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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP).
- GRAP is a set of emergency measures to prevent further deterioration of air quality once it reaches a certain threshold.
- GRAP will be activated only when the Air Quality Index is in the ‘severe’ category.
- Measures under GRAP will be enforced by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) said on October 5 that measures under ‘Stage-1’ of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) will be enforced in the NCR with immediate effect.
- GRAP is a set of emergency measures that kick in to prevent further deterioration of air quality once it reaches a certain threshold. Stage 1 of GRAP is activated when the AQI is in the ‘poor’ category (201 to 300).
- The second, third and fourth stages will be activated three days ahead of the AQI reaching the ‘very poor’ category (301 to 400), ‘severe’ category (401 to 450) and ‘severe +’ category (above 450) respectively. For this, the CAQM is relying on air quality and meteorological forecasts by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) and the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
- Measures being imposed under the previous categories will continue even when the subsequent category is activated, that is, if measures under Stage-2 are activated, measures under Stage-1 will continue to remain in place.
- How is the GRAP different this year?
- The CAQM revised the Graded Response Action Plan earlier this year. The GRAP was first notified in January 2017 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. This was based on a plan that was submitted by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in November 2016. According to the notification, the task of implementing the GRAP fell on the now dissolved Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority for the NCR. From 2021 onwards, the GRAP is being implemented by the CAQM.
- In the version of the GRAP that was notified in 2017, measures kicked in after pollution concentrations reached a certain level. This year, measures are pre-emptive and will kick in based on forecasts in an attempt to prevent the AQI from deteriorating further. The older version of the GRAP was enforced based only on the concentration of PM2.5 and PM10. This year, GRAP is being enforced based on the AQI, which takes other pollutants also into account, such as ozone, sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/air-pollution-in-delhi-ncr/
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) said on October 5 that measures under ‘Stage-1’ of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) will be enforced in the NCR with immediate effect.
- GRAP is a set of emergency measures that kick in to prevent further deterioration of air quality once it reaches a certain threshold. Stage 1 of GRAP is activated when the AQI is in the ‘poor’ category (201 to 300).
- The second, third and fourth stages will be activated three days ahead of the AQI reaching the ‘very poor’ category (301 to 400), ‘severe’ category (401 to 450) and ‘severe +’ category (above 450) respectively. For this, the CAQM is relying on air quality and meteorological forecasts by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) and the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
- Measures being imposed under the previous categories will continue even when the subsequent category is activated, that is, if measures under Stage-2 are activated, measures under Stage-1 will continue to remain in place.
- How is the GRAP different this year?
- The CAQM revised the Graded Response Action Plan earlier this year. The GRAP was first notified in January 2017 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. This was based on a plan that was submitted by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in November 2016. According to the notification, the task of implementing the GRAP fell on the now dissolved Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority for the NCR. From 2021 onwards, the GRAP is being implemented by the CAQM.
- In the version of the GRAP that was notified in 2017, measures kicked in after pollution concentrations reached a certain level. This year, measures are pre-emptive and will kick in based on forecasts in an attempt to prevent the AQI from deteriorating further. The older version of the GRAP was enforced based only on the concentration of PM2.5 and PM10. This year, GRAP is being enforced based on the AQI, which takes other pollutants also into account, such as ozone, sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/air-pollution-in-delhi-ncr/
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR).
- Common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR) is the foundational principle of United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
- It was the first international legal instrument to address climate change and address negative impacts to global environment.
- It establishes that all states are responsible for addressing global environmental destruction yet not equally responsible.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- Common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR), principle of international environmental law establishing that all states are responsible for addressing global environmental destruction yet not equally responsible.
- It was the first international legal instrument to address climate change and the most comprehensive international attempt to address negative impacts to global environment.
- The foundational principle of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), which is common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR).
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- Common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR), principle of international environmental law establishing that all states are responsible for addressing global environmental destruction yet not equally responsible.
