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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about SVAMITVA Scheme
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- It is a scheme for mapping the land parcels in rural inhabited areas using drone technology and Continuously Operating Reference Station (CORS).
- The scheme is piloted by the Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Overview and key features of the SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) Yojana’:
- Launched on Panchayati Raj Diwas (April 24th, 2020). Last year, it was extended to all states. Earlier, it was launched only for 9 states.
- The scheme seeks to map residential land ownership in the rural sector using modern technology like the use of drones.
- The scheme aims to revolutionize property record maintenance in India.
- The scheme is piloted by the Panchayati Raj ministry.
- Under the scheme, residential land in villages will be measured using drones to create a non-disputable record.
- Property card for every property in the village will be prepared by states using accurate measurements delivered by drone-mapping. These cards will be given to property owners and will be recognised by the land revenue records department.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/the-national-geospatial-policy-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Overview and key features of the SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) Yojana’:
- Launched on Panchayati Raj Diwas (April 24th, 2020). Last year, it was extended to all states. Earlier, it was launched only for 9 states.
- The scheme seeks to map residential land ownership in the rural sector using modern technology like the use of drones.
- The scheme aims to revolutionize property record maintenance in India.
- The scheme is piloted by the Panchayati Raj ministry.
- Under the scheme, residential land in villages will be measured using drones to create a non-disputable record.
- Property card for every property in the village will be prepared by states using accurate measurements delivered by drone-mapping. These cards will be given to property owners and will be recognised by the land revenue records department.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/the-national-geospatial-policy-2022/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsThe Vishakha Guidelines were a set of procedural guidelines for use in India in cases of
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Vishakha Guidelines were issued by the Supreme Court (in Vishakha and others v. The State of Rajasthan 1997) with the primary goal of creating a framework for workplace sexual misconduct redress and grievance processes.
refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/ncw-issues-memo-on-prevention-of-sexual-harassment/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Vishakha Guidelines were issued by the Supreme Court (in Vishakha and others v. The State of Rajasthan 1997) with the primary goal of creating a framework for workplace sexual misconduct redress and grievance processes.
refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/ncw-issues-memo-on-prevention-of-sexual-harassment/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the National Commission for Women (NCW):
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- It is the statutory body of the Government of India.
- It advises the government on all policy matters affecting women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- The National Commission for Women (NCW) is the statutory body of the Government of India, generally concerned with advising the government on all policy matters affecting women.
refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/ncw-issues-memo-on-prevention-of-sexual-harassment/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- The National Commission for Women (NCW) is the statutory body of the Government of India, generally concerned with advising the government on all policy matters affecting women.
refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/ncw-issues-memo-on-prevention-of-sexual-harassment/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following correctly describes the Tidal Disruption Event (TDE)?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The astronomical phenomenon of the destruction of a star by a black hole is formally called a tidal disruption event (TDE)
- About TDE:
- A tidal force is a difference in the strength of gravity between two points. If the tidal force exerted on a body is greater than the intermolecular force that keeps it together, the body will get disrupted.
- During a TDE, the tidal force of a black hole disrupts the star in the vicinity. While about half of the star’s debris continues on its original path, the other half is attracted by the black hole’s gravitational pull. The gradual growth of this material bound to the black hole produces a short-lived flare of emission, known as a tidal disruption event.
- The event is formally called AT2021ehb and took place in a galaxy with a central black hole about 10 million times the mass of our sun.
- TDEs are attractive to astronomers because of their observability and short duration, and the opportunity to study the impact of black holes’ gravity on materials around them.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The astronomical phenomenon of the destruction of a star by a black hole is formally called a tidal disruption event (TDE)
- About TDE:
- A tidal force is a difference in the strength of gravity between two points. If the tidal force exerted on a body is greater than the intermolecular force that keeps it together, the body will get disrupted.
- During a TDE, the tidal force of a black hole disrupts the star in the vicinity. While about half of the star’s debris continues on its original path, the other half is attracted by the black hole’s gravitational pull. The gradual growth of this material bound to the black hole produces a short-lived flare of emission, known as a tidal disruption event.
- The event is formally called AT2021ehb and took place in a galaxy with a central black hole about 10 million times the mass of our sun.
