INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the members of the NATO?
- Norway
- Sweden
- Finland
- Turkey
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
It is a military alliance established by the North Atlantic Treaty (also called the Washington Treaty) of April, 1949, by the United States, Canada, and several Western European nations to provide collective security against the Soviet Union.
A key provision of the treaty, the so-called Article 5, states that if one member of the alliance is attacked in Europe or North America, it is to be considered an attack on all members.
MEMBERS:
Incorrect
Solution: D
It is a military alliance established by the North Atlantic Treaty (also called the Washington Treaty) of April, 1949, by the United States, Canada, and several Western European nations to provide collective security against the Soviet Union.
A key provision of the treaty, the so-called Article 5, states that if one member of the alliance is attacked in Europe or North America, it is to be considered an attack on all members.
MEMBERS:
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsAbraham Accords Deal, sometime seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: C
The Abraham Accords is a series of joint normalization statements initially between Israel, the United Arab Emirates, and Bahrain.
Mediated by the United States, the initial announcement of August 13, 2020, concerned only Israel and the United Arab Emirates before the announcement of a follow-up agreement between Israel and Bahrain on September 11, 2020. On September 15, 2020, the official signing ceremony for the Abraham Accords was hosted by the United States at the White House.
As part of the dual agreements, both the United Arab Emirates and Bahrain recognized Israel’s sovereignty, enabling the establishment of full diplomatic relations.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Abraham Accords is a series of joint normalization statements initially between Israel, the United Arab Emirates, and Bahrain.
Mediated by the United States, the initial announcement of August 13, 2020, concerned only Israel and the United Arab Emirates before the announcement of a follow-up agreement between Israel and Bahrain on September 11, 2020. On September 15, 2020, the official signing ceremony for the Abraham Accords was hosted by the United States at the White House.
As part of the dual agreements, both the United Arab Emirates and Bahrain recognized Israel’s sovereignty, enabling the establishment of full diplomatic relations.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following African countries share border with Atlantic Ocean?
- Niger
- Angola
- Chad
- Cameroon
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Web 5.0
- It has been designed as a decentralized web platform that can allow the flexibility and resources for developing decentralized web applications.
- The primary objective of web 5.0 would focus on empowering users to reclaim control and ownership of their data.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Definition of Web 5.0
Considering the scale of improvements introduced by the previous versions of the web, it is important to wonder about the reasons for introducing web 5.0. However, let us start with a clear web 5.0 definition to develop a better impression of what it is capable of. Web 5.0 has been designed as a decentralized web platform that can allow the flexibility and resources for developing decentralized web applications.
The primary objective of web 5.0 would focus on empowering users to reclaim control and ownership of their data. As of now, the web 5.0 version is still under development. However, some experts have pointed out that web 5.0 would be more of a combination between web 2.0 and web 3.0.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Definition of Web 5.0
Considering the scale of improvements introduced by the previous versions of the web, it is important to wonder about the reasons for introducing web 5.0. However, let us start with a clear web 5.0 definition to develop a better impression of what it is capable of. Web 5.0 has been designed as a decentralized web platform that can allow the flexibility and resources for developing decentralized web applications.
The primary objective of web 5.0 would focus on empowering users to reclaim control and ownership of their data. As of now, the web 5.0 version is still under development. However, some experts have pointed out that web 5.0 would be more of a combination between web 2.0 and web 3.0.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Uranium Corporation of India Limited is the only organisation responsible for mining and processing of uranium ore for commercialpurposes.
- Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research is to identify and evaluate uranium resources required for the successful implementation of Atomic Energy program of the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
India has been surveying and exploring uranium since 1949. According to the UCIL, mining operations at Jaduguda began in 1967, and it is also India’s first uranium mine.
Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research is to identify and evaluate uranium resources required for the successful implementation of Atomic Energy program of the country.
After the AMD completes the final exploration of uranium, it hands over information/data to Uranium Corporation of India Limited (UCIL).
In India, UCIL is the only organisation responsible for mining and processing of uranium ore for commercial purposes.
Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act as well as Mineral Conservation & Development Rules along with Mineral Conservation Rules further guide mining and exploration of uranium.
Incorrect
Solution: C
India has been surveying and exploring uranium since 1949. According to the UCIL, mining operations at Jaduguda began in 1967, and it is also India’s first uranium mine.
Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research is to identify and evaluate uranium resources required for the successful implementation of Atomic Energy program of the country.
After the AMD completes the final exploration of uranium, it hands over information/data to Uranium Corporation of India Limited (UCIL).
In India, UCIL is the only organisation responsible for mining and processing of uranium ore for commercial purposes.
Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act as well as Mineral Conservation & Development Rules along with Mineral Conservation Rules further guide mining and exploration of uranium.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ethanol
- It is a colourless liquid
- Ethanol can enter the body by ingestion, inhaling fumes or by absorption through the skin.
- Ethanol is rapidly oxidised by the body to carbon dioxide and water, with no cumulative effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Ethanol is a clear, colourless liquid with a characteristic pleasant odour and burning taste. It is highly flammable. Ethanol is used to dissolve other chemical substances and mixes readily with water and many organic liquids. Ethanol is considered a volatile organic compound by the National Pollutant Inventory.
Ethanol may cause mutations (genetic changes).
Ethanol is rapidly oxidised by the body to carbon dioxide and water, with no cumulative effect. Concentrations below 1000 parts per million (ppm) usually produce no signs of intoxication.
