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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsRight to Access Justice is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- SC (Swapnil Tripathy case, 2018): Live telecast of court proceedings is part of the right to access justice under Article 21.
- https://www.livelaw.in/access-justice-fundamental-right-guaranteed-article-14-21-constitution-sc-constitution-bench/
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/live-streaming-of-sc-hearing/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- SC (Swapnil Tripathy case, 2018): Live telecast of court proceedings is part of the right to access justice under Article 21.
- https://www.livelaw.in/access-justice-fundamental-right-guaranteed-article-14-21-constitution-sc-constitution-bench/
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/live-streaming-of-sc-hearing/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsThe landmark judgment in Vineet Narain v. Union of India in 1997 laid out several steps to secure the autonomy of which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The landmark judgment in Vineet Narain v. Union of India in 1997 laid out several steps to secure the autonomy of CBI. Says Mr. Narain: “Limited autonomy was granted. Still the administrative and financial control wrests with the Ministry of Personnel, and thus the government can directly control CBI.”
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/freeing-the-caged-parrot/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The landmark judgment in Vineet Narain v. Union of India in 1997 laid out several steps to secure the autonomy of CBI. Says Mr. Narain: “Limited autonomy was granted. Still the administrative and financial control wrests with the Ministry of Personnel, and thus the government can directly control CBI.”
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/freeing-the-caged-parrot/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following elements is/are the basic structure of Indian Constitution?
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- Harmony between Union and State
- Freedom and dignity of the individual
- Free and fair elections
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- From the various judgements, the following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution or elements / components / ingredients of the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution:
- Supremacy of the Constitution
- Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
- Secular character of the Constitution
- Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
- Federal character of the Constitution
- Unity and integrity of the nation
- Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
- Judicial review
- Freedom and dignity of the individual
- Parliamentary system
- Rule of law
- Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
- Principle of equality
- Free and fair elections
- Independence of Judiciary
- Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
- Effective access to justice
- Principle of reasonableness
- Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32.
- Harmony between Union and State is not a part of basic structure of constitution.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- From the various judgements, the following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution or elements / components / ingredients of the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution:
- Supremacy of the Constitution
- Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
- Secular character of the Constitution
- Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
- Federal character of the Constitution
- Unity and integrity of the nation
- Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
- Judicial review
- Freedom and dignity of the individual
- Parliamentary system
- Rule of law
- Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
- Principle of equality
- Free and fair elections
- Independence of Judiciary
- Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
- Effective access to justice
- Principle of reasonableness
- Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32.
- Harmony between Union and State is not a part of basic structure of constitution.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) was established in 2002.
- The Information Technology Act, 2000 gave statutory status to the USOF.
- The USOF is headed by the USOF Administrator who reports to the Secretary, Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Universal Service Obligation Fund was established in 2002, with the main aim to provide universal telecom services and ensure that even the unconnected areas in the country reap the benefits of inclusive development.
- The Indian Telegraph (Amendment) Act, 2003 gave statutory status to the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF).
- The USOF is headed by the USOF Administrator who reports to the Secretary, Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Universal Service Obligation Fund was established in 2002, with the main aim to provide universal telecom services and ensure that even the unconnected areas in the country reap the benefits of inclusive development.
- The Indian Telegraph (Amendment) Act, 2003 gave statutory status to the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF).
- The USOF is headed by the USOF Administrator who reports to the Secretary, Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the PM CARES Fund.
- The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals only and does not get any budgetary support.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S2: The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals/organizations and does not get any budgetary support.
- S1: Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the PM CARES Fund and Minister of Defence, Minister of Home Affairs and Minister of Finance, Government of India are ex-officio Trustees of the Fund.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S2: The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals/organizations and does not get any budgetary support.
- S1: Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the PM CARES Fund and Minister of Defence, Minister of Home Affairs and Minister of Finance, Government of India are ex-officio Trustees of the Fund.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF).
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- SDRF was constituted based on the recommendations of the 14th Finance Commission.
- The Central Government contributes 50% to SDRF and the remaining 50% is provided from the State Government.
- A State Government may use the funds available under the SDRF for providing immediate relief to the victims of natural disasters that they consider to be ‘disasters’ within the local context in the State.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- SDRF has been constituted by each state under the provisions of Disaster Management act 2005.
- It was constituted based on the recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission.
- Funding: The Central Government contributes 75% of SDRF allocation for general category States/UTs and 90% for special category States/UTs.
- Heads: The state executive committee headed by the Chief Secretary is authorized to decide on all matters relating to the financing of the relief expenditure from the SDRF.
- Disaster (s) covered under SDRF: Cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloudburst, pest attack, frost and cold waves.
- Local Disaster: A State Government may use up to 10 percent of the funds available under the SDRF for providing immediate relief to the victims of natural disasters that they consider to be ‘disasters’ within the local context in the State and which are not included in the notified list of disasters of the Ministry of Home Affairs subject to the condition that the State Government has listed the State specific natural disasters and notified clear and transparent norms and guidelines for such disasters with the approval of the State Authority, i.e., the State Executive Authority (SEC).
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- SDRF has been constituted by each state under the provisions of Disaster Management act 2005.
- It was constituted based on the recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission.
- Funding: The Central Government contributes 75% of SDRF allocation for general category States/UTs and 90% for special category States/UTs.
- Heads: The state executive committee headed by the Chief Secretary is authorized to decide on all matters relating to the financing of the relief expenditure from the SDRF.
