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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements the Chief of Defence Staff:
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- The Chief of Defence Staff is the supreme commander of the Armed Forces.
- The Chief heads the Department of Military Affairs.
- The CDS is vested with the authority to provide directives to the three chiefs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:What is CDS?
- He is the single-point military adviser to the government as suggested by the Kargil Review Committee in 1999.
- CDS oversees and coordinates the working of the three Services.
- Age limit: upper age limit for the CDS has been fixed at 65 years.
- He will function as the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister and also as the Permanent Chairman of, the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC).
- The CDS will be a member of the Defence Acquisition Council and Defence Planning Committee.
- The President of India is the supreme commander of the Armed Forces. The Chief of Defence is the military’s chief executive with operational and strategic authority over the defence forces and not its commander.
Refer:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/cds-must-proceed-with-caution/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:What is CDS?
- He is the single-point military adviser to the government as suggested by the Kargil Review Committee in 1999.
- CDS oversees and coordinates the working of the three Services.
- Age limit: upper age limit for the CDS has been fixed at 65 years.
- He will function as the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister and also as the Permanent Chairman of, the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC).
- The CDS will be a member of the Defence Acquisition Council and Defence Planning Committee.
- The President of India is the supreme commander of the Armed Forces. The Chief of Defence is the military’s chief executive with operational and strategic authority over the defence forces and not its commander.
Refer:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/cds-must-proceed-with-caution/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
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- The majority of the provisions in the Constitution need to be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.
- Amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority is not deemed as constitutional amendment under Article 368.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of the members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process). Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
- The majority of the provisions in the Constitution need to be amended by a special majority of the Parliament, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of each House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of each House present and voting.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of the members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process). Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
- The majority of the provisions in the Constitution need to be amended by a special majority of the Parliament, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of each House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of each House present and voting.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following directive principles of state policy was/were included by 42nd Amendment Act of 1976?
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- To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor
- To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries
- To protect monuments, places and objects of historic interest which are declared to be of national importance
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
- To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
- To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
- To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article
- 43 A).
- To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A)
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
- To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
- To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
- To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article
- 43 A).
- To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A)
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following elements is/are the basic structure of Indian Constitution?
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- Harmony between Union and State
- Freedom and dignity of the individual
- Free and fair elections
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- From the various judgements, the following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution or elements / components / ingredients of the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution:
- Supremacy of the Constitution
- Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
- Secular character of the Constitution
- Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
- Federal character of the Constitution
- Unity and integrity of the nation
- Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
- Judicial review
- Freedom and dignity of the individual
- Parliamentary system
- Rule of law
- Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
- Principle of equality
- Free and fair elections
- Independence of Judiciary
- Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
- Effective access to justice
- Principle of reasonableness
- Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32.
- Harmony between Union and State is not a part of basic structure of constitution.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- From the various judgements, the following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution or elements / components / ingredients of the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution:
- Supremacy of the Constitution
- Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
- Secular character of the Constitution
- Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
- Federal character of the Constitution
- Unity and integrity of the nation
- Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
- Judicial review
- Freedom and dignity of the individual
- Parliamentary system
- Rule of law
- Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
- Principle of equality
- Free and fair elections
- Independence of Judiciary
- Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
- Effective access to justice
- Principle of reasonableness
- Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32.
- Harmony between Union and State is not a part of basic structure of constitution.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the
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- The scheme was introduced as a social measure that guarantees “the right to work”.
- The local government will have to legally provide at least 100 days of wage employment in rural India to enhance their quality of life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The scheme was introduced as a social measure that guarantees “the right to work”.
- The local government will have to legally provide at least 100 days of wage employment in rural India to enhance their quality of life.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The scheme was introduced as a social measure that guarantees “the right to work”.
- The local government will have to legally provide at least 100 days of wage employment in rural India to enhance their quality of life.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsHARIT Aaykar is an initiative of
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Harit (Hariyali Achievement Resolution by Income Tax) Aaykar initiative
- Launched by: Central Board of Direct taxes
- Objectives: to increase the green cover by planting trees and creating micro-forests in and around Income Tax Department’s buildings and other public areas.
- Further, the Department would continue to welcome dignitaries at events and programmes organized by it, with potted plants or a single stalk of a flower.
- The first of such micro-forests has been inaugurated near the Attari border in Punjab.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Harit (Hariyali Achievement Resolution by Income Tax) Aaykar initiative
- Launched by: Central Board of Direct taxes
- Objectives: to increase the green cover by planting trees and creating micro-forests in and around Income Tax Department’s buildings and other public areas.
- Further, the Department would continue to welcome dignitaries at events and programmes organized by it, with potted plants or a single stalk of a flower.
- The first of such micro-forests has been inaugurated near the Attari border in Punjab.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Miyawaki technique.
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- Miyawaki technique allows for growing dense forests comprising native trees on small patches of land.
- In Miyawaki technique the tree growth is slower compared to the traditional afforestation method.