Entering the body
Ethanol can enter the body by ingestion, inhaling fumes or by absorption through the skin.
https://www.dcceew.gov.au/environment/protection/npi/substances/fact-sheets/ethanol-ethyl-alcohol
Incorrect
Solution: D
Ethanol is a clear, colourless liquid with a characteristic pleasant odour and burning taste. It is highly flammable. Ethanol is used to dissolve other chemical substances and mixes readily with water and many organic liquids. Ethanol is considered a volatile organic compound by the National Pollutant Inventory.
Ethanol may cause mutations (genetic changes).
Ethanol is rapidly oxidised by the body to carbon dioxide and water, with no cumulative effect. Concentrations below 1000 parts per million (ppm) usually produce no signs of intoxication.
Entering the body
Ethanol can enter the body by ingestion, inhaling fumes or by absorption through the skin.
https://www.dcceew.gov.au/environment/protection/npi/substances/fact-sheets/ethanol-ethyl-alcohol
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the applications of the Steel Slag?
- Portland blast furnace slag cement.
- Road base course material
- Fertilizer
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Primary characteristics and applications of iron and steel slag
Characteristics Applications Blast furnace slag Air-cooled slag Hydraulic property Road base course material No alkali-aggregate reaction Coarse aggregate for concrete Low Na2O and K2O Cement clinker raw material (replacement for clay) Thermal insulation and sound absorption effects when made into a fibre Raw material for rock wool Fertilizer component (CaO, SiO2) Calcium silicate fertilizer Granulated slag Strong latent hydraulic property when finely ground Raw material for Portland blast furnace slag cement Blending material for Portland cement Concrete admixtures Low Na2O and K2O Raw material for cement clinker (replacement for clay) Latent hydraulic property Material for civil engineering works, ground improvement material (Backfill material, earth cover material, embankment material, road subgrade improvement material, sand compaction material, ground drainage layers, etc.) Lightweight, large angle of internal friction, large water permeability Does not contain chlorides. Fine aggregate for concrete No alkali-aggregate reaction Fertilizer component (CaO, SiO2) Calcium silicate fertilizer Soil improvement Steelmaking slag Converter slag, electric arc furnace slag Hard, wear-resistant Aggregate for asphalt concrete Hydraulic property Base course material Large angle of internal friction Material for civil engineering works, ground improvement material (Material for sand compaction piles) FeO, CaO, SiO2 components Raw material for cement clinker Fertilizer components (CaO, SiO2, MgO, FeO) Fertilizer and soil improvement Incorrect
Solution: D
Primary characteristics and applications of iron and steel slag
Characteristics Applications Blast furnace slag Air-cooled slag Hydraulic property Road base course material No alkali-aggregate reaction Coarse aggregate for concrete Low Na2O and K2O Cement clinker raw material (replacement for clay) Thermal insulation and sound absorption effects when made into a fibre Raw material for rock wool Fertilizer component (CaO, SiO2) Calcium silicate fertilizer Granulated slag Strong latent hydraulic property when finely ground Raw material for Portland blast furnace slag cement Blending material for Portland cement Concrete admixtures Low Na2O and K2O Raw material for cement clinker (replacement for clay) Latent hydraulic property Material for civil engineering works, ground improvement material (Backfill material, earth cover material, embankment material, road subgrade improvement material, sand compaction material, ground drainage layers, etc.) Lightweight, large angle of internal friction, large water permeability Does not contain chlorides. Fine aggregate for concrete No alkali-aggregate reaction Fertilizer component (CaO, SiO2) Calcium silicate fertilizer Soil improvement Steelmaking slag Converter slag, electric arc furnace slag Hard, wear-resistant Aggregate for asphalt concrete Hydraulic property Base course material Large angle of internal friction Material for civil engineering works, ground improvement material (Material for sand compaction piles) FeO, CaO, SiO2 components Raw material for cement clinker Fertilizer components (CaO, SiO2, MgO, FeO) Fertilizer and soil improvement -
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsLaMDA, sometime seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: A
LaMDA (Language Model for Dialogue Applications) is a family of conversational large language models developed by Google. The first generation was announced during the 2021 Google I/O keynote, while the second generation was announced at the following year’s event. In June 2022, LaMDA gained widespread attention when Google engineer Blake Lemoine made claims that the chatbot had become sentient.
Incorrect
Solution: A
LaMDA (Language Model for Dialogue Applications) is a family of conversational large language models developed by Google. The first generation was announced during the 2021 Google I/O keynote, while the second generation was announced at the following year’s event. In June 2022, LaMDA gained widespread attention when Google engineer Blake Lemoine made claims that the chatbot had become sentient.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding S400 Triumf missile
- It can engage all types of aerial targets such as aircraft, ballistic and cruise missiles, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV).
- It can address the incoming targets at a range of 4000 kms and a height of 30-40 kms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The S-400 Triumf – NATO calls it SA-21 Growler — is a modern long-range surface-to-air missile (MLR SAM) system developed by Russia. First used in 2007, the S-400 is an upgrade of the S-300 series of missile systems put in place for the defence of Moscow.
The missile system integrates a multifunction radar, autonomous detection and targeting systems, anti-aircraft missile systems, launchers, and command and control centre.
Important Points
- It is based on a multifunctional system that can drop missiles at different speeds.
- It can target aircrafts (up to 5th generations), cruise and ballistic missiles by supersonic and hypersonic missiles of the system.
- It can address the incoming targets at a range of 400 kms and a height of 30-40 kms.
- It can neutralise 36 targets at one time in the range of 400 kms.
- Its radar detection system has a range of 600kms and can target 100-300 targets.
