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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the State Election Commission.
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- The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the President.
- The State Election Commissioner has the status of a Judge of a High Court.
- The State Election Commissioners work independently of the Election Commission of India and each has its own sphere of operation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- The Constitution of India vests in the State Election Commission, consisting of a State Election Commissioner, the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats and the Municipalities (Articles 243K, 243ZA).
- The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor.
- The State Election Commissioners work independently of the Election Commission of India and each has its own sphere of operation.
- Powers and removal of state election commissioner:
- The State Election Commissioner has the status, salary and allowance of a Judge of a High Court and cannot be removed from office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/no-bar-on-contesting-two-seats-in-one-poll/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- The Constitution of India vests in the State Election Commission, consisting of a State Election Commissioner, the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats and the Municipalities (Articles 243K, 243ZA).
- The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor.
- The State Election Commissioners work independently of the Election Commission of India and each has its own sphere of operation.
- Powers and removal of state election commissioner:
- The State Election Commissioner has the status, salary and allowance of a Judge of a High Court and cannot be removed from office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/no-bar-on-contesting-two-seats-in-one-poll/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India.
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- The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Though the constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws with respect to the members of the EC can be noted, viz.,
- The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/no-bar-on-contesting-two-seats-in-one-poll/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Though the constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws with respect to the members of the EC can be noted, viz.,
- The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/no-bar-on-contesting-two-seats-in-one-poll/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
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- According to Article 244 of the Indian Constitution, the Sixth Schedule consists of provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Manipur.
- Along with ADCs, the 6th Schedule also provides for separate Regional Councils for each area constituted as an autonomous region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Schedule protects tribal populations, providing autonomy to communities through the creation of Autonomous Development Councils (ADCs), which can frame laws on land, public health and agriculture.
- According to Article 244 of the Indian Constitution, the Sixth Schedule consists of provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
- As of now, 10 autonomous councils exist in the above 4 states.
- Along with ADCs, the 6th Schedule also provides for separate Regional Councils for each area constituted as an autonomous region.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Schedule protects tribal populations, providing autonomy to communities through the creation of Autonomous Development Councils (ADCs), which can frame laws on land, public health and agriculture.
- According to Article 244 of the Indian Constitution, the Sixth Schedule consists of provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
- As of now, 10 autonomous councils exist in the above 4 states.
- Along with ADCs, the 6th Schedule also provides for separate Regional Councils for each area constituted as an autonomous region.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhat is the Angel Tax, and how does it affect Indian startups?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Context: According to a proposal made in the Finance Bill, 2023, foreign/angel investors may be required to pay the “angel tax,” which was previously only supposed to be paid for investments raised by resident Indian investors.
- Angel Tax is a tax imposed on angel investors who provide funding to startups in India. It has a negative impact on the startup ecosystem as it discourages investment in the sector.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Context: According to a proposal made in the Finance Bill, 2023, foreign/angel investors may be required to pay the “angel tax,” which was previously only supposed to be paid for investments raised by resident Indian investors.
- Angel Tax is a tax imposed on angel investors who provide funding to startups in India. It has a negative impact on the startup ecosystem as it discourages investment in the sector.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- In India, all judges have the same judicial powers.
- A puisne judge of a High Court is a judge other than a Chief Justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Who is a Puisne Judge:
- The term puisne judge is used in common law countries to refer to judges who are ranked lower in seniority, i.e., any judge other than the Chief Justice of that court.
- Common law is the body of law that is created by judges through their written opinions, rather than through statutes or constitutions (statutory law). Common law, which is used interchangeably with ‘case law’, is based on judicial precedent. The United Kingdom (UK) and the Commonwealth countries, including India, are common law countries.
- Puisne Judge in India:
- In India, all judges have the same judicial powers. As the seniormost judge of a court, the Chief Justice has an additional administrative role.
- In India, there is a reference to a puisne judge only while considering the order of seniority for appointments, elevations to High Courts, etc., but it does not have a bearing on the exercise of a judge’s judicial power.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Who is a Puisne Judge:
- The term puisne judge is used in common law countries to refer to judges who are ranked lower in seniority, i.e., any judge other than the Chief Justice of that court.
