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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Over-the-top media service, consider the following statements:
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- It is a media service offered directly to viewers via the Internet.
- In India, the new rules require OTT platforms to set up a robust three-tier grievance redressal mechanism.
- The Electronic Media Monitoring Centre (EMMC) under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, monitors the content telecast on OTT platforms.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: An over-the-top (OTT) media service is a media service offered directly to viewers via the Internet. OTT bypasses cable, broadcast, and satellite television platforms, the types of companies that traditionally act as controllers or distributors of such content.
- S2: the MIB notified the Information Technology (Guidelines for Intermediaries and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021 (Rules).
- The new rules require OTT platforms to set up a robust three-tier grievance redressal mechanism.
- The first level will comprise regulation by the OTT Platform itself through a grievance officer.
- The second level will be an institutional self-regulatory body formed by publishers of content and their associations. This self-regulatory body will comprise industry experts headed by a retired Supreme Court/ High Court judge /eminent personality in the relevant field.
- At the third level is an inter-department committee constituted by the MIB that will provide oversight and hear appeals for decisions taken at level two or if a complaint is referred to the inter-department committee by MIB.
- S3: Electronic Media Monitoring Centre (EMMC) is a subordinate office under the Indian Ministry of Information and Broadcasting tasked to monitor content of television channels (not OTT) and report on violations of the programme and advertising code.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/the-draft-telecommunication-bill-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: An over-the-top (OTT) media service is a media service offered directly to viewers via the Internet. OTT bypasses cable, broadcast, and satellite television platforms, the types of companies that traditionally act as controllers or distributors of such content.
- S2: the MIB notified the Information Technology (Guidelines for Intermediaries and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021 (Rules).
- The new rules require OTT platforms to set up a robust three-tier grievance redressal mechanism.
- The first level will comprise regulation by the OTT Platform itself through a grievance officer.
- The second level will be an institutional self-regulatory body formed by publishers of content and their associations. This self-regulatory body will comprise industry experts headed by a retired Supreme Court/ High Court judge /eminent personality in the relevant field.
- At the third level is an inter-department committee constituted by the MIB that will provide oversight and hear appeals for decisions taken at level two or if a complaint is referred to the inter-department committee by MIB.
- S3: Electronic Media Monitoring Centre (EMMC) is a subordinate office under the Indian Ministry of Information and Broadcasting tasked to monitor content of television channels (not OTT) and report on violations of the programme and advertising code.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/the-draft-telecommunication-bill-2022/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following became the first state in the India to start an encyclopedia on tribal communities to document their age-old and unique traditions?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Odisha became the first state in the country to start an encyclopedia on tribal communities to document their age-old and unique traditions.
- Unveiled by chief minister Naveen Patnaik, the five edited volumes of ‘Encyclopedia of Tribes in Odisha’ has 418 research articles on the tribals, including 13 particularly vulnerable groups
- The encyclopaedia was published by Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Research and Training Institute (SCSTRTI) and Odisha State Tribal Museum.
- The purpose of this book is to preserve the rapidly changing cultural identity of tribal communities in the state. It brings together both published and unpublished data regarding the tribes’ ethnography and development over the years, covering their past as well as the present.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Odisha became the first state in the country to start an encyclopedia on tribal communities to document their age-old and unique traditions.
- Unveiled by chief minister Naveen Patnaik, the five edited volumes of ‘Encyclopedia of Tribes in Odisha’ has 418 research articles on the tribals, including 13 particularly vulnerable groups
- The encyclopaedia was published by Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Research and Training Institute (SCSTRTI) and Odisha State Tribal Museum.
- The purpose of this book is to preserve the rapidly changing cultural identity of tribal communities in the state. It brings together both published and unpublished data regarding the tribes’ ethnography and development over the years, covering their past as well as the present.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Electoral Bonds:
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- An electoral bond is like a promissory note that can be bought by any Indian citizen or company incorporated in India.
- The electoral bonds are available for purchase for 10 days in the beginning of every year.
- The electoral bonds will not bear the name of the donor.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation: What are electoral bonds?