- TDEs are attractive to astronomers because of their observability and short duration, and the opportunity to study the impact of black holes’ gravity on materials around them.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2022/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The National Dairy Development Board is a statutory body set up by an Act of the Parliament of India.
- It is under the ownership of the Ministry of Cooperation of the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The National Dairy Development Board is a statutory body set up by an Act of the Parliament of India. It is under the ownership of Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying of the Government of India.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The National Dairy Development Board is a statutory body set up by an Act of the Parliament of India. It is under the ownership of Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying of the Government of India.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2022/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following provisions of the Constitution provides for the Right to form co-operative Societies in India?
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- Article 19
- Article 44-B
- Part IX-B
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 added a new Part IXB right after Part IXA (Municipals) regarding the cooperatives working in India.
- Article 19(1)(c): The word “cooperatives” was added after “unions and associations” in Article 19(1)(c). This enables all the citizens to form cooperatives by giving it the status of the fundamental right of citizens
- Article 43B was added in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) regarding the “promotion of cooperative societies”
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 added a new Part IXB right after Part IXA (Municipals) regarding the cooperatives working in India.
- Article 19(1)(c): The word “cooperatives” was added after “unions and associations” in Article 19(1)(c). This enables all the citizens to form cooperatives by giving it the status of the fundamental right of citizens
- Article 43B was added in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) regarding the “promotion of cooperative societies”
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2022/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Vibrant Village Programme (VVP):
-
- It was announced in the 2022-23 budget.
- It promotes community knowledge in border management.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation: About the VVP:
- It was announced in the 2022-23 budget with an aim to enhance the infrastructure in border villages along India’s border with China.
- Activities include Housing, Tourism promotion, Road Infrastructure, Renewable Energy, livelihood generation etc.
- Promotes community knowledge in the border management
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation: About the VVP:
- It was announced in the 2022-23 budget with an aim to enhance the infrastructure in border villages along India’s border with China.
- Activities include Housing, Tourism promotion, Road Infrastructure, Renewable Energy, livelihood generation etc.
- Promotes community knowledge in the border management
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2022/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
-
- India has more than 70% share of the world’s total rice exports.
- Most of India’s basmati exports are to Iran and the Arabian Peninsula countries.
- Parboiling is a process where the paddy is soaked in water, steamed and dried so that the rice becomes harder with less breakage on milling.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b )
Explanation:
- India has a 40% share of the world’s total rice exports, with its 21 mt-plus shipments last year way ahead of Thailand’s (7.2 mt), Vietnam’s (6.6 mt) and Pakistan’s (4.8 mt).
- More than 75% of basmati exports last year were to Iran and the Arabian Peninsula countries; the US, UK, Canada and Australia added up to another 10%. In non-basmati rice, almost 55% went to African countries.
- Rice is derived from milling of paddy grain produced by farmers. Paddy typically has 20-21% husk (the inedible covering of the grain) and 10-11% bran (the brown outer layer of the edible kernel). What remains after removal of the husk and bran is the white raw rice that constitutes 68-69% of paddy. The milled rice, in turn, has both whole and broken grains.
- Parboiling is a process where the paddy is soaked in water, steamed and dried while retaining its outer husk. It results in the rice becoming harder with less breakage on milling.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b )
Explanation:
- India has a 40% share of the world’s total rice exports, with its 21 mt-plus shipments last year way ahead of Thailand’s (7.2 mt), Vietnam’s (6.6 mt) and Pakistan’s (4.8 mt).
- More than 75% of basmati exports last year were to Iran and the Arabian Peninsula countries; the US, UK, Canada and Australia added up to another 10%. In non-basmati rice, almost 55% went to African countries.
- Rice is derived from milling of paddy grain produced by farmers. Paddy typically has 20-21% husk (the inedible covering of the grain) and 10-11% bran (the brown outer layer of the edible kernel). What remains after removal of the husk and bran is the white raw rice that constitutes 68-69% of paddy. The milled rice, in turn, has both whole and broken grains.