- They help lower temperatures in urban heat islands, reduce air and noise pollution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Miyawaki model to increase the green cover:
- Pioneered by Japanese botanist and ecologist Akira Miyawaki, the technique allows for growing dense forests comprising native trees on small patches of land. One of the ways this is done is by ensuring that tree growth is faster than traditional afforestation methods.
- They help lower temperatures in concrete heat islands, reduce air and noise pollution, attract local birds and insects, and create carbon sinks.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Miyawaki model to increase the green cover:
- Pioneered by Japanese botanist and ecologist Akira Miyawaki, the technique allows for growing dense forests comprising native trees on small patches of land. One of the ways this is done is by ensuring that tree growth is faster than traditional afforestation methods.
- They help lower temperatures in concrete heat islands, reduce air and noise pollution, attract local birds and insects, and create carbon sinks.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (e-NWR), consider the following statements:
-
- The negotiable warehouse receipt (NWR) system was launched in 2011 allowing the transfer of ownership of a commodity stored in a warehouse without having to deliver it physically.
- e-NWR’s are issued in negotiable form, making them eligible as collateral.
- The Reserve Bank of India regulates the entire operation under NWR.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (e-NWR):
- The negotiable warehouse receipt (NWR) system was launched in 2011 allowing the transfer of ownership of a commodity stored in a warehouse without having to deliver it physically.
- These receipts are issued in negotiable form, making them eligible as collateral.
- This has been enabled by enabling the financing of warehouse receipts through the Warehouse (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007.
- The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) regulates the entire operation under NWR.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (e-NWR):
- The negotiable warehouse receipt (NWR) system was launched in 2011 allowing the transfer of ownership of a commodity stored in a warehouse without having to deliver it physically.
- These receipts are issued in negotiable form, making them eligible as collateral.
- This has been enabled by enabling the financing of warehouse receipts through the Warehouse (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007.
- The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) regulates the entire operation under NWR.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
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- Vultures not only keep our environment free of carcasses but also help control disease outbreak.
- The main reason for the decline in the vulture population in India is the use of the drug, diclofenac.
- All states in India have setup vulture breeding centres under the Action Plan for Vulture Conservation for 2020-2025.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Vultures not only keep our environment free of carcasses but also help control disease outbreak.
- India has nine species of vultures. Many are critically endangered. The main reason for the decline in the vulture population is the use of the drug, diclofenac. Diclofenac, which relieves cattle of pain, is toxic to vultures even in small doses and causes kidney failure and death.
- India banned diclofenac for veterinary use in 2006. Five States are to get vulture breeding centres under the Action Plan for Vulture Conservation for 2020-2025.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Vultures not only keep our environment free of carcasses but also help control disease outbreak.
- India has nine species of vultures. Many are critically endangered. The main reason for the decline in the vulture population is the use of the drug, diclofenac. Diclofenac, which relieves cattle of pain, is toxic to vultures even in small doses and causes kidney failure and death.
- India banned diclofenac for veterinary use in 2006. Five States are to get vulture breeding centres under the Action Plan for Vulture Conservation for 2020-2025.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- World Cities Day is an annual United Nations observance day held on 31 October.
- The global observance, first held in 2014, is organized by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization in coordination with each year’s selected host city.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- World cities day:
- The United Nations General Assembly designated 31 October as World Cities Day and it was first celebrated in
- Objectives: to promote the international community’s interest in global urbanization,
- push forward cooperation among countries in meeting opportunities addressing challenges of urbanization and
- contributing to sustainable urban development around the world.
- Urban October was launched by UN-Habitat in 2014 to emphasize the world’s urban challenges and engage the international community towards the New Urban Agenda.
- World Cities Day brings Urban October to an end on 31 October each year.
- UN – Habitat
- The United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) is the United Nations agency for human settlements and sustainable urban development.
- It was established in 1978 as an outcome of the First UN Conference on Human Settlements and Sustainable Urban Development (Habitat I) held in Vancouver, Canada in 1976.
- It is mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
- It is a member of the United Nations Development Group.
- UN-Habitat reports to the United Nations General Assembly.
- It has its headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- World cities day:
- The United Nations General Assembly designated 31 October as World Cities Day and it was first celebrated in
- Objectives: to promote the international community’s interest in global urbanization,
- push forward cooperation among countries in meeting opportunities addressing challenges of urbanization and
- contributing to sustainable urban development around the world.
- Urban October was launched by UN-Habitat in 2014 to emphasize the world’s urban challenges and engage the international community towards the New Urban Agenda.
- World Cities Day brings Urban October to an end on 31 October each year.
- UN – Habitat
- The United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) is the United Nations agency for human settlements and sustainable urban development.
- It was established in 1978 as an outcome of the First UN Conference on Human Settlements and Sustainable Urban Development (Habitat I) held in Vancouver, Canada in 1976.
- It is mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
- It is a member of the United Nations Development Group.
- UN-Habitat reports to the United Nations General Assembly.
- It has its headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/11/01/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-01-november-2022/
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