- It has 12 launchers equipped with missiles which can be launched within 5 minutes.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The S-400 Triumf – NATO calls it SA-21 Growler — is a modern long-range surface-to-air missile (MLR SAM) system developed by Russia. First used in 2007, the S-400 is an upgrade of the S-300 series of missile systems put in place for the defence of Moscow.
The missile system integrates a multifunction radar, autonomous detection and targeting systems, anti-aircraft missile systems, launchers, and command and control centre.
Important Points
- It is based on a multifunctional system that can drop missiles at different speeds.
- It can target aircrafts (up to 5th generations), cruise and ballistic missiles by supersonic and hypersonic missiles of the system.
- It can address the incoming targets at a range of 400 kms and a height of 30-40 kms.
- It can neutralise 36 targets at one time in the range of 400 kms.
- Its radar detection system has a range of 600kms and can target 100-300 targets.
- It has 12 launchers equipped with missiles which can be launched within 5 minutes.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the functions of NITI Ayog?
- To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government
- To focus on technology upgradation and capacity building for implementation of programmes and initiatives.
- To create a knowledge, innovation and entrepreneurial support system through a collaborative community of national and international experts, practitioners and other partners.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
The National Institution for Transforming India, also called NITI Aayog, was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015. NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
While designing strategic and long-term policies and programmes for the Government of India, NITI Aayog also provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States.
Functions of NITI Ayog
- To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities sectors and strategies with the active involvement of States in the light of national objectives
- To foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States on a continuous basis, recognizing that strong States make a strong nation.
- To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government
- To ensure, on areas that are specifically referred to it, that the interests of national security are incorporated in economic strategy and policy
- To pay special attention to the sections of our society that may be at risk of not benefiting adequately from economic progress.
- To design strategic and long-term policy and programme frameworks and initiatives, and monitor their progress and their efficacy. The lessons learnt through monitoring and feedback will be used for making innovative improvements, including necessary mid-course corrections
- To provide advice and encourage partnerships between key stakeholders and national and international like-minded Think tanks, as well as educational and policy research institutions.
- To create a knowledge, innovation and entrepreneurial support system through a collaborative community of national and international experts, practitioners and other partners.
- To offer a platform for resolution of inter-sectoral and inter departmental issues in order to accelerate the implementation of the development agenda.
- To maintain a state-of-the-art Resource Centre, be a repository of research on good governance and best practices in sustainable and equitable development as well as help their dissemination to stake-holders
- To actively monitor and evaluate the implementation of programmes and initiatives, including the identification of the needed resources so as to strengthen the probability of success and scope of delivery
- To focus on technology upgradation and capacity building for implementation of programmes and initiatives.
- To undertake other activities as may be necessary in order to further the execution of the national development agenda, and the objectives mentioned above
Incorrect
Solution: D
The National Institution for Transforming India, also called NITI Aayog, was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015. NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
While designing strategic and long-term policies and programmes for the Government of India, NITI Aayog also provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States.
Functions of NITI Ayog
- To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities sectors and strategies with the active involvement of States in the light of national objectives
- To foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States on a continuous basis, recognizing that strong States make a strong nation.
- To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government
- To ensure, on areas that are specifically referred to it, that the interests of national security are incorporated in economic strategy and policy
- To pay special attention to the sections of our society that may be at risk of not benefiting adequately from economic progress.
- To design strategic and long-term policy and programme frameworks and initiatives, and monitor their progress and their efficacy. The lessons learnt through monitoring and feedback will be used for making innovative improvements, including necessary mid-course corrections
- To provide advice and encourage partnerships between key stakeholders and national and international like-minded Think tanks, as well as educational and policy research institutions.
- To create a knowledge, innovation and entrepreneurial support system through a collaborative community of national and international experts, practitioners and other partners.
- To offer a platform for resolution of inter-sectoral and inter departmental issues in order to accelerate the implementation of the development agenda.
- To maintain a state-of-the-art Resource Centre, be a repository of research on good governance and best practices in sustainable and equitable development as well as help their dissemination to stake-holders
- To actively monitor and evaluate the implementation of programmes and initiatives, including the identification of the needed resources so as to strengthen the probability of success and scope of delivery
- To focus on technology upgradation and capacity building for implementation of programmes and initiatives.
- To undertake other activities as may be necessary in order to further the execution of the national development agenda, and the objectives mentioned above
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding capital goods
- Capital goods are goods that are of durable character, which are used in the production process.
- Television sets, automobiles and home computers are considered as Capital goods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Of the final goods, we can distinguish between consumption goods and capital goods.
- Goods like food and clothing, and services like recreation that are consumed when purchased by their ultimate consumers are called consumption goods or consumer goods. (This also includes services which are consumed but for convenience we may refer to them as consumer goods.)
- Then there are other goods that are of durable character which are used in the production process. These are tools, implements and machines. While they make production of other commodities feasible, they themselves don’t get transformed in the production process.
- We may note here that some commodities like television sets, automobiles or home computers, although they are for ultimate consumption, have one characteristic in common with capital goods – they are also durable. These goods are called as consumer durables.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Of the final goods, we can distinguish between consumption goods and capital goods.
- Goods like food and clothing, and services like recreation that are consumed when purchased by their ultimate consumers are called consumption goods or consumer goods. (This also includes services which are consumed but for convenience we may refer to them as consumer goods.)
- Then there are other goods that are of durable character which are used in the production process. These are tools, implements and machines. While they make production of other commodities feasible, they themselves don’t get transformed in the production process.
- We may note here that some commodities like television sets, automobiles or home computers, although they are for ultimate consumption, have one characteristic in common with capital goods – they are also durable. These goods are called as consumer durables.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Factor Cost, Basic Prices and Market Prices
- The distinction between factor cost, basic prices and market prices is based on the distinction between net production taxes and net product taxes.