- S1 and S2: : Electoral Bond is a financial instrument for making donations to political parties. The bonds are available for purchase by any person (who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India) for a period of ten days each in the months of January, April, July and October as may be specified by the Central Government.
- The bonds are issued in multiples of Rs. 1,000, Rs. 10,000, Rs. 1 lakh, Rs. 10 lakh and Rs. 1 crore without any maximum limit.
- State Bank of India is authorised to issue and encash these bonds, which are valid for fifteen days from the date of issuance.
- These bonds are redeemable in the designated account of a registered political party.
- A person being an individual can buy bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals.
- S3: Donor’s name is not mentioned on the bond.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation: What are electoral bonds?
- S1 and S2: : Electoral Bond is a financial instrument for making donations to political parties. The bonds are available for purchase by any person (who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India) for a period of ten days each in the months of January, April, July and October as may be specified by the Central Government.
- The bonds are issued in multiples of Rs. 1,000, Rs. 10,000, Rs. 1 lakh, Rs. 10 lakh and Rs. 1 crore without any maximum limit.
- State Bank of India is authorised to issue and encash these bonds, which are valid for fifteen days from the date of issuance.
- These bonds are redeemable in the designated account of a registered political party.
- A person being an individual can buy bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals.
- S3: Donor’s name is not mentioned on the bond.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Electoral Bonds:
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- The electoral bonds were introduced with the Finance Bill, 2016.
- The bonds are interest-free bearer instruments used to donate money anonymously to political parties.
- The State Bank of India (SBI) is the only bank authorised to sell them.
- SBI deposits bonds that a political party hasn’t enchased within 15 days into the Prime Minister’s CARES Fund.
Which of the given above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: here the directive word is incorrect!!
- S1: The electoral bonds were introduced with the Finance Bill, 2017.
- S4: SBI deposits bonds that a political party hasn’t enchased within 15 days into the Prime Minister’s Relief Fund.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: here the directive word is incorrect!!
- S1: The electoral bonds were introduced with the Finance Bill, 2017.
- S4: SBI deposits bonds that a political party hasn’t enchased within 15 days into the Prime Minister’s Relief Fund.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsGlobal Innovation Index is released by
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- India rose to 40th among 132 countries in the Global Innovation Index 2022, jumping six places from a year ago, according to the rankings released by the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO).
- Reasons: Improvement in information and communication technologies (ICT) services exports, venture capital recipients’ value as well as finance for start-ups.
- Switzerland, the US, Sweden, the UK and the Netherlands are the world’s most innovative economies, with China on the threshold of the top 10.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- India rose to 40th among 132 countries in the Global Innovation Index 2022, jumping six places from a year ago, according to the rankings released by the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO).
- Reasons: Improvement in information and communication technologies (ICT) services exports, venture capital recipients’ value as well as finance for start-ups.
- Switzerland, the US, Sweden, the UK and the Netherlands are the world’s most innovative economies, with China on the threshold of the top 10.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Amendment Act, 2021?
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- The Act increases the gestation period of women seeking abortion up from 20 weeks to 24 weeks.
- It prohibit unmarried women who are between 20 weeks and 24 weeks pregnant to terminate the pregnancy.
- It allows abortion to be done on the advice of one doctor up to 20 weeks, and two doctors in the case of certain special categories of women between 20 and 24 weeks.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- In a historic judgment, the Supreme Court allowed unmarried and single women whose pregnancies are between 20 and 24 weeks to access safe and legal abortion care on par with their married counterparts.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- In a historic judgment, the Supreme Court allowed unmarried and single women whose pregnancies are between 20 and 24 weeks to access safe and legal abortion care on par with their married counterparts.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following countries:
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- Hungary
- Poland
- Slovakia
- Romania
- Estonia
Which of the above have borders with Ukraine?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Ukraine shares border with how many European Union Member states? Notes: Ukraine shares borders with four European Union (EU) member states namely Hungary, Poland, Slovakia (West) and Romania (South). It shares border with Russia to the east and north-east.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Ukraine shares border with how many European Union Member states? Notes: Ukraine shares borders with four European Union (EU) member states namely Hungary, Poland, Slovakia (West) and Romania (South). It shares border with Russia to the east and north-east.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to “Hydrogen-enriched compressed natural gas” (HCNG), consider the following statements:
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- It reduces emissions of CO up to 70%.
