forms a watershed between the Yamuna and Ganges River systems. In fact, the Yamuna and Ganges are closest to each other as they pass the Doon valley, with the Yamuna forming the western boundary and the Ganges the east
The Doon Valley is ecologically rich, particularly with regard to birdlife, with over 500 bird species having been recorded within the valley and in the surrounding areas, including the Mussoorie Hills and Rajaji National Park. The Reserved Forests and community forests in the region, in and around the valley are also botanically rich in terms of hardwood deciduous forests (esp. Sal or Shorea robusta, and Teak), flowering and fruiting trees, natural wetlands, and Terai and Bhabar ecosystems.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Doon Valley is an unusually wide, long valley within the Sivalik Hills and the Lesser Himalayas, in the Indian states of Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Haryana.
The valley also forms a watershed between the Yamuna and Ganges River systems. In fact, the Yamuna and Ganges are closest to each other as they pass the Doon valley, with the Yamuna forming the western boundary and the Ganges the east
The Doon Valley is ecologically rich, particularly with regard to birdlife, with over 500 bird species having been recorded within the valley and in the surrounding areas, including the Mussoorie Hills and Rajaji National Park. The Reserved Forests and community forests in the region, in and around the valley are also botanically rich in terms of hardwood deciduous forests (esp. Sal or Shorea robusta, and Teak), flowering and fruiting trees, natural wetlands, and Terai and Bhabar ecosystems.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the left bank tributaries of Brahmaputra?
- Dihing
- Dhansari
- Subansiri
- Manas
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
The Brahmaputra receives numerous tributaries in its 750 km long journey through the Assam valley. Its major left bank tributaries are the Burhi Dihing and Dhansari (South) whereas the important right bank tributaries are the Subansiri, Kameng, Manas and Sankosh.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Brahmaputra receives numerous tributaries in its 750 km long journey through the Assam valley. Its major left bank tributaries are the Burhi Dihing and Dhansari (South) whereas the important right bank tributaries are the Subansiri, Kameng, Manas and Sankosh.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Laterite Soil
- The laterite soils are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains.
- With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium compound are left behind.
- Humus content of the soil is relatively high in this soil.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Laterite Soil
Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘Later’ which means brick. The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium compound are left behind. Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature.
These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. Hence, laterites are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilisers are required for making the soils fertile for cultivation. Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashewnut.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Laterite Soil
Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘Later’ which means brick. The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium compound are left behind. Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature.
These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. Hence, laterites are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilisers are required for making the soils fertile for cultivation. Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashewnut.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are port cities of Black Sea
- Odesa
- Kherson
- Yuzhne
Select the correct answer using the code given below
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsOne Country One Priority Product (OCOP), sometime seen in the news, is an initiative of
Correct
Solution: B
The Global Action on Green Development of Special Agricultural Products: One Country One Priority Product (OCOP) is a five-year programme (2021-25) launched by FAO to promote at global, regional and local levels the Special Agricultural Products with unique qualities and special characteristics that can contribute to the transformation to more efficient, inclusive, resilient and sustainable agrifood systems for better production, better nutrition, a better environment, and a better life, leaving no one behind.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Global Action on Green Development of Special Agricultural Products: One Country One Priority Product (OCOP) is a five-year programme (2021-25) launched by FAO to promote at global, regional and local levels the Special Agricultural Products with unique qualities and special characteristics that can contribute to the transformation to more efficient, inclusive, resilient and sustainable agrifood systems for better production, better nutrition, a better environment, and a better life, leaving no one behind.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD)
- LSD virus easily spreads by blood-sucking insects like mosquitoes, flies and ticks.
