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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Convention on the Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW), consider the following statements:
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- It is an international treaty adopted in 1979 by the United Nations General Assembly.
- The United States and India have signed, but not ratified the treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Convention on the Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) is an international treaty adopted in 1979 by the United Nations General Assembly.
- The United States and Palau have signed, but not ratified the treaty. The Holy See, Iran, Somalia, Sudan, and Tonga are not signatories to CEDAW.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/the-gender-pay-gap-hard-truths-and-actions-needed/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Convention on the Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) is an international treaty adopted in 1979 by the United Nations General Assembly.
- The United States and Palau have signed, but not ratified the treaty. The Holy See, Iran, Somalia, Sudan, and Tonga are not signatories to CEDAW.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/the-gender-pay-gap-hard-truths-and-actions-needed/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Constitution of India does not define the criteria for recognition of Scheduled Tribes.
- The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament of India to specify the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in various states and union territories.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: The Constitution does not define the criteria for recognition of Scheduled Tribes.
- However, Article 366(25) of the Constitution only provides process to define Scheduled Tribes: “Scheduled Tribes means such tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within such tribes or tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 to be Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of this Constitution.”
- Article 342(1):The President may with respect to any State or Union Territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor, by a public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or part of or groups within tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribe in relation to that State or Union Territory.
- S2: The Constitution empowers the Presidentto specify the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in various states and union territories. Further, it permits Parliament to modify this list of notified STs.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: The Constitution does not define the criteria for recognition of Scheduled Tribes.
- However, Article 366(25) of the Constitution only provides process to define Scheduled Tribes: “Scheduled Tribes means such tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within such tribes or tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 to be Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of this Constitution.”
- Article 342(1):The President may with respect to any State or Union Territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor, by a public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or part of or groups within tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribe in relation to that State or Union Territory.
- S2: The Constitution empowers the Presidentto specify the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in various states and union territories. Further, it permits Parliament to modify this list of notified STs.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Statements:
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- The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Manipur.
- Under fifth Schedule, Tribal Advisory council in the States having scheduled areas shall Consist of 20 Members.
- Under fifth Schedule, The Governor is empowered to declare an area to be a Scheduled Area.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram [Not Manipur].
- S2: According to fifth Schedule, Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribes advisory council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled It is to consist of 20 members, three-fourths of whom are to be the representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly.
- S3: Under fifth Schedule, The president [Not the Governor] is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram [Not Manipur].
- S2: According to fifth Schedule, Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribes advisory council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled It is to consist of 20 members, three-fourths of whom are to be the representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly.
- S3: Under fifth Schedule, The president [Not the Governor] is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsHe is the most celebrated of the Chola kings. He engaged in naval expeditions and emerged victorious on the West Coast, Sri Lanka and conquered the Maldives in the Indian Ocean and constructed a dam across the Kaveri River. He was
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Rajaraja I is the most celebrated of the Chola kings. He engaged in naval expeditions and emerged victorious on the West Coast, Sri Lanka and conquered the Maldives in the Indian Ocean.
- He defeated Cheras in the battle of Kandanur salai.
- He was also successful in the expedition of western and Eastern Chalukyas. He installed Shaktiverma on Vengi Throne.
- He constructed a dam across the Kaveri river.
- He was a devout follower of Saivism. He completed the construction of the famous Rajarajeswara temple or Brihadeeswara temple at Tanjore in 1010 A.D.
- His titles: Mummidi Chola, Jayankonda and Sivapadasekara.
- He abdicated his throne for his son Rajendra Chola 1.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Rajaraja I is the most celebrated of the Chola kings. He engaged in naval expeditions and emerged victorious on the West Coast, Sri Lanka and conquered the Maldives in the Indian Ocean.
- He defeated Cheras in the battle of Kandanur salai.
- He was also successful in the expedition of western and Eastern Chalukyas. He installed Shaktiverma on Vengi Throne.
- He constructed a dam across the Kaveri river.
- He was a devout follower of Saivism. He completed the construction of the famous Rajarajeswara temple or Brihadeeswara temple at Tanjore in 1010 A.D.
- His titles: Mummidi Chola, Jayankonda and Sivapadasekara.
- He abdicated his throne for his son Rajendra Chola 1.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-september-2022/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Great Living Chola Temples were built by kings of the Chola Empire, which stretched over all of south India and the neighbouring islands.
- The Temple of Gangaikondacholisvaram, built by Rajendra I, was completed in 1035.
- The Airavatesvara temple complex, built by Rajaraja II, at Darasuram features a 24-m vimana and a stone image of Vishnu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Great Living Chola Temples were built by kings of the Chola Empire, which stretched over all of south India and the neighbouring islands.
- The site includes three great 11th- and 12th-century Temples: the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur, the Brihadisvara Temple at Gangaikondacholisvaram and the Airavatesvara Temple at Darasuram.
- The Temple of Gangaikondacholisvaram, built by Rajendra I, was completed in 1035. Its 53-m vimana (sanctum tower) has recessed corners and a graceful upward curving movement, contrasting with the straight and severe tower at Thanjavur.
- The Airavatesvara temple complex, built by Rajaraja II, at Darasuramfeatures a 24-m vimana and a stone image of Shiva.