- Its cost is less than CNG.
- It enables up to 5 % savings in fuel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Advantages of HCNG:
- HCNG reduces emissions of CO up to 70%.
- Enables up to 5 % savings in fuel.
- First step towards future Hydrogen economy.
- Engines can be calibrated to release lower amounts of NO.
- Engines need minimum modification to run on HCNG.
- Ideal fuel for high load applications and heavy-duty vehicles.
- Better performance due to higher Octane rating of H2.
- Disadvantages of using HCNG:
- Determining the most optimized H2/ NG (Natural Gas) ratio.
- It requires new infrastructures for preparing HCNG.
- Many steps need to be taken for commercializing it at a large scale.
- Current cost of H2 is more than the cost of Natural Gas. So, HCNG’s cost is more than CNG.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Advantages of HCNG:
- HCNG reduces emissions of CO up to 70%.
- Enables up to 5 % savings in fuel.
- First step towards future Hydrogen economy.
- Engines can be calibrated to release lower amounts of NO.
- Engines need minimum modification to run on HCNG.
- Ideal fuel for high load applications and heavy-duty vehicles.
- Better performance due to higher Octane rating of H2.
- Disadvantages of using HCNG:
- Determining the most optimized H2/ NG (Natural Gas) ratio.
- It requires new infrastructures for preparing HCNG.
- Many steps need to be taken for commercializing it at a large scale.
- Current cost of H2 is more than the cost of Natural Gas. So, HCNG’s cost is more than CNG.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA):
-
- It is India’s apex statutory body for disaster management.
- The Prime Minister is its chairperson and it has nine other members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is India’s apex statutory body for disaster management.
- The Prime Minister is its chairperson and it has nine other members. One of the nine members is designated as Vice-Chairperson.
- The primary responsibility for the management of disaster rests with the State Government concerned. However, the National Policy on Disaster Management puts in place an enabling environment for all i.e., the Centre, state and district.
- India is also a signatory to the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (SFDRR) that sets targets for disaster management.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is India’s apex statutory body for disaster management.
- The Prime Minister is its chairperson and it has nine other members. One of the nine members is designated as Vice-Chairperson.
- The primary responsibility for the management of disaster rests with the State Government concerned. However, the National Policy on Disaster Management puts in place an enabling environment for all i.e., the Centre, state and district.
- India is also a signatory to the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (SFDRR) that sets targets for disaster management.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsOperation Garuda is an initiative of
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Central Bureau of Investigation has launched a multi-phase ‘Operation Garuda’ against illicit drug trafficking network, registering 127 new cases, arresting 175 people and seizing huge quantities of narcotic drugs.
- A CBI release said the operation seeks to disrupt, degrade and dismantle drug networks with international linkages through rapid exchange of criminal intelligence on drug trafficking and coordinated law enforcement actions across international jurisdiction through Interpol.
- This global operation was initiated in close coordination with Interpol and Narcotics Control Bureau, for combating the smuggling of illicit drugs and psychotropic substances, with special focus on Indian Ocean region.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Central Bureau of Investigation has launched a multi-phase ‘Operation Garuda’ against illicit drug trafficking network, registering 127 new cases, arresting 175 people and seizing huge quantities of narcotic drugs.
- A CBI release said the operation seeks to disrupt, degrade and dismantle drug networks with international linkages through rapid exchange of criminal intelligence on drug trafficking and coordinated law enforcement actions across international jurisdiction through Interpol.
- This global operation was initiated in close coordination with Interpol and Narcotics Control Bureau, for combating the smuggling of illicit drugs and psychotropic substances, with special focus on Indian Ocean region.
Refer: Fact for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/30/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-30-september-2022/
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