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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ad hoc Judge of supreme court:
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- The President can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period.
- The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Ad hoc Judge: When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president. The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court. It is the duty of the judge so appointed to attend the sittings of the Supreme Court, in priority to other duties of his office. While so attending, he enjoys all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges (and discharges the duties) of a judge of the Supreme Court.
- Retired Judge: At any time, the chief justice of India can request a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a retired judge of a high court (who is duly qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court) to act as a judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only with the previous consent of the president and also of the person to be so appointed. Such a judge is entitled to such allowances as the president may determine. He will also enjoy all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of a judge of Supreme Court. But he will not otherwise be deemed to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/reforms-brought-by-cji-lalit-in-sc/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Ad hoc Judge: When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president. The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court. It is the duty of the judge so appointed to attend the sittings of the Supreme Court, in priority to other duties of his office. While so attending, he enjoys all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges (and discharges the duties) of a judge of the Supreme Court.
- Retired Judge: At any time, the chief justice of India can request a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a retired judge of a high court (who is duly qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court) to act as a judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only with the previous consent of the president and also of the person to be so appointed. Such a judge is entitled to such allowances as the president may determine. He will also enjoy all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of a judge of Supreme Court. But he will not otherwise be deemed to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/reforms-brought-by-cji-lalit-in-sc/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the Collegium.
- A distinguished jurist is eligible to become a judge of the Supreme Court with final approval of the President.
- To become a judge of the Supreme Court, the person should not exceed 65 years of age.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Who appoints judges to the SC?
- In exercise of the powers conferred by clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution of India, the appointments are made by the President of India.
- The names are recommended by the Collegium.
- Eligibility to become a Supreme Court judge:
- The norms relating to the eligibility has been envisaged in the Article 124 of the Indian Constitution.
- To become a judge of the Supreme court, an individual should be an Indian citizen.
- In terms of age, a person should not exceed 65 years of age.
- The person should serve as a judge of one high court or more (continuously), for at least five years or the person should be an advocate in the High court for at least 10 years or a distinguished jurist.
- Is the collegium’s recommendation final and binding?
- The collegium sends its final recommendation to the President of India for approval. The President can either accept it or reject it. In the case it is rejected, the recommendation comes back to the collegium. If the collegium reiterates its recommendation to the President, then he/she is bound by that recommendation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/reforms-brought-by-cji-lalit-in-sc/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Who appoints judges to the SC?
- In exercise of the powers conferred by clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution of India, the appointments are made by the President of India.
- The names are recommended by the Collegium.
- Eligibility to become a Supreme Court judge:
- The norms relating to the eligibility has been envisaged in the Article 124 of the Indian Constitution.
- To become a judge of the Supreme court, an individual should be an Indian citizen.
- In terms of age, a person should not exceed 65 years of age.
- The person should serve as a judge of one high court or more (continuously), for at least five years or the person should be an advocate in the High court for at least 10 years or a distinguished jurist.
- Is the collegium’s recommendation final and binding?
- The collegium sends its final recommendation to the President of India for approval. The President can either accept it or reject it. In the case it is rejected, the recommendation comes back to the collegium. If the collegium reiterates its recommendation to the President, then he/she is bound by that recommendation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/reforms-brought-by-cji-lalit-in-sc/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The speaker has the discretion to accept or reject the motion, so S1 is wrong.
- S2: Judges Inquiry Act, 1968, codifies the process for removal of judges.
- Judges can be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘proven misbehaviour or incapacity’.
- A judge can be removed only on an order from the President based on a motion passed by both Houses of Parliament.
- The Constitution does not mention the word ‘impeachment’, but the term is understood to refer to the process for removal of a SC/HC judge.
- S3:An impeachment motion requires signatures by 100 MPs, if submitted to the Lok Sabha Speaker, and 50 MPs, if submitted to the Rajya Sabha Chairman.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/reforms-brought-by-cji-lalit-in-sc/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The speaker has the discretion to accept or reject the motion, so S1 is wrong.
- S2: Judges Inquiry Act, 1968, codifies the process for removal of judges.
- Judges can be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘proven misbehaviour or incapacity’.
- A judge can be removed only on an order from the President based on a motion passed by both Houses of Parliament.
- The Constitution does not mention the word ‘impeachment’, but the term is understood to refer to the process for removal of a SC/HC judge.
- S3:An impeachment motion requires signatures by 100 MPs, if submitted to the Lok Sabha Speaker, and 50 MPs, if submitted to the Rajya Sabha Chairman.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/reforms-brought-by-cji-lalit-in-sc/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding UN peacekeeping forces.
