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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Punnapra-Vayalar uprising:
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- It was the first Satyagraha movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in Kerala.
- It was mostly a passive and non-violent protest (Satyagraha) campaign.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: About the Punnapra-Vayalar uprising:
- It was a militant communist movement in 1946 in the Princely State of Travancore, British India against the Prime Minister, C. P. Ramaswami Iyer and the state.
- This was a proper struggle against the declaration of ‘Independent Travancore’ by the then Travancore.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: About the Punnapra-Vayalar uprising:
- It was a militant communist movement in 1946 in the Princely State of Travancore, British India against the Prime Minister, C. P. Ramaswami Iyer and the state.
- This was a proper struggle against the declaration of ‘Independent Travancore’ by the then Travancore.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS):
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- It is an initiative of Tata Trusts and Government of India to impart quality education to ST children in remote areas.
- The schools focus not only on academic education but on the all-round development of the students from Class VI to XII .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About EMRS:
- The Tribal Affairs Ministry started the EMRS in the year 1997-98 to impart quality education to ST children in remote areas.
- The schools focus not only on academic education but on the all-round development of the students from Class VI to XII .
- Previously, funds were given to state governments for school construction and recurring expenses under Article 275 (1) of the
- To provide EMRS with even greater momentum, it has been agreed that by 2022, every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal people will have an EMRS.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About EMRS:
- The Tribal Affairs Ministry started the EMRS in the year 1997-98 to impart quality education to ST children in remote areas.
- The schools focus not only on academic education but on the all-round development of the students from Class VI to XII .
- Previously, funds were given to state governments for school construction and recurring expenses under Article 275 (1) of the
- To provide EMRS with even greater momentum, it has been agreed that by 2022, every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal people will have an EMRS.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsThe Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The first amendment to the Indian Constitution added the Ninth Schedule to it. It was introduced by the Nehru Government, on 10 May 1951 to address judicial decisions and pronouncements especially about the chapter on fundamental rights.
- See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constitution_of_India
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The first amendment to the Indian Constitution added the Ninth Schedule to it. It was introduced by the Nehru Government, on 10 May 1951 to address judicial decisions and pronouncements especially about the chapter on fundamental rights.
- See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constitution_of_India
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- The validity of a law passed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Once a law is enacted and included in the Ninth Schedule, it gets protection under Article 31-B (validation of certain Acts and Regulations) and is not subject to judicial scrutiny.
- The Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) was introduced by the former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to keep certain laws particularly those on land reforms beyond the scope of judicial review.
- Statement 2: The mandate of ninth schedule is to prevent judicial scrutiny but in a landmark ruling in IR Coelho versus State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the Supreme Court of India ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution. The Supreme Court judgment laid that the laws placed under Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973. Shall be open to challenge in court if they violated fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 14, 19, 20 and 21 of the Constitution
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Once a law is enacted and included in the Ninth Schedule, it gets protection under Article 31-B (validation of certain Acts and Regulations) and is not subject to judicial scrutiny.
- The Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) was introduced by the former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to keep certain laws particularly those on land reforms beyond the scope of judicial review.
- Statement 2: The mandate of ninth schedule is to prevent judicial scrutiny but in a landmark ruling in IR Coelho versus State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the Supreme Court of India ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution. The Supreme Court judgment laid that the laws placed under Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973. Shall be open to challenge in court if they violated fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 14, 19, 20 and 21 of the Constitution
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about United Nations Human Rights Council:
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- It is a United Nations body whose mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world.
- The Council has 67 members elected for three-year terms on a regional group basis.
- The headquarters of the Council are at the United Nations Office at Geneva in Switzerland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) is a United Nations body whose mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world.
- The Council has 47 members elected for three-year terms on a regional group basis.
- The headquarters of the Council are at the United Nations Office at Geneva in Switzerland.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) is a United Nations body whose mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world.
- The Council has 47 members elected for three-year terms on a regional group basis.
- The headquarters of the Council are at the United Nations Office at Geneva in Switzerland.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to “Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act” (FCRA), consider the following statements:
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- The FCRA act is implemented by the Ministry of Finance.
- The FCRA requires every person or NGO wishing to receive foreign donations to be registered under the Act.
- To open a bank account for the receipt of foreign funds in State Bank of India, Delhi is mandatory.
- The receivers of foreign funds are also required to file annual returns, and they must not transfer the funds to another NGO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The FCRA requires every person or NGOwishing to receive foreign donations to be registered under the Act.
- To open a bank accountfor the receipt of foreign funds in State Bank of India, Delhi is mandatory.
- These funds can be utilised only for the purposefor which they have been received, and as stipulated in the Act.
- The receivers of foreign funds are also required to file annual returns, and they must not transfer the funds to another NGO.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The FCRA requires every person or NGOwishing to receive foreign donations to be registered under the Act.