- LSD is largely observed in cattle or buffalo
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Lumpy skin disease is a viral disease that affects cattle. It is transmitted by blood-feeding insects, such as certain species of flies and mosquitoes, or ticks. It causes fever, nodules on the skin and can also lead to death, especially in animals that that have not previously been exposed to the virus.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Lumpy skin disease is a viral disease that affects cattle. It is transmitted by blood-feeding insects, such as certain species of flies and mosquitoes, or ticks. It causes fever, nodules on the skin and can also lead to death, especially in animals that that have not previously been exposed to the virus.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding coffee production in India?
- India mainly produces five variety of coffee.
- Arabica coffee has highest share in the production.
- Robusta has high market value compared to Arabica coffee variety.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Indian Coffee began during 1600 AD when holy saint Baba Budan planted coffee beans from Yemen in the Chandragiri hills of Karnataka.
British started commercial plantations of coffee during the 18th century. India produces two types of coffee: Arabica and Robusta. Arabica has high market value while Robusta is the majorly manufactured coffee with a share of 72% of the total production.
Coffee industry provides direct employment to more than 2 million people in India.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Indian Coffee began during 1600 AD when holy saint Baba Budan planted coffee beans from Yemen in the Chandragiri hills of Karnataka.
British started commercial plantations of coffee during the 18th century. India produces two types of coffee: Arabica and Robusta. Arabica has high market value while Robusta is the majorly manufactured coffee with a share of 72% of the total production.
Coffee industry provides direct employment to more than 2 million people in India.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Intellectual Property Appellate Board was constituted to hear and resolve the appeals against the decisions of the registrar under the Indian Trademarks Act, 1999.
- Each Bench of the IPAB includes a Judicial Member and a Technical Member.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Solution: D
What is Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB)?
It was constituted on September 15, 2003 by the Indian Government to hear and resolve the appeals against the decisions of the registrar under the Indian Trademarks Act, 1999 and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.Organization of an IPAB Bench
Each Bench of the IPAB includes a Judicial Member and a Technical Member. The qualifications for appointment as a technical member of the IPAB are mentioned in The Trade Marks Act and the Patents Act.Incorrect
Solution: D
What is Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB)?
It was constituted on September 15, 2003 by the Indian Government to hear and resolve the appeals against the decisions of the registrar under the Indian Trademarks Act, 1999 and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.Organization of an IPAB Bench
Each Bench of the IPAB includes a Judicial Member and a Technical Member. The qualifications for appointment as a technical member of the IPAB are mentioned in The Trade Marks Act and the Patents Act. -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the :
- They are endemic to the Western Ghats
- Milkweed is the only plant on which monarchs will lay their eggs.
- It has been classified as ‘Near Threatened (NT)” under IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Monarch butterflies embark on a marvelous migratory phenomenon. They travel between 1,200 and 2,800 miles or more from the northeast United States, and southeast Canada to the mountain forests in central Mexico, where they find the right climate conditions to hibernate from the beginning of November to mid-March. The monarch butterfly is known by scientists as Danaus plexippus, which in Greek literally means “sleepy transformation.”
Milkweed is the only plant on which monarchs will lay their eggs and the only source of food for baby caterpillars. But urban planning and agricultural expansion have paved and plowed over millions of acres of milkweed.
The monarch butterfly exhibits the most highly evolved migration pattern of any known species of butterfly or moth and perhaps any known insect.
According to the latest IUCN Red List, the migratory monarch butterfly has become an endangered.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Monarch butterflies embark on a marvelous migratory phenomenon. They travel between 1,200 and 2,800 miles or more from the northeast United States, and southeast Canada to the mountain forests in central Mexico, where they find the right climate conditions to hibernate from the beginning of November to mid-March. The monarch butterfly is known by scientists as Danaus plexippus, which in Greek literally means “sleepy transformation.”
Milkweed is the only plant on which monarchs will lay their eggs and the only source of food for baby caterpillars. But urban planning and agricultural expansion have paved and plowed over millions of acres of milkweed.
The monarch butterfly exhibits the most highly evolved migration pattern of any known species of butterfly or moth and perhaps any known insect.