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- According to UN Charter every Member State is legally obligated to pay their respective share for peacekeeping.
- Peacekeeping forces are contributed by UN member states on a mandatory basis.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- United Nations Peacekeeping is a joint effort between the Department of Peace Operations and the Department of Operational Support. Every peacekeeping mission is authorized by the Security Council.
- The financial resources of UN Peacekeeping operations are the collective responsibility of UN Member States. According to UN Charter every Member State is legally obligated to pay their respective share for peacekeeping.
- UN peacekeepers (often referred to as Blue Berets or Blue Helmets because of their light blue berets or helmets) can include soldiers, police officers, and civilian personnel. Peacekeeping forces are contributed by member states on a voluntary basis.Civilian staff of peace operations are international civil servants, recruited and deployed by the UN Secretariat.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/fatalities-among-u-n-peacekeeping-forces-rising/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- United Nations Peacekeeping is a joint effort between the Department of Peace Operations and the Department of Operational Support. Every peacekeeping mission is authorized by the Security Council.
- The financial resources of UN Peacekeeping operations are the collective responsibility of UN Member States. According to UN Charter every Member State is legally obligated to pay their respective share for peacekeeping.
- UN peacekeepers (often referred to as Blue Berets or Blue Helmets because of their light blue berets or helmets) can include soldiers, police officers, and civilian personnel. Peacekeeping forces are contributed by member states on a voluntary basis.Civilian staff of peace operations are international civil servants, recruited and deployed by the UN Secretariat.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/fatalities-among-u-n-peacekeeping-forces-rising/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST):
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- It is a non-constitutional body set up by an act of parliament.
- While investigating any matter related to Scheduled Tribes, the commission shall have all the powers of a civil court.
- The commission submits its report to the Parliament annually on the working of safeguards and measures required for effective implementation of Programmers/ Schemes relating to welfare and socio-economic development of STs.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S3: The commission submits its report to the Presidentannually on the working of safeguards and measures required for effective implementation of Programmers/ Schemes relating to welfare and socio-economic development of STs.
- S2: Power of the Commission to act as a Civil Court
- While investigating any matter referred to in sub-clause (a) or inquiring into specific complaints under sub-clause (b) of the clause (5) of Article 338(A) of the Constitution, the Commission shall have the powers of a Civil Court trying a suit and in particular in respect of the following matters:
- Summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India and examining him on oath.
- Requiring the discovery and production of any document.
- Receiving evidence on affidavits.
- Requisitioning of any public record or copy thereof from any court of office.
- Issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses the documents.
- Any other matter which the President may, by rule, determine.
- S1: NCST was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003.
- While investigating any matter referred to in sub-clause (a) or inquiring into specific complaints under sub-clause (b) of the clause (5) of Article 338(A) of the Constitution, the Commission shall have the powers of a Civil Court trying a suit and in particular in respect of the following matters:
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-october-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S3: The commission submits its report to the Presidentannually on the working of safeguards and measures required for effective implementation of Programmers/ Schemes relating to welfare and socio-economic development of STs.
- S2: Power of the Commission to act as a Civil Court
- While investigating any matter referred to in sub-clause (a) or inquiring into specific complaints under sub-clause (b) of the clause (5) of Article 338(A) of the Constitution, the Commission shall have the powers of a Civil Court trying a suit and in particular in respect of the following matters:
- Summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India and examining him on oath.
- Requiring the discovery and production of any document.
- Receiving evidence on affidavits.
- Requisitioning of any public record or copy thereof from any court of office.
- Issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses the documents.
- Any other matter which the President may, by rule, determine.
- S1: NCST was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003.
- While investigating any matter referred to in sub-clause (a) or inquiring into specific complaints under sub-clause (b) of the clause (5) of Article 338(A) of the Constitution, the Commission shall have the powers of a Civil Court trying a suit and in particular in respect of the following matters:
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-october-2022/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsFood and Agriculture Organization (FAO) is associated with which of the following reports and programmes?
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- Codex Alimentarius Commission
- International Plant Protection Convention
- Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS)
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Important reports and Programmes of FAO (Have a brief overview):
- Global Report on Food Crises.
- Every two years, FAO publishes the State of the World’s Forests.
- FAO and the World Health Organization created the Codex Alimentarius Commission in 1961 to develop food standards, guidelines and texts.
- In 1996, FAO organized the World Food Summit. The Summit concluded with the signing of the Rome Declaration, which established the goal of halving the number of people who suffer from hunger by the year 2015.
- In 2004 the Right to Food Guidelines were adopted, offering guidance to states on how to implement their obligations on the right to food.
- FAO created the International Plant Protection Convention or IPPC in 1952.
