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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsGwadar port is located in
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- CPEC is a sea-and-land based corridor started in 2013, with a collection of infrastructure projects (hydroelectric-nuclear projects, railways, highways, economic corridors) that are under construction throughout Pakistan.
- It is intended to link Kashgar in China’s Xinjiang province to Gwadar deep sea port close to Pakistan’s border with Iran.
- Originally valued at $47 billion, the value of CPEC projects is worth $62 billion as of 2020.
- In 2016, CPEC became partly operational, while some major power projects were commissioned by late 2017.
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- CPEC is a sea-and-land based corridor started in 2013, with a collection of infrastructure projects (hydroelectric-nuclear projects, railways, highways, economic corridors) that are under construction throughout Pakistan.
- It is intended to link Kashgar in China’s Xinjiang province to Gwadar deep sea port close to Pakistan’s border with Iran.
- Originally valued at $47 billion, the value of CPEC projects is worth $62 billion as of 2020.
- In 2016, CPEC became partly operational, while some major power projects were commissioned by late 2017.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
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- It is an eight-member multilateral political-economic-security organisation.
- It was established in 2001 in Shanghai, China by the leaders of China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan.
- In 2017, at the historic summit in Astana, India and Pakistan officially joined SCO as full- members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- It is an eight-member multilateral political-economic-security organisation, established in 2001 in Shanghai, China by the leaders of China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan.
- In 2017, at the historic summit in Astana, India and Pakistan officially joined SCO as full- members.
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- It is an eight-member multilateral political-economic-security organisation, established in 2001 in Shanghai, China by the leaders of China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan.
- In 2017, at the historic summit in Astana, India and Pakistan officially joined SCO as full- members.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Paris Agreement:
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- The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change.
- Its goal is to limit global warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change. It was adopted by 196 Parties at COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015 and entered into force on 4 November 2016.
- Its goal is to limit global warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.
- To achieve this long-term temperature goal, countries aim to reach global peaking of greenhouse gas emissions as soon as possible to achieve a climate neutral world by mid-century.
- The Paris Agreement is a landmark in the multilateral climate change process because, for the first time, a binding agreement brings all nations into a common cause to undertake ambitious efforts to combat climate change and adapt to its effects.
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change. It was adopted by 196 Parties at COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015 and entered into force on 4 November 2016.
- Its goal is to limit global warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.
- To achieve this long-term temperature goal, countries aim to reach global peaking of greenhouse gas emissions as soon as possible to achieve a climate neutral world by mid-century.
- The Paris Agreement is a landmark in the multilateral climate change process because, for the first time, a binding agreement brings all nations into a common cause to undertake ambitious efforts to combat climate change and adapt to its effects.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsThe Section 8 of the RP Act, 1951 was in news recently, it deals with which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Representation of the People Act, 1951 specifies the qualifications and the disqualifications of Members of Parliament and state legislatures. In particular, the first three subsections of Section 8 list various offences, and state that anyone who has been convicted of these offences is disqualified.
- Section 8 (3) of the Act states that if an MP or MLA is convicted for any other crime and is sent to jail for 2 years or more, he/ she will be disqualified for 6 years from the time of release.
- Even if a person is on bail after the conviction and his appeal is pending for disposal, he is disqualified from contesting an election.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Representation of the People Act, 1951 specifies the qualifications and the disqualifications of Members of Parliament and state legislatures. In particular, the first three subsections of Section 8 list various offences, and state that anyone who has been convicted of these offences is disqualified.
- Section 8 (3) of the Act states that if an MP or MLA is convicted for any other crime and is sent to jail for 2 years or more, he/ she will be disqualified for 6 years from the time of release.
- Even if a person is on bail after the conviction and his appeal is pending for disposal, he is disqualified from contesting an election.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsMeghalaya shares border with:
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- Assam
- West Bengal
- Manipur
- Arunachal Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointswith reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution,Consider the following statements:
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- It provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states.