- Factor cost includes the payment to factors of production and it also includes any tax.
- GVA at basic prices includes the net production taxes but not net product taxes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Factor Cost, Basic Prices and Market Prices
The distinction between factor cost, basic prices and market prices is based on the distinction between net production taxes (production taxes less production subsidies) and net product taxes (product taxes less product subsidies).
- Production taxes and subsidies are paid or received in relation to production and are independent of the volume of production such as land revenues, stamp and registration fee.
- Product taxes and subsidies, on the other hand, are paid or received per unit or product, e.g., excise tax, service tax, export and import duties etc.
- Factor cost includes only the payment to factors of production, it does not include any tax.
- In order to arrive at the market prices, we have to add to the factor cost and the total indirect taxes deducting total subsidies.
- The basic prices lie in between: they include the production taxes (less production subsidies) but not product taxes (less product subsidies).
- Therefore, in order to arrive at market price we have to add product taxes (less product subsidies) to the basic prices.
Now the CSO releases GVA at basic prices. Thus, it includes the net production taxes but not net product taxes. In order to arrive at the GDP (at market prices) we need to add net product taxes to GVA at basic prices.
Thus,
GVA at factor costs + Net production taxes = GVA at basic prices
GVA at basic prices + Net product taxes = GVA at market prices
Incorrect
Solution: C
Factor Cost, Basic Prices and Market Prices
The distinction between factor cost, basic prices and market prices is based on the distinction between net production taxes (production taxes less production subsidies) and net product taxes (product taxes less product subsidies).
- Production taxes and subsidies are paid or received in relation to production and are independent of the volume of production such as land revenues, stamp and registration fee.
- Product taxes and subsidies, on the other hand, are paid or received per unit or product, e.g., excise tax, service tax, export and import duties etc.
- Factor cost includes only the payment to factors of production, it does not include any tax.
- In order to arrive at the market prices, we have to add to the factor cost and the total indirect taxes deducting total subsidies.
- The basic prices lie in between: they include the production taxes (less production subsidies) but not product taxes (less product subsidies).
- Therefore, in order to arrive at market price we have to add product taxes (less product subsidies) to the basic prices.
Now the CSO releases GVA at basic prices. Thus, it includes the net production taxes but not net product taxes. In order to arrive at the GDP (at market prices) we need to add net product taxes to GVA at basic prices.
Thus,
GVA at factor costs + Net production taxes = GVA at basic prices
GVA at basic prices + Net product taxes = GVA at market prices
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Under Gross National Product, all production done by the national residents or the non-residents in a country gets included, regardless of whether that production is owned by a local company or a foreign entity.
- India is 5th largest economy in PPP (purchasing power parity) terms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- As per the latest data available on World Development Indicators, World Bank, India is the 5th largest economy in terms of GDP ranking of countries at Current US Dollar in 2021.
- India is third largest economy in PPP (purchasing power parity) terms.
Gross National Product at Market Prices (GNPMP)
- GNPMP is the value of all the final goods and services that are produced by the normal residents of India and is measured at the market prices, in a year.
- GNP refers to all the economic output produced by a nation’s normal residents, whether they are located within the national boundary or abroad.
- Everything is valued at the market prices.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- As per the latest data available on World Development Indicators, World Bank, India is the 5th largest economy in terms of GDP ranking of countries at Current US Dollar in 2021.
- India is third largest economy in PPP (purchasing power parity) terms.
Gross National Product at Market Prices (GNPMP)
- GNPMP is the value of all the final goods and services that are produced by the normal residents of India and is measured at the market prices, in a year.
- GNP refers to all the economic output produced by a nation’s normal residents, whether they are located within the national boundary or abroad.
- Everything is valued at the market prices.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding GDP Deflator
- The ratio of real to nominal GDP is called as GDP Deflator.
- The GDP deflator measures the changes in prices for all the goods and services produced in an economy.
- The GDP price deflator is a more comprehensive inflation measure than the Consumer Price Index (CPI) index.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The ratio of nominal GDP to real GDP gives us an idea of how the prices have moved from the base year (the year whose prices are being used to calculate the real GDP) to the current year. In the calculation of real and nominal GDP of the current year, the volume of production is fixed. Therefore, if these measures differ it is only due to change in the price level between the base year and the current year. The ratio of nominal to real GDP is a well-known index of prices. This is called GDP Deflator.
- The GDP price deflator measures the changes in prices for all the goods and services produced in an economy.
- Using the GDP price deflator helps economists compare the levels of real economic activity from one year to another.
- The GDP price deflator is a more comprehensive inflation measure than the Consumer Price Index (CPI) index because it isn’t based on a fixed basket of goods.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The ratio of nominal GDP to real GDP gives us an idea of how the prices have moved from the base year (the year whose prices are being used to calculate the real GDP) to the current year. In the calculation of real and nominal GDP of the current year, the volume of production is fixed. Therefore, if these measures differ it is only due to change in the price level between the base year and the current year. The ratio of nominal to real GDP is a well-known index of prices. This is called GDP Deflator.
- The GDP price deflator measures the changes in prices for all the goods and services produced in an economy.
- Using the GDP price deflator helps economists compare the levels of real economic activity from one year to another.
- The GDP price deflator is a more comprehensive inflation measure than the Consumer Price Index (CPI) index because it isn’t based on a fixed basket of goods.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsWhy is GDP considered as the best index of the welfare of the people?
- Income gets distributed equally among the population.
- Domestic services performed by women are included in calculation of GDP.