- FAO is depositary of the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture, also called Plant Treaty, Seed Treaty or ITPGRFA, entered into force on 29 June 2004.
- The Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) Partnership Initiative was conceptualized in 2002 during World Summit on Sustainable Development in Johannesburg, South Africa.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-october-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Important reports and Programmes of FAO (Have a brief overview):
- Global Report on Food Crises.
- Every two years, FAO publishes the State of the World’s Forests.
- FAO and the World Health Organization created the Codex Alimentarius Commission in 1961 to develop food standards, guidelines and texts.
- In 1996, FAO organized the World Food Summit. The Summit concluded with the signing of the Rome Declaration, which established the goal of halving the number of people who suffer from hunger by the year 2015.
- In 2004 the Right to Food Guidelines were adopted, offering guidance to states on how to implement their obligations on the right to food.
- FAO created the International Plant Protection Convention or IPPC in 1952.
- FAO is depositary of the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture, also called Plant Treaty, Seed Treaty or ITPGRFA, entered into force on 29 June 2004.
- The Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) Partnership Initiative was conceptualized in 2002 during World Summit on Sustainable Development in Johannesburg, South Africa.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-october-2022/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Block Chain Technology
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- It is a time-stamped series of immutable record of data that is managed by cluster of computers not owned by any single entity.
- The blockchain network has no central authority.
- It carries no transaction cost.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- A blockchain is, in the simplest of terms, a time-stamped series of immutable record of data that is managed by cluster of computers not owned by any single entity. Each of these blocks of data (i.e. block) are secured and bound to each other using cryptographic principles (i.e. chain). The blockchain network has no central authority — it is the very definition of a democratized system. Since it is a shared and immutable ledger, the information in it is open for anyone and everyone to see. A blockchain carries no transaction cost. (An infrastructure cost yes, but no transaction cost.)
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-october-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- A blockchain is, in the simplest of terms, a time-stamped series of immutable record of data that is managed by cluster of computers not owned by any single entity. Each of these blocks of data (i.e. block) are secured and bound to each other using cryptographic principles (i.e. chain). The blockchain network has no central authority — it is the very definition of a democratized system. Since it is a shared and immutable ledger, the information in it is open for anyone and everyone to see. A blockchain carries no transaction cost. (An infrastructure cost yes, but no transaction cost.)
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-october-2022/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- All crypto-currencies are based on Blockchain technology.
- Altcoins refer to a class of alternative crypto-currencies that were launched after the success of Bitcoin.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Not all crypto-currencies are based on Blockchain technology. For instance, ‘IOTA’ is one such crypto-currency. Instead of a blockchain, IOTA uses a mathematical ‘tangle’.
- Altcoins are the alternative cryptocurrencies launched after the success of Bitcoin. Generally, they project themselves as better substitutes to Bitcoin.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-october-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Not all crypto-currencies are based on Blockchain technology. For instance, ‘IOTA’ is one such crypto-currency. Instead of a blockchain, IOTA uses a mathematical ‘tangle’.
- Altcoins are the alternative cryptocurrencies launched after the success of Bitcoin. Generally, they project themselves as better substitutes to Bitcoin.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-october-2022/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statement about the Crimea peninsula:
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- It is a region in the Caucasus, officially part of Russia.
- It is located on the northern coast of the Black Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: The Caucasus, is a region between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea; mainly comprising Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, and parts of Southern Russia.
- S2: Crimea is located on the northern coast of the Black Sea and on the western coast of the Sea of Azov; the only land border is shared with Ukraine’s Kherson Oblast on the north.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-october-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: The Caucasus, is a region between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea; mainly comprising Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, and parts of Southern Russia.
- S2: Crimea is located on the northern coast of the Black Sea and on the western coast of the Sea of Azov; the only land border is shared with Ukraine’s Kherson Oblast on the north.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/10/10/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-10-october-2022/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs
Famous place River
- Pandharpur Chandrabhaga
- Tiruchirappalli Cauvery
- Hampi Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Bhima River is a major river in Western India and South India. The river is also referred to as Chandrabhaga River, especially at Pandharpur, as it resembles the shape of the Moon.
- Hampi is situated on the banks of the Tungabhadra River in the eastern part of central Karnataka.
- The two major rivers draining Tiruchirappalli are the Kaveri and its tributary the Kollidam
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Bhima River is a major river in Western India and South India. The river is also referred to as Chandrabhaga River, especially at Pandharpur, as it resembles the shape of the Moon.
- Hampi is situated on the banks of the Tungabhadra River in the eastern part of central Karnataka.
- The two major rivers draining Tiruchirappalli are the Kaveri and its tributary the Kollidam
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019
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