- This special provision is provided under Article 244(2) and Article 275(1) of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- 6th Schedule: It provides for the administration of tribal areas in 4 northeastern states, namely Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The special status and administrative structure are created for protecting tribal culture which has led to demands from many State/UTs to be added to it.
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- 6th Schedule: It provides for the administration of tribal areas in 4 northeastern states, namely Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The special status and administrative structure are created for protecting tribal culture which has led to demands from many State/UTs to be added to it.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Constitution of India does not define the criteria for recognition of Scheduled Tribes.
- The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament of India to specify the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in various states and union territories.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: The Constitution does not define the criteria for recognition of Scheduled Tribes.
- However, Article 366(25) of the Constitution only provides process to define Scheduled Tribes: “Scheduled Tribes means such tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within such tribes or tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 to be Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of this Constitution.”
- Article 342(1): The President may with respect to any State or Union Territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor, by a public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or part of or groups within tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribe in relation to that State or Union Territory.
- S2: The Constitution empowers the President to specify the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in various states and union territories. Further, it permits Parliament to modify this list of notified STs.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: The Constitution does not define the criteria for recognition of Scheduled Tribes.
- However, Article 366(25) of the Constitution only provides process to define Scheduled Tribes: “Scheduled Tribes means such tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within such tribes or tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 to be Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of this Constitution.”
- Article 342(1): The President may with respect to any State or Union Territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor, by a public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or part of or groups within tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribe in relation to that State or Union Territory.
- S2: The Constitution empowers the President to specify the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in various states and union territories. Further, it permits Parliament to modify this list of notified STs.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following National parks are part of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve?
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- Mukurthi National Park
- Bandipur National Park
- Silent Valley National Park
- Eravikulam National Park
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is an International Biosphere Reserve in the Western Ghats and Nilgiri Hills ranges of South India. The Nilgiri Sub-Cluster is a part of the Western Ghats, which was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 2012. It includes the Aralam, Mudumalai,Mukurthi, Nagarhole, Bandipur and Silent Valley national parks, as well as the Wayanad and Sathyamangalam wildlife sanctuaries.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is an International Biosphere Reserve in the Western Ghats and Nilgiri Hills ranges of South India. The Nilgiri Sub-Cluster is a part of the Western Ghats, which was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 2012. It includes the Aralam, Mudumalai,Mukurthi, Nagarhole, Bandipur and Silent Valley national parks, as well as the Wayanad and Sathyamangalam wildlife sanctuaries.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to India’s Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, consider the following statements:
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- It was the first biosphere reserve in India established in the year 1975.
- It is located in the Western Ghats.
- It falls under the biogeographic region of the Malabar rain forest.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve in India established in the year 1986. It is located in the Western Ghats and includes 2 of the 10 biogeographical provinces of India.
- The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve falls under the biogeographic region of the Malabar rain forest. The Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Wyanaad Wildlife Sanctuary Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole National Park, Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley are the protected areas present within this reserve.
Incorrect
- Ranipur Tiger Reserve in Uttar Pradesh has become the 53rd tiger reserve in India. As of right now, the RWS in the Chitrakoot district has no tigers of its own
- The Ranipur Tiger Reserve in the Chitrakoot district is the fourth in the state.
- The other tiger reserves in Uttar Pradesh include Dudhwa, Pilibhit, and Amangarh (a buffer of Corbett Tiger Reserve).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/02/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-02-november-2022/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is an International Biosphere Reserve in the Western Ghats and Nilgiri Hills ranges of South India
- It includes the Aralam, Mudumalai, Mukurthi, Nagarhole, Bandipur and Silent Valley national parks, as well as the Wayanad, Karimpuzha, and Sathyamangalam wildlife sanctuaries.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is an International Biosphere Reserve in the Western Ghats and Nilgiri Hills ranges of South India
- It includes the Aralam, Mudumalai, Mukurthi, Nagarhole, Bandipur and Silent Valley national parks, as well as the Wayanad, Karimpuzha, and Sathyamangalam wildlife sanctuaries.
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