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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.
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- It has the jurisdiction to issue writs under Article 32 of the Constitution.
- It has the original jurisdiction under Article 131 of the Constitution.
- It has the power to make such an order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Supreme Court of India is regarded as the world’s most powerful top court, on account of its wide power of judicial review. It has the jurisdiction to issue writs under Article 32 of the Constitution. It also has the original jurisdiction under Article 131 of the Constitution. There is also wide appellate power under Articles 132, 133, 134 and 136 of the Constitution. More significantly, the Supreme Court has the power to “make such an order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it”, as per Article 142 of the Constitution.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/30/how-are-disputes-between-states-resolved-in-india/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Supreme Court of India is regarded as the world’s most powerful top court, on account of its wide power of judicial review. It has the jurisdiction to issue writs under Article 32 of the Constitution. It also has the original jurisdiction under Article 131 of the Constitution. There is also wide appellate power under Articles 132, 133, 134 and 136 of the Constitution. More significantly, the Supreme Court has the power to “make such an order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it”, as per Article 142 of the Constitution.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/30/how-are-disputes-between-states-resolved-in-india/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Voter-verifiable paper audit trail (VVPAT), consider the following statements:
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- VVPAT is a method of providing feedback to voters by giving them a printout of candidate details for whom they have voted
- VVPAT helps in detecting possible election fraud or malfunction
- In India, VVPAT is yet to be tried in elections conducted by the Election Commission of India
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Voter-verifiable paper audit trail (VVPAT) or verifiable paper record (VPR) is a method of providing feedback to voters using a ballotless voting system. A VVPAT is intended as an independent verification system for voting machines designed to allow voters to verify that their vote was cast correctly, to detect possible election fraud or malfunction, and to provide a means to audit the stored electronic results.It contains name of the candidate (for whom vote has been casted) and symbol of the party/ individual candidate.
- Voter-verifiable paper audit trail was first used in an election in India in September 2013 in Noksen (Assembly Constituency) in Nagaland. VVPAT along with EVMs was used on a large-scale for the first time in India, in 10 assembly seats out of 40 in 2013 Mizoram Legislative Assembly election.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Voter-verifiable paper audit trail (VVPAT) or verifiable paper record (VPR) is a method of providing feedback to voters using a ballotless voting system. A VVPAT is intended as an independent verification system for voting machines designed to allow voters to verify that their vote was cast correctly, to detect possible election fraud or malfunction, and to provide a means to audit the stored electronic results.It contains name of the candidate (for whom vote has been casted) and symbol of the party/ individual candidate.
- Voter-verifiable paper audit trail was first used in an election in India in September 2013 in Noksen (Assembly Constituency) in Nagaland. VVPAT along with EVMs was used on a large-scale for the first time in India, in 10 assembly seats out of 40 in 2013 Mizoram Legislative Assembly election.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Central Pollution Control Board of India:
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- It is a statutory organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- It was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
- The CPCB is also entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air Act, 1981.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- PCB is a statutory organisation which was constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
- It was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
- It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- Important functions:
- to promote the cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution.
- to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- PCB is a statutory organisation which was constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
- It was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
- It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- Important functions:
- to promote the cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution.
- to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsJames Webb Telescope is an international collaboration between
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- National Aeronautics and Space Administration
- European Space Agency
- Canadian Space Agency
- Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- James Webb Telescope is an international collaboration between NASA, European Space Agency (ESA), and the Canadian Space Agency.
- The telescope uses infrared light, which cannot be perceived by the human eye, to study every phase in cosmic history.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/30/the-webb-telescope-is-just-getting-started/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- James Webb Telescope is an international collaboration between NASA, European Space Agency (ESA), and the Canadian Space Agency.
- The telescope uses infrared light, which cannot be perceived by the human eye, to study every phase in cosmic history.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/30/the-webb-telescope-is-just-getting-started/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsMedaram Jatara also known as Sammakka Saralamma Jatara is a tribal festival held in which of the following states?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Sammakka Saralamma jatara ( the biggest tribal festival in India and 2nd largest fair after Kumbh Mela) is the four-day biennial Medaram jatara which was held in Mulugu district in February (Telangana) this year.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-december-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Sammakka Saralamma jatara ( the biggest tribal festival in India and 2nd largest fair after Kumbh Mela) is the four-day biennial Medaram jatara which was held in Mulugu district in February (Telangana) this year.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/12/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-december-2022/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Nilgiri Tahr
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- It is an endangered species and the sole Caprinae species found in the tropical mountains of southern India.
- It inhabits meadows with steep cliffs at elevations between 300 metres and 2,600 metre above sea level.
- It was designated as the State animal of Kerala in recognition of its ecological and cultural significance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- According to the order, there are multiple references to the Nilgiri Tahr in Tamil Sangam literature dating back to 2,000 years. The late Mesolithic (10,000-4,000 BC) paintings highlight the significance of the Tahr in folklore, culture and life. It was designated as the State animal of Tamil Nadu in recognition of its ecological and cultural significance.