- Externalities are included while calculating GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
GDP of a country cannot be taken as an index of the welfare of the people of that country because
- Distribution of GDP is unequal: If the GDP of the country is rising, the welfare may not rise as a consequence. This is because the rise in GDP may be concentrated in the hands of very few individuals or firms.
- Non-monetary exchanges are not included: Many activities in an economy are not evaluated in monetary terms.
- For example, the domestic services women perform at home are not paid for.
- Externalities: Externalities refer to the benefits (or harms) a firm or an individual causes to another for which they are not paid (or penalised). Externalities do not have any market in which they can be bought and sold. They are not included while calculating GDP.
- Ex: refinery may be polluting the nearby river.
Incorrect
Solution: D
GDP of a country cannot be taken as an index of the welfare of the people of that country because
- Distribution of GDP is unequal: If the GDP of the country is rising, the welfare may not rise as a consequence. This is because the rise in GDP may be concentrated in the hands of very few individuals or firms.
- Non-monetary exchanges are not included: Many activities in an economy are not evaluated in monetary terms.
- For example, the domestic services women perform at home are not paid for.
- Externalities: Externalities refer to the benefits (or harms) a firm or an individual causes to another for which they are not paid (or penalised). Externalities do not have any market in which they can be bought and sold. They are not included while calculating GDP.
- Ex: refinery may be polluting the nearby river.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gross Environment Product (GEP) and Green GDP
- Himachal Pradesh is going to become the first state of the country to measure Gross Environment Product (GEP).
- GEP is the measure of ecosystem services of any area.
- According to the recommendation of 12th and 13th Finance Commissions, grants were transferred to forest rich states in amounts corresponding to their forest covers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
In a first of its kind, Uttarakhand will assign a monetary value to its natural resources in the form of Gross Environment Product (GEP). It is along the lines of Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Uttarakhand state is going to become the first state of the country to measure Gross Environment Product (GEP) for quantifying ecological growth measurement.
Gross Environment Product (GEP) is an assessment system to measure the ecological status of a region and is one of the components of green GDP. GEP is the measure of ecosystem services of any area.
Ecosystem services represent the benefits humans get: Forests, lakes and grasslands; timber and dyed; carbon sequestration and nutrient cycling; soil formation and productivity; and tourism.
According to the recommendation of 12th and 13th Finance Commissions, grants were transferred to forest rich states in amounts corresponding to their forest covers.
Incorrect
Solution: B
In a first of its kind, Uttarakhand will assign a monetary value to its natural resources in the form of Gross Environment Product (GEP). It is along the lines of Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Uttarakhand state is going to become the first state of the country to measure Gross Environment Product (GEP) for quantifying ecological growth measurement.
Gross Environment Product (GEP) is an assessment system to measure the ecological status of a region and is one of the components of green GDP. GEP is the measure of ecosystem services of any area.
Ecosystem services represent the benefits humans get: Forests, lakes and grasslands; timber and dyed; carbon sequestration and nutrient cycling; soil formation and productivity; and tourism.
According to the recommendation of 12th and 13th Finance Commissions, grants were transferred to forest rich states in amounts corresponding to their forest covers.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsMatch the following Plans with those who formulated them.
- The people’s Plan was formulated by Narayan Agarwal.
- Sarvodaya Plan was formulated by Jayaprakash Narayan.
- Gandhian Plan was formulated by Vinobha Bhave.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
Espousing the spirit of the Gandhian economic thinking, Shriman Narayan Agarwal formulated The Gandhian Plan in 1944. The plan laid more emphasis on agriculture.
The people’s Plan
In 1945, yet another plan was formulated by the radical humanist leader M.N. Roy, Chairman of the Post-War Reconstruction Committee of Indian Trade Union. The plan was based on Marxist socialism and advocated the need of providing the people with the ‘basic necessities of life’.
The Sarvodaya Plan
After the reports of the NPC were published and the government was set to go for the five-year plans, a lone blueprint for the planned development of India was formulated by the famous socialist leader Jayaprakash Narayan—the Sarvodaya Plan published in January 1950.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Espousing the spirit of the Gandhian economic thinking, Shriman Narayan Agarwal formulated The Gandhian Plan in 1944. The plan laid more emphasis on agriculture.
The people’s Plan
In 1945, yet another plan was formulated by the radical humanist leader M.N. Roy, Chairman of the Post-War Reconstruction Committee of Indian Trade Union. The plan was based on Marxist socialism and advocated the need of providing the people with the ‘basic necessities of life’.
The Sarvodaya Plan
After the reports of the NPC were published and the government was set to go for the five-year plans, a lone blueprint for the planned development of India was formulated by the famous socialist leader Jayaprakash Narayan—the Sarvodaya Plan published in January 1950.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ninth Five-Year Plan
- LPG reforms were undertaken under this plan.
- Its theme was “Growth with Social Justice & Equality”.
- It aimed to depend predominantly on the private sector and State was envisaged with the role of facilitator.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Eighth Plan (1992 – 97)
The plan undertook drastic policy measures to combat the bad economic situation and to undertake an annual average growth of 5.6% through introduction of fiscal & economic reforms including LPG reforms under the Prime Minister ship of Shri P V Narasimha Rao.
Ninth Plan (1997- 2002)
Theme: Growth with Social Justice & Equality
Ninth Plan aimed to depend predominantly on the private sector – Indian as well as foreign (FDI) & State was envisaged to increasingly play the role of facilitator & increasingly involve itself with social sector viz education, health etc and infrastructure where private sector participation was likely to be limited.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Eighth Plan (1992 – 97)
The plan undertook drastic policy measures to combat the bad economic situation and to undertake an annual average growth of 5.6% through introduction of fiscal & economic reforms including LPG reforms under the Prime Minister ship of Shri P V Narasimha Rao.