According to the latest IUCN Red List, the migratory monarch butterfly has become an endangered.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Telecom Technology Development Fund Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It aims to offer design infrastructure support deployment of semiconductor designs.
- It has been launched by Universal Service Obligation Fund to develop rural-specific communication technology applications.
- It entails grants to Indian entities to induct indigenous technologies to meet domestic needs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme aims to offer financial incentives as well as design infrastructure support across various stages of development and deployment of semiconductor design(s) for Integrated Circuits (ICs), Chipsets, System on Chips (SoCs), Systems & IP Cores and semiconductor linked design(s) over a period of 5 years.
Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF) aims to fund R&D in rural-specific communication technology applications and form synergies among academia, start-ups, research institutes, and the industry to build and develop the telecom ecosystem.
Statement 2 is correct: Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF), a body under the Department of Telecommunications, launched Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF) Scheme.
The scheme is aligned with Prime Minister’s call of adding Jan Anusandhaan in the new phase of Amrit Kaal.
Under the scheme, USOF is also targeting to develop standards to meet countrywide requirements and create the ecosystem for research, design, prototyping, use cases, pilots, and proof of concept testing, among others.
Statement 3 is correct: The TTDF scheme entails grants to Indian entities to encourage and induct indigenous technologies tailor-made to meet domestic needs.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme aims to offer financial incentives as well as design infrastructure support across various stages of development and deployment of semiconductor design(s) for Integrated Circuits (ICs), Chipsets, System on Chips (SoCs), Systems & IP Cores and semiconductor linked design(s) over a period of 5 years.
Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF) aims to fund R&D in rural-specific communication technology applications and form synergies among academia, start-ups, research institutes, and the industry to build and develop the telecom ecosystem.
Statement 2 is correct: Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF), a body under the Department of Telecommunications, launched Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF) Scheme.
The scheme is aligned with Prime Minister’s call of adding Jan Anusandhaan in the new phase of Amrit Kaal.
Under the scheme, USOF is also targeting to develop standards to meet countrywide requirements and create the ecosystem for research, design, prototyping, use cases, pilots, and proof of concept testing, among others.
Statement 3 is correct: The TTDF scheme entails grants to Indian entities to encourage and induct indigenous technologies tailor-made to meet domestic needs.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the objectives of Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana?
- Creation of modern infrastructure for mega food parks.
- Rafts and Tubenets for seaweed cultivation.
- Creation of robust supply chain infrastructure for perishables.
- Financial assistance to sugar mills for augmentation of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: Central Sector Scheme – SAMPADA (Scheme for Agro-Marine Processing and Development of Agro-Processing Clusters) was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana is a comprehensive package which aims to create modern infrastructure with efficient supply chain management from farm gate to retail outlet.
It will not only provide a big boost to the growth of food processing sector in the country but also help in providing better returns to farmers and is a big step towards doubling of farmers income, creating huge employment opportunities especially in the rural areas.
OBJECTIVES OF PM KISAN SAMPADA YOJANA
- Creation of modern infrastructure for food processing mega food parks/ clusters and individual units
- To create effective backward and forward linkages – linking farmers, processors and markets
- To create robust supply chain infrastructure for perishables
Statement 2 is a part of PM Matsya Sampada Yojana.
https://www.india.gov.in/spotlight/pradhan-mantri-kisan-sampada-yojana
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: Central Sector Scheme – SAMPADA (Scheme for Agro-Marine Processing and Development of Agro-Processing Clusters) was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana is a comprehensive package which aims to create modern infrastructure with efficient supply chain management from farm gate to retail outlet.
It will not only provide a big boost to the growth of food processing sector in the country but also help in providing better returns to farmers and is a big step towards doubling of farmers income, creating huge employment opportunities especially in the rural areas.