- It is an endangered species and the sole Caprinae species found in the tropical mountains of southern India. The animal inhabits meadows with steep cliffs at elevations between 300 metres and 2,600 metre above sea level. It is estimated that there are 3,122 Nilgiri Tahrs in the wild. Historically, the Nilgiri Tahr was known to inhabit a large portion of the Western Ghats. But today it remains restricted to a few scattered patches in Tamil Nadu and Kerala. It has become locally extinct in around 14% of its traditional shola forest-grassland habitat.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- According to the order, there are multiple references to the Nilgiri Tahr in Tamil Sangam literature dating back to 2,000 years. The late Mesolithic (10,000-4,000 BC) paintings highlight the significance of the Tahr in folklore, culture and life. It was designated as the State animal of Tamil Nadu in recognition of its ecological and cultural significance.
- It is an endangered species and the sole Caprinae species found in the tropical mountains of southern India. The animal inhabits meadows with steep cliffs at elevations between 300 metres and 2,600 metre above sea level. It is estimated that there are 3,122 Nilgiri Tahrs in the wild. Historically, the Nilgiri Tahr was known to inhabit a large portion of the Western Ghats. But today it remains restricted to a few scattered patches in Tamil Nadu and Kerala. It has become locally extinct in around 14% of its traditional shola forest-grassland habitat.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsIn India the steel production industry requires the import of
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Saltpetre (Potassium nitrate) is not used in the production of steel. It is instead used in fertilizers, tree stump removal, rocket propellants and fireworks. It is one of the major constituents of gunpowder (blackpowder) and has been used since the Middle Ages as a food preservative.
- India definitely imports coking coal. So, the answer has to be C.
- It requires 0.8 tonnes of coking coal to produce one tonne of steel. The government had recently imposed a 2.5 per cent duty on coking coal import.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2015
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Saltpetre (Potassium nitrate) is not used in the production of steel. It is instead used in fertilizers, tree stump removal, rocket propellants and fireworks. It is one of the major constituents of gunpowder (blackpowder) and has been used since the Middle Ages as a food preservative.
- India definitely imports coking coal. So, the answer has to be C.
- It requires 0.8 tonnes of coking coal to produce one tonne of steel. The government had recently imposed a 2.5 per cent duty on coking coal import.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2015
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsThe provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Option C is incorrect because it excludes the fifth and sixth schedule areas from the application of the Panchayati Raj system. This is to ensure that the local tribal practices, customs, religious laws, social and political institutions are not tampered with.
- Instead, the act known as PESA, 1996 extends the panchayati raj system to the tribal areas.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2015
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Option C is incorrect because it excludes the fifth and sixth schedule areas from the application of the Panchayati Raj system. This is to ensure that the local tribal practices, customs, religious laws, social and political institutions are not tampered with.
- Instead, the act known as PESA, 1996 extends the panchayati raj system to the tribal areas.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2015
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched during 1996-97 to provide loan assistance to poor farmers.
- The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974-75 for the development of water-use efficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The government of India launched Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Program (AIBP) in 1996-97. This program was launched to give loan assistance to the states to help them with a few major irrigation projects which were in the advanced stage of completion.
- The Command Area Development Programme was launched as a Centrally-sponsored scheme in 1974-75 with the main objectives of improving utilization of irrigation potential and optimizing agricultural productivity and production from the irrigated areas by integrating all functions related with irrigated agriculture.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2015
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The government of India launched Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Program (AIBP) in 1996-97. This program was launched to give loan assistance to the states to help them with a few major irrigation projects which were in the advanced stage of completion.
- The Command Area Development Programme was launched as a Centrally-sponsored scheme in 1974-75 with the main objectives of improving utilization of irrigation potential and optimizing agricultural productivity and production from the irrigated areas by integrating all functions related with irrigated agriculture.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2015
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, Consider the following statements:
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- It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills
- It is an alliance meant for maritime security only
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The organization was first established as Indian Ocean Rim Initiative in Mauritius in March 1995 and formally launched on 6–7 March 1997. It is an international organization consisting of coastal states bordering the Indian Ocean.
- Priority areas are to promote the sustained growth and balanced development of the region and of the Member States, and to create common ground for regional economic co-operation. Six priority areas were identified at the 11th Council of Ministers, in Bengaluru are:
o Maritime Safety & Security,
o Trade & Investment Facilitation,
o Fisheries Management,
o Disaster Risk Management,
o Academic, Science & Technology,
o Tourism & Cultural Exchanges
o Gender empowerment
Source: http://iora.net/
Refer: UPSC CSE 2015
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The organization was first established as Indian Ocean Rim Initiative in Mauritius in March 1995 and formally launched on 6–7 March 1997. It is an international organization consisting of coastal states bordering the Indian Ocean.
- Priority areas are to promote the sustained growth and balanced development of the region and of the Member States, and to create common ground for regional economic co-operation. Six priority areas were identified at the 11th Council of Ministers, in Bengaluru are:
o Maritime Safety & Security,
o Trade & Investment Facilitation,
o Fisheries Management,
o Disaster Risk Management,
o Academic, Science & Technology,
o Tourism & Cultural Exchanges
o Gender empowerment
Source: http://iora.net/
Refer: UPSC CSE 2015
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