- Parboiling is a process where the paddy is soaked in water, steamed and dried while retaining its outer husk. It results in the rice becoming harder with less breakage on milling.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2022/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
-
- The Kerch strait connects the Black Sea with the Sea of Marmara
- The Bosphorus strait is a strait in Eastern Europe that connects the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans; (d)
Explanation:
- The Bosphorus connects the Black Sea with the Sea of Marmara
- The Kerch Strait is a strait in Eastern Europe. It connects the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2022/
Incorrect
Ans; (d)
Explanation:
- The Bosphorus connects the Black Sea with the Sea of Marmara
- The Kerch Strait is a strait in Eastern Europe. It connects the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2022/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 points“This crop can be grown not only in the tropical and subtropical zones, but also in the temperate zone and the cold tracts of the far north, beyond even the 60 degree north altitude. It can tolerate severe cold and snow and resume growth with the setting in of warm weather in spring. It can be cultivated from sea level to as high as 3300 meters.” Which one of the following is that crop?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Climate requirement
- Wheat crops have wide adaptability. It can be grown not only in the tropical and sub-tropical zones, but also in the temperate zone and the cold tracts of the far north ,beyond even the 60 degree north altitude . Wheat can tolerate severe cold and snow and resume growth with the setting in of warm weather in spring .It can be cultivated from sea level to as high as 3300 meters.
- The best wheat is produced in areas favoured with cool, moist weather during the major portion of the growing period followed by dry, warm weather to enable the grain to ripen properly. The optimum temperature range for ideal germination of wheat seed is 20-25 C though the seeds can germinate in the temperature range 3.5 to 35 c. Rains just after sowing hamper germination and encourage seedling blight. Areas with a warm and damp climate are not suited for wheat growing.
- During the heading and flowering stages, excessively high or low temperatures and drought are harmful to wheat. Cloudy weather, with high humidity and low temperatures is conducive for rust attack. Wheat plants require about 14-15 c optimum average temperature at the time of ripening . The temperature conditions at the time of grain filling and development are very crucial for yield. Temperatures above 250c during this period tend to depress grain weight. When temperatures are high, too much energy is lost through the process of transpiration by the plants and the reduced residual energy results in poorer grain formation and lower yields. Wheat is mainly a rabi (winter) season crop in India.
- Soil
- Wheat is grown in a variety of soils of India. Soils with a clay loam or loam texture, good structure and moderate water holding capacity are ideal for wheat cultivation. Care should be taken to avoid very porous and excessively drained oils. Soil should be neutral in its reaction. Heavy soil with good drainage is suitable for wheat cultivation under dry conditions. These soils absorb and retain rainwater well. Heavy soils with poor structure and poor drainage are not suitable as wheat is sensitive to water logging. Wheat can be successfully grown on lighter soils provided their water and nutrient holding capacity are improved.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Climate requirement
- Wheat crops have wide adaptability. It can be grown not only in the tropical and sub-tropical zones, but also in the temperate zone and the cold tracts of the far north ,beyond even the 60 degree north altitude . Wheat can tolerate severe cold and snow and resume growth with the setting in of warm weather in spring .It can be cultivated from sea level to as high as 3300 meters.
- The best wheat is produced in areas favoured with cool, moist weather during the major portion of the growing period followed by dry, warm weather to enable the grain to ripen properly. The optimum temperature range for ideal germination of wheat seed is 20-25 C though the seeds can germinate in the temperature range 3.5 to 35 c. Rains just after sowing hamper germination and encourage seedling blight. Areas with a warm and damp climate are not suited for wheat growing.
- During the heading and flowering stages, excessively high or low temperatures and drought are harmful to wheat. Cloudy weather, with high humidity and low temperatures is conducive for rust attack. Wheat plants require about 14-15 c optimum average temperature at the time of ripening . The temperature conditions at the time of grain filling and development are very crucial for yield. Temperatures above 250c during this period tend to depress grain weight. When temperatures are high, too much energy is lost through the process of transpiration by the plants and the reduced residual energy results in poorer grain formation and lower yields. Wheat is mainly a rabi (winter) season crop in India.
- Soil
- Wheat is grown in a variety of soils of India. Soils with a clay loam or loam texture, good structure and moderate water holding capacity are ideal for wheat cultivation. Care should be taken to avoid very porous and excessively drained oils. Soil should be neutral in its reaction. Heavy soil with good drainage is suitable for wheat cultivation under dry conditions. These soils absorb and retain rainwater well. Heavy soils with poor structure and poor drainage are not suitable as wheat is sensitive to water logging. Wheat can be successfully grown on lighter soils provided their water and nutrient holding capacity are improved.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/31/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-31-december-2022/
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