OBJECTIVES OF PM KISAN SAMPADA YOJANA
- Creation of modern infrastructure for food processing mega food parks/ clusters and individual units
- To create effective backward and forward linkages – linking farmers, processors and markets
- To create robust supply chain infrastructure for perishables
Statement 2 is a part of PM Matsya Sampada Yojana.
https://www.india.gov.in/spotlight/pradhan-mantri-kisan-sampada-yojana
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In), consider the following statements:
- It is the nodal agency within the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and deals with cyber security threats like phishing.
- It aims to strengthen security-related defense of Indian Internet domain but it does have the authority to forecasting the cyber security incidents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: CERT-In is the nodal agency within the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology of the Government of India.
It deals with cyber security threats like hacking and phishing. It aims to strengthen security-related defense of the Indian Internet domain.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: CERT-In is the nodal agency within the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology of the Government of India.
It deals with cyber security threats like hacking and phishing. It aims to strengthen security-related defense of the Indian Internet domain.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsThe component, Garima Greh under the ambit of Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood & Enterprise Scheme provides-
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood & Enterprise (SMILE), a comprehensive scheme provides for a component named Garima Greh that exclusively provides for shelter to transgender persons with basic amenities like food, medical care, recreational facilities.
Graim Grehs are well equipped to support Transgender persons in need of care and protection through individualised plans for their overall development.
OBJECTIVES OF GARIMA GREH
The main aim of Garima Greh’s to provide shelter to Transgender persons with basic amenities like shelter, food, medical care and recreational facilities. Besides, it will provide support for the capacity-building/skill development of Transgender persons.
- To ensure the shelter home with facilities of lodging and boarding, clothing, recreation, medical and counselling.
- To safeguard the rights of Transgender persons and protect them from atrocities.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood & Enterprise (SMILE), a comprehensive scheme provides for a component named Garima Greh that exclusively provides for shelter to transgender persons with basic amenities like food, medical care, recreational facilities.
Graim Grehs are well equipped to support Transgender persons in need of care and protection through individualised plans for their overall development.
OBJECTIVES OF GARIMA GREH
The main aim of Garima Greh’s to provide shelter to Transgender persons with basic amenities like shelter, food, medical care and recreational facilities. Besides, it will provide support for the capacity-building/skill development of Transgender persons.
- To ensure the shelter home with facilities of lodging and boarding, clothing, recreation, medical and counselling.
- To safeguard the rights of Transgender persons and protect them from atrocities.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsJainism holds that the reality is complex. It can be looked and understood from various viewpoints or angles. For example, we can have hundreds of photographs of the same and one tree from different angles. Though all of them give a true picture of it from certain angles, yet they differ from each other. Not only this, but neither each of them, nor the individually as well as jointly will give us a complete picture of that tree. They individually as well as jointly will give only a partial picture of it. So is the case with human knowledge and understanding.
Which of the following is the most logical, accurate and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage?
Correct
Ans. A) we can have only a partial and relative picture of reality
The passage focusses on explaining that truth is relative and each perspective provides an incomplete picture as it is a victim of our biases. A captures the inference of the passage most accurately and critically.
Incorrect
Ans. A) we can have only a partial and relative picture of reality
The passage focusses on explaining that truth is relative and each perspective provides an incomplete picture as it is a victim of our biases. A captures the inference of the passage most accurately and critically.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsMill lays down “one very simple principle” to govern the use of coercion in society – and by coercion he means both legal penalties and the operation of public opinion; it is that we may only coerce others in self-defence – either to defend ourselves, or to defend others from harm. Crucially, this rules out paternalistic interventions to save people from themselves, and ideal interventions to make people behave “better”. It has long exercised critics to explain how a utilitarian can subscribe to such a principle of self-restraint. In essence, Mill argues that only by adopting the self-restraint principle can we seek out the truth, experience the truth as “our own”, and fully develop individual selves.
Which of the following is the most logical and accurate inference that can be drawn from the above passage?