- Disaster (s) covered under SDRF: Cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloudburst, pest attack, frost and cold waves.
- Local Disaster: A State Government may use up to 10 percent of the funds available under the SDRF for providing immediate relief to the victims of natural disasters that they consider to be ‘disasters’ within the local context in the State and which are not included in the notified list of disasters of the Ministry of Home Affairs subject to the condition that the State Government has listed the State specific natural disasters and notified clear and transparent norms and guidelines for such disasters with the approval of the State Authority, i.e., the State Executive Authority (SEC).
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF).
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- NDRF is located in the “Public Accounts” of Government of India under “Reserve Funds not bearing interest”.
- The relief activities for all the calamities are monitored by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- NDRF amount can be spent only towards meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief and rehabilitation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- National Disaster Response Fund is defined in Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 (DM Act) as a fund managed by the Central Government for meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief and rehabilitation due to any threatening disaster situation or disaster. NDRF is constituted to supplement the funds of the State Disaster Response Funds (SDRF) of the states to facilitate immediate relief in case of calamities of a severe nature.
- The DM Act defines “disaster” to mean ‘a catastrophe, mishap, calamity or grave occurrence in any area, arising from natural or man-made causes, or by accident or negligence which results in substantial loss of life or human suffering or damage to, and destruction of, property, or damage to, or degradation of, environment, and is of such a nature or magnitude as to be beyond the coping capacity of the community of the affected area.’
- NDRF amount can be spent only towards meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief and rehabilitation.For projects exclusively for the purpose of mitigation, i.e, measures aimed at reducing the risk, impact or effect of a disaster or threatening disaster situation a separate fund called National Disaster Mitigation Fund has to be constituted.
- NDRF is located in the “Public Accounts” of Government of India under “Reserve Funds not bearing interest”.
- Department of Agriculture and Cooperation under Ministry of Agriculture (MoA) monitors relief activities for calamities associated with drought, hailstorms, pest attacks and cold wave /frost while rest of the natural calamities are monitored by Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- National Disaster Response Fund is defined in Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 (DM Act) as a fund managed by the Central Government for meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief and rehabilitation due to any threatening disaster situation or disaster. NDRF is constituted to supplement the funds of the State Disaster Response Funds (SDRF) of the states to facilitate immediate relief in case of calamities of a severe nature.
- The DM Act defines “disaster” to mean ‘a catastrophe, mishap, calamity or grave occurrence in any area, arising from natural or man-made causes, or by accident or negligence which results in substantial loss of life or human suffering or damage to, and destruction of, property, or damage to, or degradation of, environment, and is of such a nature or magnitude as to be beyond the coping capacity of the community of the affected area.’
- NDRF amount can be spent only towards meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief and rehabilitation.For projects exclusively for the purpose of mitigation, i.e, measures aimed at reducing the risk, impact or effect of a disaster or threatening disaster situation a separate fund called National Disaster Mitigation Fund has to be constituted.
- NDRF is located in the “Public Accounts” of Government of India under “Reserve Funds not bearing interest”.
- Department of Agriculture and Cooperation under Ministry of Agriculture (MoA) monitors relief activities for calamities associated with drought, hailstorms, pest attacks and cold wave /frost while rest of the natural calamities are monitored by Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana:
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- It is a central sector scheme.
- It aims to create modern infrastructure from farm gate to retail.
- It comes under the Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana ( it is a central sector schemeunder the Food processing Ministry) aims to create modern infrastructure from farm gate to retail
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana ( it is a central sector schemeunder the Food processing Ministry) aims to create modern infrastructure from farm gate to retail
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsBreakthrough Agenda (BA) was in news recently, is associated with:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Breakthrough Agenda is an unprecedented international clean technology plan to help keep 1.5°C in reach. It provides a framework for countries and businesses to join up and strengthen their actions every year.
- It has been released by the International Energy Agency, the International Renewable Energy Agency and the UN Climate Change High-Level Champions.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Breakthrough Agenda is an unprecedented international clean technology plan to help keep 1.5°C in reach. It provides a framework for countries and businesses to join up and strengthen their actions every year.
- It has been released by the International Energy Agency, the International Renewable Energy Agency and the UN Climate Change High-Level Champions.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements Tomistoma (Tomistoma schlegelii):
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- It is a crocodilian freshwater species native to South-East Asia.
- It is also called ‘False Gharial’.
- It is listed as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Increasing human intrusion into the habitat of Tomistoma (due to palm oil plantation, illegal gold mining and settlements) may be causing it to attack people in Indonesia, a new study has suggested.
- The Tomistoma (Tomistoma schlegelii) is a shy and reclusive species that typically retreat from areas with a high degree of human activity.
- It is a crocodilian freshwater speciesnative to South-East Asia.
- It is also called ‘False Gharial’.
- IUCN: Endangered
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Increasing human intrusion into the habitat of Tomistoma (due to palm oil plantation, illegal gold mining and settlements) may be causing it to attack people in Indonesia, a new study has suggested.
- The Tomistoma (Tomistoma schlegelii) is a shy and reclusive species that typically retreat from areas with a high degree of human activity.
- It is a crocodilian freshwater speciesnative to South-East Asia.
- It is also called ‘False Gharial’.
- IUCN: Endangered
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/23/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-23-september-2022/
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