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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Anti-Defection Law:
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- The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985.
- A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote.
- The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger.
- The law specifies a time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S4: The law does not specify a time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea. Given that courts can intervene only after the Presiding Officer has decided on the matter, the petitioner seeking disqualification has no option but to wait for this decision to be made.
- S3: Legislators may change their party without the risk of disqualification in certain circumstances. The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger. In such a scenario, neither the members who decide to merge, nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification.
S1 and S2: The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote.This implies that a legislator defying (abstaining or voting against) the party whip on any issue can lose his membership of the House. The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S4: The law does not specify a time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea. Given that courts can intervene only after the Presiding Officer has decided on the matter, the petitioner seeking disqualification has no option but to wait for this decision to be made.
- S3: Legislators may change their party without the risk of disqualification in certain circumstances. The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger. In such a scenario, neither the members who decide to merge, nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification.
S1 and S2: The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote.This implies that a legislator defying (abstaining or voting against) the party whip on any issue can lose his membership of the House. The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Under the anti-defection law, the power to decide the disqualification of an MP or MLA rests with the Governor of the State.
- The anti-defection law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Under the anti-defection law, the power to decide the disqualification of an MP or MLA rests with the presiding officer of the legislature.
- The law does not specify a time framein which such a decision has to be made.
- Last year, the Supreme Court observed that anti-defection cases should be decided by Speakers in three months’ time.
- However, Legislators may change their party without the risk of disqualification in certain circumstances. Exceptions:
- The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger.
On being elected as the presiding officer of the House, if a member voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or rejoins it after he ceases to hold that office, he won’t be disqualified.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Under the anti-defection law, the power to decide the disqualification of an MP or MLA rests with the presiding officer of the legislature.
- The law does not specify a time framein which such a decision has to be made.
- Last year, the Supreme Court observed that anti-defection cases should be decided by Speakers in three months’ time.
- However, Legislators may change their party without the risk of disqualification in certain circumstances. Exceptions:
- The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger.
On being elected as the presiding officer of the House, if a member voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or rejoins it after he ceases to hold that office, he won’t be disqualified.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about National Data & Analytics Platform (NDAP) (NDAP):
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- It was launched by the Central Information Commission (CIC) in collaboration with different ministries and state governments in India.
- It aims to democratize access to public government data.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans; (b)
Explanation:
- The National Data & Analytics Platform (NDAP) was launched in 2022 by NITI Aayog in collaboration with different ministries and state governments in India.
- NDAP aims to democratize access to public government data by making it accessible, interoperable, interactive, and available on a user-friendly platform for various stakeholders such as policymakers, civil servants, university students and researchers, journalists, innovators, and civil society groups.
- It has been part of the State Support Mission of NITI Aayog
Incorrect
Ans; (b)
Explanation:
- The National Data & Analytics Platform (NDAP) was launched in 2022 by NITI Aayog in collaboration with different ministries and state governments in India.
- NDAP aims to democratize access to public government data by making it accessible, interoperable, interactive, and available on a user-friendly platform for various stakeholders such as policymakers, civil servants, university students and researchers, journalists, innovators, and civil society groups.
- It has been part of the State Support Mission of NITI Aayog
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the difference in Mohiniyattam classical dance from Kathakali?
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- The characters in a Kathakali performance are divided into satvika, rajasika and tamasika types, unlike in Mohiniyattam.
- The body movement is abrupt and involves sudden jerks in Mohiniyattam unlike Kathakali.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The characters in a Kathakali performance are broadly divided into satvika, rajasika and tamasika types. Satvika characters are noble, heroic, generous and refined.
- Mohiniyattam is characterized by graceful, swaying body movements with no abrupt jerks or sudden leaps.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-february-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The characters in a Kathakali performance are broadly divided into satvika, rajasika and tamasika types. Satvika characters are noble, heroic, generous and refined.
- Mohiniyattam is characterized by graceful, swaying body movements with no abrupt jerks or sudden leaps.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-february-2023/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointswith reference to Sansad Ratna Awards, consider the following statements:
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- They were instituted in 2010, inspired by the teachings of former President APJ Abdul Kalam, who launched the first edition of the Award function in Chennai.
- They seek to recognise and felicitate the top-performing MPs on the basis of their work in the apex legislative body.