- Common law is the body of law that is created by judges through their written opinions, rather than through statutes or constitutions (statutory law). Common law, which is used interchangeably with ‘case law’, is based on judicial precedent. The United Kingdom (UK) and the Commonwealth countries, including India, are common law countries.
- Puisne Judge in India:
- In India, all judges have the same judicial powers. As the seniormost judge of a court, the Chief Justice has an additional administrative role.
- In India, there is a reference to a puisne judge only while considering the order of seniority for appointments, elevations to High Courts, etc., but it does not have a bearing on the exercise of a judge’s judicial power.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2023/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about International Seabed Authority:
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- It is an intergovernmental body of 167 member states and the European Union.
- It comes under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)for monitoring all activities related to mineral resources in the deep sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- ISA (HQ: Jamaica, est. 1994) is an intergovernmental body of 167 member states and the European Union established under the 1982 UN Convention on the Law of the Sea and its 1994 Agreement on Implementation
- It comes under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)for monitoring all activities related to mineral resources in the deep sea.
- The international seabed is the area that lies beyond the limits of national jurisdiction and represents around 50% of the total area of the world’s oceans.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- ISA (HQ: Jamaica, est. 1994) is an intergovernmental body of 167 member states and the European Union established under the 1982 UN Convention on the Law of the Sea and its 1994 Agreement on Implementation
- It comes under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)for monitoring all activities related to mineral resources in the deep sea.
- The international seabed is the area that lies beyond the limits of national jurisdiction and represents around 50% of the total area of the world’s oceans.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2023/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Mugger crocodile:
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- It is most commonly found in freshwater environments.
- It is also known as the fish-eating crocodile.
- It has been listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Gharial is known as the gavial or the fish-eating crocodile.
- Since 1982, it has been listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
- It is native to freshwater habitats from southern Iran to the Indian subcontinent, where it inhabits marshes, lakes, rivers and artificial ponds.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Gharial is known as the gavial or the fish-eating crocodile.
- Since 1982, it has been listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
- It is native to freshwater habitats from southern Iran to the Indian subcontinent, where it inhabits marshes, lakes, rivers and artificial ponds.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2023/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Biodiversity Heritage Sites are areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems having a rich biodiversity.
- Under Biological Diversity Act (BDA) 2002, the Central Governments are empowered to notify BHS, in consultation with States, of areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites.
- There are 36 BHS in India, Mahendragiri hill (Odisha) is the last BHS added in 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Biodiversity Heritage Sites are areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems having a rich biodiversity.
- Under Biological Diversity Act (BDA) 2002, the State Governments are empowered to notify BHS, in consultation with ‘local bodies’, of areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites.
- There are 36 BHS in India, Mahendragiri hill (Odisha) is the last BHS added in 2022.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Biodiversity Heritage Sites are areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems having a rich biodiversity.
- Under Biological Diversity Act (BDA) 2002, the State Governments are empowered to notify BHS, in consultation with ‘local bodies’, of areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites.
- There are 36 BHS in India, Mahendragiri hill (Odisha) is the last BHS added in 2022.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2023/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Red Sanders:
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- It is a species found in the southern tropical dry deciduous forest of Andhra Pradesh (AP).
- It has been listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a )
Explanation: About Red Sanders:
- Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus), also called Red Sandalwood, is a species found in the southern tropical dry deciduous forest of Andhra Pradesh (AP).
- IUCN – ‘Endangered’
- CITES – Appendix II
- Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 – Schedule IV
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (a )
Explanation: About Red Sanders:
- Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus), also called Red Sandalwood, is a species found in the southern tropical dry deciduous forest of Andhra Pradesh (AP).
- IUCN – ‘Endangered’
- CITES – Appendix II
- Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 – Schedule IV
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2023/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsThe Dar-es-Salaam Declaration was in news recently is related to
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Dar-es-Salaam Declarationon ending AIDS in children was endorsed unanimously. The commitment marks a step up to ensure that all children with HIV have access to life-saving treatment and that mothers living with HIV have babies free from HIV.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Dar-es-Salaam Declarationon ending AIDS in children was endorsed unanimously. The commitment marks a step up to ensure that all children with HIV have access to life-saving treatment and that mothers living with HIV have babies free from HIV.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/02/03/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-3-february-2023/
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