Ninth Plan (1997- 2002)
Theme: Growth with Social Justice & Equality
Ninth Plan aimed to depend predominantly on the private sector – Indian as well as foreign (FDI) & State was envisaged to increasingly play the role of facilitator & increasingly involve itself with social sector viz education, health etc and infrastructure where private sector participation was likely to be limited.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding methodology of calculating the National Accounts
- The methodology of calculating the National Accounts is in line with the requirements of the System of National Accounts (SNA)-2008, an internationally accepted standard.
- Headline growth rate is measured in terms of GDP at factor cost and at constant prices.
- The Base Year for national accounting is 2014–15.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Central Statistics Office (CSO), in January 2015, released the new and revised data of National Accounts, effecting two changes:
- The Base Year was revised from 2004–05 to 2011–12. This was done in accordance with the recommendation of the National Statistical Commission (NSC), which had advised to revise the base year of all economic indices every five years.
- This time, the methodology of calculating the National Accounts has also been revised in line with the requirements of the System of National Accounts (SNA)-2008, an internationally accepted standard.
The major changes incorporated in this revision are as given below:
(i) Headline growth rate will now be measured by GDP at constant market prices, which will henceforth be referred to as ‘GDP’ (as is the practice internationally). Earlier, growth was measured in terms of growth rate in GDP at factor cost and at constant prices.
(ii) Sector-wise estimates of Gross Value Added (GVA) will now be given at basic prices instead of factor cost.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Central Statistics Office (CSO), in January 2015, released the new and revised data of National Accounts, effecting two changes:
- The Base Year was revised from 2004–05 to 2011–12. This was done in accordance with the recommendation of the National Statistical Commission (NSC), which had advised to revise the base year of all economic indices every five years.
- This time, the methodology of calculating the National Accounts has also been revised in line with the requirements of the System of National Accounts (SNA)-2008, an internationally accepted standard.
The major changes incorporated in this revision are as given below:
(i) Headline growth rate will now be measured by GDP at constant market prices, which will henceforth be referred to as ‘GDP’ (as is the practice internationally). Earlier, growth was measured in terms of growth rate in GDP at factor cost and at constant prices.
(ii) Sector-wise estimates of Gross Value Added (GVA) will now be given at basic prices instead of factor cost.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWho among the following are the members of National Development Council?
- Union Cabinet Ministers
- Chief Ministers of all States
- Members of Finance Commission
- Members of the NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
The National Development Council (NDC) or Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for decision creating and deliberations on development matters in India, presided over by the Prime Minister. It was set up on 6 August 1952 to strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support of the Five-Year Plans made by Planning Commission, to promote common economic policies in all vital spheres, and to ensure the balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country. The Council comprises the Prime Minister, the Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States or their substitutes, representatives of the Union Territories and the members of the NITI Aayog (erstwhile Planning Commission).
Incorrect
Solution: C
The National Development Council (NDC) or Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for decision creating and deliberations on development matters in India, presided over by the Prime Minister. It was set up on 6 August 1952 to strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support of the Five-Year Plans made by Planning Commission, to promote common economic policies in all vital spheres, and to ensure the balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country. The Council comprises the Prime Minister, the Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States or their substitutes, representatives of the Union Territories and the members of the NITI Aayog (erstwhile Planning Commission).
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSSs)
- The Centrally Sponsored Scheme are 100 per cent funded by the Union Government with states functioning as implementing agencies.
- These schemes are mainly formulated on subjects from the Union List.
- Core of the Core schemes under CSSs are schemes for social protection and social inclusion.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Central Sector Schemes are 100 per cent funded by the Union Government with states functioning as implementing agencies. These schemes are mainly formulated on subjects from the Union List.
Under the Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSSs) a certain percentage of the funding is borne by the Centre and the states in fixed ratios and the implementation is done by the state governments. CSSs are formulated in subjects from the State List to encourage states to priorities in areas that require more attention.
In March 2015, to rationalize the CSSs, a Sub-Group of Chief Ministers was set up. The major features of the restructuring of Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSSs) are as given below:
(i) The CSSs have been divided into — Core and Optional schemes.
(ii) The new expenditure sharing pattern for the Core Schemes is—for 8 North Eastern (NE) states and 3 Himalayan states 90:10; for other States 60:40 (Centre:States) and for UTs 100 per cent to be borne by the Centre.
(iii) For Optional Schemes the expenditure sharing pattern is—for 8 NE and 3 Himalayan states 80:20; for other states 50:50 (Centre:States) and for the UTs 100 per cent to be borne by the Centre.
(iv) Amongst the Core Schemes, those for social protection and social inclusion should form the Core of the Core and be the first charge on available funds for the National Development Agenda.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Central Sector Schemes are 100 per cent funded by the Union Government with states functioning as implementing agencies. These schemes are mainly formulated on subjects from the Union List.
Under the Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSSs) a certain percentage of the funding is borne by the Centre and the states in fixed ratios and the implementation is done by the state governments. CSSs are formulated in subjects from the State List to encourage states to priorities in areas that require more attention.
In March 2015, to rationalize the CSSs, a Sub-Group of Chief Ministers was set up. The major features of the restructuring of Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSSs) are as given below:
(i) The CSSs have been divided into — Core and Optional schemes.
(ii) The new expenditure sharing pattern for the Core Schemes is—for 8 North Eastern (NE) states and 3 Himalayan states 90:10; for other States 60:40 (Centre:States) and for UTs 100 per cent to be borne by the Centre.