- It was the first international legal instrument to address climate change and the most comprehensive international attempt to address negative impacts to global environment.
- The foundational principle of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), which is common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR).
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsThe silent valley movement was related to?
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- Context: 125th birth anniversary of Edavalath Kakkat Janaki Ammal, a pioneering botanist and the first Indian woman to be awarded a PhD in the botanical sciences.
- Born in Thalassery in the Kannur district of Kerala in 1897, she worked on making several intergeneric and interspecific hybrids involving sugarcane and related grass species. These works were highly significant, as she is believed to have been responsible for creating sugarcane hybrids that yielded sweeter sugar.
- Her association with the Save the Silent Valley movement – a campaign to stop a hydroelectric project from flooding the Silent Valley forest in the Palakkad district of Kerala – was well-known.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- Context: 125th birth anniversary of Edavalath Kakkat Janaki Ammal, a pioneering botanist and the first Indian woman to be awarded a PhD in the botanical sciences.
- Born in Thalassery in the Kannur district of Kerala in 1897, she worked on making several intergeneric and interspecific hybrids involving sugarcane and related grass species. These works were highly significant, as she is believed to have been responsible for creating sugarcane hybrids that yielded sweeter sugar.
- Her association with the Save the Silent Valley movement – a campaign to stop a hydroelectric project from flooding the Silent Valley forest in the Palakkad district of Kerala – was well-known.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
- Fugdi – Goa
- Nati – Himachal Pradesh
- Dumhal – Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (d)
Explanation: Some major tribal/folk dances of India:
- Bagurumba, Bhortal Dance – Assam
- Bardo Chham – Arunachal Pradesh
- Raut Nacha – Chhattisgarh
- Fugdi – Goa
- Nati – Himachal Pradesh
- Ras Leela – Haryana
- Dumhal – Jammu and Kashmir
- Duffmuttu, Margamkali – Kerala
- Grida dance – Madhya Pradesh, etc.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
IncorrectAns: (d)
Explanation: Some major tribal/folk dances of India:
- Bagurumba, Bhortal Dance – Assam
- Bardo Chham – Arunachal Pradesh
- Raut Nacha – Chhattisgarh
- Fugdi – Goa
- Nati – Himachal Pradesh
- Ras Leela – Haryana
- Dumhal – Jammu and Kashmir
- Duffmuttu, Margamkali – Kerala
- Grida dance – Madhya Pradesh, etc.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the terms of the Office of the Governor.
- The Governor can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the Chief Minister of the State.
- The Constitution does not lay down the grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- The resignation letter is submitted to the President, and not the Chief Minister.
- A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President.
- The Supreme Court held that the pleasure of the President is not justifiable. The governor has no security of tenure and no fixed term of office. He may be removed by the President at any time without mentioning any grounds for his removal.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- The resignation letter is submitted to the President, and not the Chief Minister.
- A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President.
- The Supreme Court held that the pleasure of the President is not justifiable. The governor has no security of tenure and no fixed term of office. He may be removed by the President at any time without mentioning any grounds for his removal.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsThe Constitution lays down which of the following conditions for the governor’s office or selection to the Governor’s office?
- The Governor should not belong to the state where is appointed.
- The Governor’s appointment must be made after consulting the chief Minister of the state.
- A serving Governor cannot be a member of either House of Parliament or a House of the state legislature.
Select the correct answer code:
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- Article 157 and Article 158 of the Constitution of India specify eligibility requirements for the post of governor. They are as follows:
- A governor must:
- be a [citizen of India].
- be at least 35 years of age.
- not be a member of the either house of the parliament or house of the state legislature.
- not hold any office of profit.
- Additionally, two conventions have also developed over the years.
- First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed, so that he is free from the local politics.
- Second, while appointing the governor, the president is required to consult the chief minister of the state concerned, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured.