Correct
Ans. D) Through his self-harm principle, Mill tried to bring some objectivity in reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech
The passage explains about the self-harm principle which Mill talks about to bring some sense to what would govern reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech. Hence option D is the most logical and accurate.
Incorrect
Ans. D) Through his self-harm principle, Mill tried to bring some objectivity in reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech
The passage explains about the self-harm principle which Mill talks about to bring some sense to what would govern reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech. Hence option D is the most logical and accurate.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsThe respective ratio of the ages of Ramya and her mother is 1 : 2, after 6 years, the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 20. What was the respective ratio of their ages before 9 years?
Correct
Solution: B) 2:5
Let the present age of Ramya and her mother be X and 2X respectively.
After 6 years, the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 20
= (X + 6)/(2X + 6) = 11/20
= 20X + 120 = 22X + 66
= 2X = 54 or X = 27
So, present age of Ramya = 27 yrs
Present age of her mother = 54 yrs
Therefore, before 9 years, ratio of Ramya and her mother
= (27 – 9)/(54 – 9)
= 18/45
= 2 : 5.Incorrect
Solution: B) 2:5
Let the present age of Ramya and her mother be X and 2X respectively.
After 6 years, the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 20
= (X + 6)/(2X + 6) = 11/20
= 20X + 120 = 22X + 66
= 2X = 54 or X = 27
So, present age of Ramya = 27 yrs
Present age of her mother = 54 yrs
Therefore, before 9 years, ratio of Ramya and her mother
= (27 – 9)/(54 – 9)
= 18/45
= 2 : 5. -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsA vessel of capacity 90 litres is fully filled with milk. Nine litres of milk is removed from the vessel and replaced with water. Nine litres of the solution thus formed is removed and replaced with water. Find the quantity of pure milk in the final milk solution?
Correct
Solution: D) 72. 9 litres
Let the initial quantity of milk in vessel be T litres.
Let us say x litres of the mixture is taken out and replaced by water for n times, alternatively.
Quantity of milk finally in the vessel is then given by [(T – x)/T]n * T
For the given problem, T = 90, x = 9 and n = 2.
Hence, quantity of milk finally in the vessel
= [(90 – 9)/90]2 (90) = 72.9 litres.
Incorrect
Solution: D) 72. 9 litres
Let the initial quantity of milk in vessel be T litres.
Let us say x litres of the mixture is taken out and replaced by water for n times, alternatively.
Quantity of milk finally in the vessel is then given by [(T – x)/T]n * T
For the given problem, T = 90, x = 9 and n = 2.
Hence, quantity of milk finally in the vessel
= [(90 – 9)/90]2 (90) = 72.9 litres.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsAnup and Sandeep started a partnership business investing some amount of money in the ratio of 4 : 6 . Sohan joined them after six months with an amount equal to that of Sandeep . In what proportion should the profit at the end of one year be distributed among Anup, Sandeep and Sohan ?
Correct
Answer : Option D) 4:6:3
As (4:6 is equivalent to 2:3) So let the initial investment of money ratio of Anup and Sandeep is 2x and 3x. So Anup , Sandeep and Sohan ratio of investment will be ( Anup : Sandeep : Sohan ) = (2x × 12 ) : ( 3x × 12 ) : ( 3x × 6 ) = 24 : 36 : 18 = 4 : 6 : 3
Incorrect
Answer : Option D) 4:6:3
As (4:6 is equivalent to 2:3) So let the initial investment of money ratio of Anup and Sandeep is 2x and 3x. So Anup , Sandeep and Sohan ratio of investment will be ( Anup : Sandeep : Sohan ) = (2x × 12 ) : ( 3x × 12 ) : ( 3x × 6 ) = 24 : 36 : 18 = 4 : 6 : 3
Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE
Please subscribe to Our podcast channel HERE
Subscribe to our YouTube ChannelHERE
Follow our Twitter Account HERE
Follow our Instagram ID HERE
Follow us on LinkedIn : HERE