(iii) For Optional Schemes the expenditure sharing pattern is—for 8 NE and 3 Himalayan states 80:20; for other states 50:50 (Centre:States) and for the UTs 100 per cent to be borne by the Centre.
(iv) Amongst the Core Schemes, those for social protection and social inclusion should form the Core of the Core and be the first charge on available funds for the National Development Agenda.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the components form part of Revenue Receipts?
- Dividends and Profits
- Interest receipts
- Fees for services rendered by the government
- Duties levied on goods produced within the country
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Revenue Receipts: Revenue receipts are those receipts that do not lead to a claim on the government. They are therefore termed non-redeemable. They are divided into tax and non-tax revenues.
- Tax revenues, an important component of revenue receipts, have for long been divided into direct taxes (personal income tax) and firms (corporation tax), and indirect taxes like excise taxes (duties levied on goods produced within the country), customs duties (taxes imposed on goods imported into and exported out of India) and service tax.
- Non-tax revenue of the central government mainly consists of interest receipts on account of loans by the central government, dividends and profits on investments made by the government, fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government. Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organizations are also included. The estimates of revenue receipts take into account the effects of tax proposals made in the Finance Bill.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Revenue Receipts: Revenue receipts are those receipts that do not lead to a claim on the government. They are therefore termed non-redeemable. They are divided into tax and non-tax revenues.
- Tax revenues, an important component of revenue receipts, have for long been divided into direct taxes (personal income tax) and firms (corporation tax), and indirect taxes like excise taxes (duties levied on goods produced within the country), customs duties (taxes imposed on goods imported into and exported out of India) and service tax.
- Non-tax revenue of the central government mainly consists of interest receipts on account of loans by the central government, dividends and profits on investments made by the government, fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government. Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organizations are also included. The estimates of revenue receipts take into account the effects of tax proposals made in the Finance Bill.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the components form part of Capital Expenditure?
- Acquisition of land
- Investment in shares
- Loans by the central government to state government
- Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
Capital Expenditure
There are expenditures of the government which result in creation of physical or financial assets or reduction in financial liabilities. This includes expenditure on the acquisition of land, building, machinery, equipment, investment in shares, and loans and advances by the central government to state and union territory governments, PSUs and other parties. Capital expenditure is also categorized as plan and non-plan in the budget documents. Plan capital expenditure, like its revenue counterpart, relates to central plan and central assistance for state and union territory plans. Non-plan capital expenditure covers various general, social and economic services provided by the government.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Capital Expenditure
There are expenditures of the government which result in creation of physical or financial assets or reduction in financial liabilities. This includes expenditure on the acquisition of land, building, machinery, equipment, investment in shares, and loans and advances by the central government to state and union territory governments, PSUs and other parties. Capital expenditure is also categorized as plan and non-plan in the budget documents. Plan capital expenditure, like its revenue counterpart, relates to central plan and central assistance for state and union territory plans. Non-plan capital expenditure covers various general, social and economic services provided by the government.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding deficits
- Primary Deficit is a difference between the Revenue Receipts Plus Non-Debt Capital Receipts (NDCR).
- Effective Revenue Deficit (ERD) is the difference between Revenue Deficit and Grant-in-Aid for Creation of Capital Assets.
- The growth of revenue deficit as a percentage of fiscal deficit points to a deterioration in the quality of government expenditure involving lower capital formation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Fiscal Deficit (FD) is the adverse fiscal balance which is a difference between the Revenue Receipts Plus Non-Debt Capital Receipts (NDCR) i.e., total of the non-debt receipts and the total expenditure. FD is reflective of the total borrowing requirement of Government.
Revenue Deficit (RD) refers to the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts.
The growth of revenue deficit as a percentage of fiscal deficit points to a deterioration in the quality of government expenditure involving lower capital formation.
Effective Revenue Deficit (ERD) is the difference between Revenue Deficit and Grant-in-Aid for Creation of Capital Assets.
Primary Deficit is measured as Fiscal Deficit less interest payments.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Fiscal Deficit (FD) is the adverse fiscal balance which is a difference between the Revenue Receipts Plus Non-Debt Capital Receipts (NDCR) i.e., total of the non-debt receipts and the total expenditure. FD is reflective of the total borrowing requirement of Government.
Revenue Deficit (RD) refers to the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts.
The growth of revenue deficit as a percentage of fiscal deficit points to a deterioration in the quality of government expenditure involving lower capital formation.
Effective Revenue Deficit (ERD) is the difference between Revenue Deficit and Grant-in-Aid for Creation of Capital Assets.
Primary Deficit is measured as Fiscal Deficit less interest payments.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding
- The Fiscal deficit in India has been decreasing consecutively over the last 5 FY.
- The largest source of Financial Fiscal deficit is Securities against small savings.
- Tax revenues forms the largest component of the net receipts of the centre.
- Capital expenditure has increased consecutively over the last 5 FY.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Fiscal deficit in India has been decreasing consecutively over the last 3 Financial years.
The largest source of Financial Fiscal deficit is Market borrowings.
Tax revenues forms the largest component of the net receipts of the centre.
Capital expenditure has increased consecutively over the last 5 financial years.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Fiscal deficit in India has been decreasing consecutively over the last 3 Financial years.
The largest source of Financial Fiscal deficit is Market borrowings.
Tax revenues forms the largest component of the net receipts of the centre.
Capital expenditure has increased consecutively over the last 5 financial years.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsIf 4 men can do a piece of work in 8 days and 12 women can do the same work in 2 days, then how efficient is one man compared to one woman?