- However, both the conventions have been violated in some of the cases.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- Article 157 and Article 158 of the Constitution of India specify eligibility requirements for the post of governor. They are as follows:
- A governor must:
- be a [citizen of India].
- be at least 35 years of age.
- not be a member of the either house of the parliament or house of the state legislature.
- not hold any office of profit.
- Additionally, two conventions have also developed over the years.
- First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed, so that he is free from the local politics.
- Second, while appointing the governor, the president is required to consult the chief minister of the state concerned, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured.
- However, both the conventions have been violated in some of the cases.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Governor’s legislative powers.
- If a bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court, the Governor must reserve the bill for consideration of the President.
- If a bill sent by the Governor for the reconsideration of the State legislature is passed again without amendments, the Governor is under no constitutional obligation to give his assent to the bill.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- When a bill is sent to the governor after it is passed by state legislature, he can:
(a) Give his assent to the bill, or
(b) Withhold his assent to the bill, or
(c) Return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for reconsideration of the state legislature. However, if the bill is passed again by the state legislature with or without amendments, the governor has to give his assent to the bill, or
(d) Reserve the bill for the consideration of the president. In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is, where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court.
- Inaddition, the governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature:
(i) Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the Constitution.
(ii) Opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
(iii) Against the larger interest of the country.
(iv) Of grave national importance.
(v) Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
IncorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- When a bill is sent to the governor after it is passed by state legislature, he can:
(a) Give his assent to the bill, or
(b) Withhold his assent to the bill, or
(c) Return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for reconsideration of the state legislature. However, if the bill is passed again by the state legislature with or without amendments, the governor has to give his assent to the bill, or
(d) Reserve the bill for the consideration of the president. In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is, where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court.
- Inaddition, the governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature:
(i) Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the Constitution.
(ii) Opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
(iii) Against the larger interest of the country.
(iv) Of grave national importance.
(v) Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The governor is indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college, the same as the president.
- The office of governor of a state is considered as an employment under the Central government.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- The governor is neither directly elected by the people nor indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college as is the case with the president. He is appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal.
- As held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- The governor is neither directly elected by the people nor indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college as is the case with the president. He is appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal.
- As held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):
- EPFO is a statutory organization within the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India.
- It was established with the passage of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
- EPFO is responsible for regulating and managing provident funds in India, as well as managing social security agreements with other countries that have bilateral treaties with India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (d)
Explanation: About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):
- EPFO is a statutory organisation within the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India.
- It was established with the passage of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
- EPFO is responsible for regulating and managing provident funds in India, as well as managing social security agreements with other countries that have bilateral treaties with India.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
IncorrectAns: (d)
Explanation: About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):
- EPFO is a statutory organisation within the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India.
- It was established with the passage of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
- EPFO is responsible for regulating and managing provident funds in India, as well as managing social security agreements with other countries that have bilateral treaties with India.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation (NSFDC):
- It is a non-profit company.
- It sponsors skill/entrepreneurial training programmes to assist the unemployed members of scheduled castes in wage/self-employment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- It is a 1989 non-profit company with the aim to provide loans through its Channelizing Agencies at concessional interest rates for self-employment & economic development activities to scheduled caste groups. NSFDC also sponsors skill/entrepreneurial training programmes to assist the unemployed members of scheduled castes in wage/self-employment. Examples of loan schemes of NSFDC are- Mahila Samriddhi Yojana, Educational Loan Scheme, Stand-up India, Aajeevika Micro-Finance Yojana etc.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- It is a 1989 non-profit company with the aim to provide loans through its Channelizing Agencies at concessional interest rates for self-employment & economic development activities to scheduled caste groups. NSFDC also sponsors skill/entrepreneurial training programmes to assist the unemployed members of scheduled castes in wage/self-employment. Examples of loan schemes of NSFDC are- Mahila Samriddhi Yojana, Educational Loan Scheme, Stand-up India, Aajeevika Micro-Finance Yojana etc.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/05/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-05-november-2022/
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