- The Awards are not given by the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans; (d)
Explanation: The Sansad Ratna Awards:
- They were instituted in 2010, inspired by the teachings of former President APJ Abdul Kalam, who launched the first edition of the Award function in Chennai.
- They seek to recognise and felicitate the top-performing MPs on the basis of their work in the apex legislative body.
- Its jury committee comprises eminent Parliamentarians and members of civil society and was chaired by the MoS, Parliamentary Affairs and co-chaired by T S Krishnamurthy (Former Chief Election Commissioner of India).
- The Awards are not given by the Government of India. It is the Prime Point Foundation which runs the awards show.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-february-2023/
Incorrect
Ans; (d)
Explanation: The Sansad Ratna Awards:
- They were instituted in 2010, inspired by the teachings of former President APJ Abdul Kalam, who launched the first edition of the Award function in Chennai.
- They seek to recognise and felicitate the top-performing MPs on the basis of their work in the apex legislative body.
- Its jury committee comprises eminent Parliamentarians and members of civil society and was chaired by the MoS, Parliamentary Affairs and co-chaired by T S Krishnamurthy (Former Chief Election Commissioner of India).
- The Awards are not given by the Government of India. It is the Prime Point Foundation which runs the awards show.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-february-2023/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Law Commission of India
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- It is neither a statutory nor a constitutional body.
- It acts as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Ministry of Law and Justice in the Government of India is a cabinet ministry which deals with the management of the legal affairs, legislative activities and administration of justice in India.
- It acts as an advisory body to the Law Ministry. The Law Commission is neither a statutory nor a constitutional body. It is primarily composed of legal experts
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-february-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Ministry of Law and Justice in the Government of India is a cabinet ministry which deals with the management of the legal affairs, legislative activities and administration of justice in India.
- It acts as an advisory body to the Law Ministry. The Law Commission is neither a statutory nor a constitutional body. It is primarily composed of legal experts
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-february-2023/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana:
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- It is the “world’s largest government funded healthcare program” targeting more than 50 crore beneficiaries.
- It provides a cover of up to Rs. 10 lakhs per family per year, for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a )
Explanation:
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-february-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (a )
Explanation:
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-february-2023/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean region (IFC-IOR):
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- It is hosted by the Indian Navy and International Maritime Organization (IMO).
- It seeks to enhance collaborative maritime safety and security in the Indian Ocean region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- It is hosted by the Indian Navy and was established by the Government of India at Gurugram in 2018.
- It seeks to enhance collaborative maritime safety and security in the IOR in line with India’s vision of Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR).
- To enable better correlation, compressed information cycles and timely inputs, IFC-IOR also hosts International Liaison Officers (ILOs) from partner nations.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-february-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- It is hosted by the Indian Navy and was established by the Government of India at Gurugram in 2018.
- It seeks to enhance collaborative maritime safety and security in the IOR in line with India’s vision of Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR).
- To enable better correlation, compressed information cycles and timely inputs, IFC-IOR also hosts International Liaison Officers (ILOs) from partner nations.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-february-2023/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Greater one-horned rhinoceros.
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- Greater one-horned rhinoceros is native to the Indian subcontinent.
- Kaziranga National Park has the highest density of Greater one-horned rhinos in the world.
- It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Greater one-horned rhinoceros, is a rhinoceros species native to the Indian subcontinent. It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary in Assam has the highest density of Indian rhinos in the world.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-february-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Greater one-horned rhinoceros, is a rhinoceros species native to the Indian subcontinent. It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary in Assam has the highest density of Indian rhinos in the world.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-february-2023/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve:
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- It is the home of the world’s most one-horned rhinos.
- It is home to the highest density of tigers in Assam.
- It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: The sanctuary, which hosts two-thirds of the world’s great one-horned rhinoceroses, is a World Heritage Site.
- S2: it is home to the highest density of tigers among protected areas in the world and was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2006 (now the highest tiger density is in Orang National Park, Assam). Also read
- S3: It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-february-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: The sanctuary, which hosts two-thirds of the world’s great one-horned rhinoceroses, is a World Heritage Site.
- S2: it is home to the highest density of tigers among protected areas in the world and was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2006 (now the highest tiger density is in Orang National Park, Assam). Also read
- S3: It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-february-2023/
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