Correct
Solution: a) 25% less efficient
Explanation:
4 men’s work for 8 days is equivalent to 12 women’s work for 2 days.
12 women’s work for 2 days is equal to 6 women’s work for 4 days or 3 women’s work for 8 days
4 men’s work for 8 days is equivalent to 3 women’s work for 8 days.
Therefore, 4 men’s work is equal to 3 women’s work.
1 man can do 1/4th of the work whereas a woman can do 1/3rd of the work.
Man’s relative efficiency = (1/4)/(1/3) = ¾
Thus, a man is ¼ or 25% less efficient as a woman.
Incorrect
Solution: a) 25% less efficient
Explanation:
4 men’s work for 8 days is equivalent to 12 women’s work for 2 days.
12 women’s work for 2 days is equal to 6 women’s work for 4 days or 3 women’s work for 8 days
4 men’s work for 8 days is equivalent to 3 women’s work for 8 days.
Therefore, 4 men’s work is equal to 3 women’s work.
1 man can do 1/4th of the work whereas a woman can do 1/3rd of the work.
Man’s relative efficiency = (1/4)/(1/3) = ¾
Thus, a man is ¼ or 25% less efficient as a woman.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsTwo pipes M and N can fill tank in 12 minutes and 16 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened together, then after how many minutes pipe M should be closed so that the empty tank is full in 12 minutes?
Correct
Solution: a) 3
Explanation:
The fraction of the tank that is filled in one minute by pipes M and N is (1/12) and (1/16) respectively.
As per the given data, M is closed early but N is kept open for 12 minutes.
The fraction of the tank that is filled by pipe N alone in 12 minutes = 12 × (1/16) = ¾
Other ¼ of the tank is filled by pipe M alone.
The time for which the pipe M is kept open = (1/4)/(1/12) = 3 minutes.
So, after 3 minutes the pipe M is closed.
Incorrect
Solution: a) 3
Explanation:
The fraction of the tank that is filled in one minute by pipes M and N is (1/12) and (1/16) respectively.
As per the given data, M is closed early but N is kept open for 12 minutes.
The fraction of the tank that is filled by pipe N alone in 12 minutes = 12 × (1/16) = ¾
Other ¼ of the tank is filled by pipe M alone.
The time for which the pipe M is kept open = (1/4)/(1/12) = 3 minutes.
So, after 3 minutes the pipe M is closed.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 points6 men and 8 women can complete a work in 10 days and 8 men and 22 women can complete the same work in 5 days. What is the number of days in which 34 women will complete thrice the same work?
Correct
Correct Answer: C) 15 DAYS
Explanation:
6m + 8w = 10 days so 60m + 80w = 1 day
8m + 22w = 5 days so 40m + 110w = 1 day
So 60m + 80w = 40m + 110w . It gives 1m = (3/2) w
6m + 8w = 10, so 6*(3/2)w + 8w = 10, so 17 w do 1 work in 10 days, so 34 w thrice work in (17*10*3)/34 = 15 days.Incorrect
Correct Answer: C) 15 DAYS
Explanation:
6m + 8w = 10 days so 60m + 80w = 1 day
8m + 22w = 5 days so 40m + 110w = 1 day
So 60m + 80w = 40m + 110w . It gives 1m = (3/2) w
6m + 8w = 10, so 6*(3/2)w + 8w = 10, so 17 w do 1 work in 10 days, so 34 w thrice work in (17*10*3)/34 = 15 days. -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsA train travels at an average speed of 75 kmph. In a total journey of 450km, the train stops after every 30 km for 2 minutes. What is the total time that the train takes to complete the journey?
Correct
Solution: a) 6 hours 28 minutes
Explanation:
The time taken by the train to complete the journey excluding the time spent in stoppages
= 450km/75 kmph
= 6 hours
Number of stoppages = (450/30) – 1 = 14
Time spent in stoppages = 14 × 2 minutes = 28 minutes
Total time to complete the journey = 6 hours 28 minutes
Incorrect
Solution: a) 6 hours 28 minutes
Explanation:
The time taken by the train to complete the journey excluding the time spent in stoppages
= 450km/75 kmph
= 6 hours
Number of stoppages = (450/30) – 1 = 14
Time spent in stoppages = 14 × 2 minutes = 28 minutes
Total time to complete the journey = 6 hours 28 minutes
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsIndia has not gained much from being in the WTO and resisted opening up its agricultural sector because of millions of small and marginal farmers who would not be able to withstand competition from abroad. India has faced flak in the past about its agricultural subsidies which are far lower than the subsidies the US, Canada and the EU give to their farmers. But their subsidies are supposed to be direct cash subsidies and are allowed under the WTO’s ‘Green Box’. Most of the subsidies India gives to farmers (MSP, fertiliser) come under ‘Amber Box’ and there is pressure to make them ‘Green Box’ compliable. India has had problems with the way the WTO calculates the MSP for Indian farmers.
Which of the following is the most logical, accurate and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage?
Correct
Ans. B) WTO norms are biased against developing countries
Statement A is wrong as then the rule of trade would break down. Statement C is wrong as the passage states that India gives subsidies which are far lower than those given by the developed countries. Statement D is wrong as the passage does not talk about the services sector. Hence B is the most accurate answer.
Incorrect
Ans. B) WTO norms are biased against developing countries
Statement A is wrong as then the rule of trade would break down. Statement C is wrong as the passage states that India gives subsidies which are far lower than those given by the developed countries. Statement D is wrong as the passage does not talk about the services sector. Hence B is the most accurate answer.
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