- To open a bank accountfor the receipt of foreign funds in State Bank of India, Delhi is mandatory.
- These funds can be utilised only for the purposefor which they have been received, and as stipulated in the Act.
- The receivers of foreign funds are also required to file annual returns, and they must not transfer the funds to another NGO.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:
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- The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidies food grains.
- The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
- Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Coverage and entitlement under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS): Upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population will be covered under TPDS, with uniform entitlement of 5 kg per person per month. Not restricted to only BPL families.
- Statement 3: Pregnant women and lactating mothers and children in the age group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as per prescribed nutritional norms under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal (MDM) schemes.
- The nutritional and feeding norms for supplementary nutrition as prescribed by GOI are 500 calories and 12-15 grams of protein of children between the ages of 6 months to 6 years, 600 (not 1600) calories and 18-20 grams of protein to pregnant and nursing mothers and 800 calories and 20-25 gm. of protein to malnourished children.
- Statement 2: Eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Coverage and entitlement under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS): Upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population will be covered under TPDS, with uniform entitlement of 5 kg per person per month. Not restricted to only BPL families.
- Statement 3: Pregnant women and lactating mothers and children in the age group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as per prescribed nutritional norms under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal (MDM) schemes.
- The nutritional and feeding norms for supplementary nutrition as prescribed by GOI are 500 calories and 12-15 grams of protein of children between the ages of 6 months to 6 years, 600 (not 1600) calories and 18-20 grams of protein to pregnant and nursing mothers and 800 calories and 20-25 gm. of protein to malnourished children.
- Statement 2: Eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA):
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- It was created in 2018 under the Finance Act, 2016.
- It monitors the compliance and quality of auditing standards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- NFRA was created in 2018 under the Companies Act 2013 and recommends accounting and auditing policies to be adopted by companies. It also monitors the compliance and quality of auditing standards.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- NFRA was created in 2018 under the Companies Act 2013 and recommends accounting and auditing policies to be adopted by companies. It also monitors the compliance and quality of auditing standards.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsGlobal Offshore Wind Alliance (GOWA) initiated by the
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Nine new countries have joined the Global Offshore Wind Alliance (GOWA), pledging to a rapid ramp-up of offshore wind in order to tackle the climate and energy security crises.
- The alliance, initiated by the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), Denmark and the Global Wind Energy Council, will bring together governments, the private sector, international organisations and other stakeholders to accelerate the deployment of offshore wind power.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Nine new countries have joined the Global Offshore Wind Alliance (GOWA), pledging to a rapid ramp-up of offshore wind in order to tackle the climate and energy security crises.
- The alliance, initiated by the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), Denmark and the Global Wind Energy Council, will bring together governments, the private sector, international organisations and other stakeholders to accelerate the deployment of offshore wind power.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-november-2022/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate?
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- Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
- Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
- Methane in the atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- 1 and 2: Large but poorly known amounts of methane are trapped in the sediments beneath the sea floor frozen into a form of water ice called methane hydrate.
- At low temperatures the methane hydrates on the sea floor are stable, but if the water and the sea floor become warmer, then the hydrates can break down. Because microorganisms then oxidize the resulting methane gas to form the greenhouse gas carbon dioxide , methane hydrates have recently become a topic of intense discussion within the context of climate change. See https://worldoceanreview.com/en/wor-1/energy/methane-hydrates/
- 3: Methane is relatively short-lived in the atmosphere; a molecule of methane is oxidized to water and carbon dioxide within a decade or so, mainly by reaction with another trace gas, the hydroxyl radical OH-. Thus, unlike the case of carbon dioxide (which stays in the atmosphere longer than methane), a concerted effort to reduce methane emissions would have almost immediate results in terms of reduction of greenhouse effect. See http://earthguide.ucsd.edu/virtualmuseum/climatechange1/03_3.shtml
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- 1 and 2: Large but poorly known amounts of methane are trapped in the sediments beneath the sea floor frozen into a form of water ice called methane hydrate.
- At low temperatures the methane hydrates on the sea floor are stable, but if the water and the sea floor become warmer, then the hydrates can break down. Because microorganisms then oxidize the resulting methane gas to form the greenhouse gas carbon dioxide , methane hydrates have recently become a topic of intense discussion within the context of climate change. See https://worldoceanreview.com/en/wor-1/energy/methane-hydrates/
- 3: Methane is relatively short-lived in the atmosphere; a molecule of methane is oxidized to water and carbon dioxide within a decade or so, mainly by reaction with another trace gas, the hydroxyl radical OH-. Thus, unlike the case of carbon dioxide (which stays in the atmosphere longer than methane), a concerted effort to reduce methane emissions would have almost immediate results in terms of reduction of greenhouse effect. See http://earthguide.ucsd.edu/virtualmuseum/climatechange1/03_3.shtml
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