- The temples testify to the brilliant achievements of the Chola in architecture, sculpture, painting and bronze casting.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Great Living Chola Temples were built by kings of the Chola Empire, which stretched over all of south India and the neighbouring islands.
- The site includes three great 11th- and 12th-century Temples: the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur, the Brihadisvara Temple at Gangaikondacholisvaram and the Airavatesvara Temple at Darasuram.
- The Temple of Gangaikondacholisvaram, built by Rajendra I, was completed in 1035. Its 53-m vimana (sanctum tower) has recessed corners and a graceful upward curving movement, contrasting with the straight and severe tower at Thanjavur.
- The Airavatesvara temple complex, built by Rajaraja II, at Darasuramfeatures a 24-m vimana and a stone image of Shiva.
- The temples testify to the brilliant achievements of the Chola in architecture, sculpture, painting and bronze casting.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-september-2022/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsUNSC 1267 committee, sometimes mentioned in the news, is related to:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: UNSC 1267 committee:
- It comprises all permanentand non-permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).
- The 1267list of terrorists is a global list, with a UNSC stamp.
- Limit the movement of terrorists: It discusses UN efforts to limit the movement of terrorists, especially those related to travel bans, the freezing of assets and arms embargoes for terrorism.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: UNSC 1267 committee:
- It comprises all permanentand non-permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).
- The 1267list of terrorists is a global list, with a UNSC stamp.
- Limit the movement of terrorists: It discusses UN efforts to limit the movement of terrorists, especially those related to travel bans, the freezing of assets and arms embargoes for terrorism.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-september-2022/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsRegarding Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, which of the following statements is/are true?
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- FCRA is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for three years.
- The entities covered by the Act does not include an individual.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- FCRAregulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect the internal security of the country.
- The Act, first enacted in 1976 was amended in the year 2010 and then 2020.
- Section 5 of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 gives the Union government “unchecked and unbridled powers” to declare an organisation as being one of political nature and deny it access to funds from sources abroad.
- FCRA is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Applicability:
- The provisions of the Act apply to the territory of India, to citizens of India who may be outside India and to companies or their branches outside India that are registered or incorporated in India.
- The entities covered by the Act include an individual, a Hindu undivided family, an association, or a registered company.
- For how long is approval granted?
- Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for five years. NGOs are expected to apply for renewal within six months of the date of expiry of registration. In case of failure to apply for renewal, the registration is deemed to have expired, and the NGO is no longer entitled to receive foreign funds or utilise its existing funds without permission from the ministry.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- FCRAregulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect the internal security of the country.
- The Act, first enacted in 1976 was amended in the year 2010 and then 2020.
- Section 5 of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 gives the Union government “unchecked and unbridled powers” to declare an organisation as being one of political nature and deny it access to funds from sources abroad.
- FCRA is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Applicability:
- The provisions of the Act apply to the territory of India, to citizens of India who may be outside India and to companies or their branches outside India that are registered or incorporated in India.
- The entities covered by the Act include an individual, a Hindu undivided family, an association, or a registered company.
- For how long is approval granted?
- Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for five years. NGOs are expected to apply for renewal within six months of the date of expiry of registration. In case of failure to apply for renewal, the registration is deemed to have expired, and the NGO is no longer entitled to receive foreign funds or utilise its existing funds without permission from the ministry.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-september-2022/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsTechnical textiles are:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Technical textiles are defined as textile materials and products manufactured primarily for their technical performance and functional properties rather than aesthetic and decorative characteristics.
- Technical textiles include textiles for automotive applications, medical textiles, geotextiles, agrotextiles, and protective clothing.
- The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has approved the setting up of a National Technical Textiles Mission at an total outlay of ₹1,480 Crore.
- Aim: To position the country as a global leader in technical textiles and increase the use of technical textiles in the domestic market
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Technical textiles are defined as textile materials and products manufactured primarily for their technical performance and functional properties rather than aesthetic and decorative characteristics.
- Technical textiles include textiles for automotive applications, medical textiles, geotextiles, agrotextiles, and protective clothing.
- The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has approved the setting up of a National Technical Textiles Mission at an total outlay of ₹1,480 Crore.
- Aim: To position the country as a global leader in technical textiles and increase the use of technical textiles in the domestic market
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-september-2022/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is/are correct regarding ‘’KRITAGYA” Hackathon 2022?
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- It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
- It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.
- It is an initiative to promote use of technology in development and promotion of agriculture.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Indian Council of Agricultural Research with its National Agricultural Higher Education Project and Crop Science Division is organizing Hackathon 3.0 ‘’KRITAGYA” on promoting ‘speed breeding for crop improvement’.
- The definition of KRITAGYA is KRI for Krishi meaning Agriculture, TA for Taknik meaning Technology and GYA for Gyan meaning Knowledge.
- In this competition, students, faculty and innovators/entrepreneurs from any university/technical institutions across the country can apply and participate in the program as a group.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Indian Council of Agricultural Research with its National Agricultural Higher Education Project and Crop Science Division is organizing Hackathon 3.0 ‘’KRITAGYA” on promoting ‘speed breeding for crop improvement’.
- The definition of KRITAGYA is KRI for Krishi meaning Agriculture, TA for Taknik meaning Technology and GYA for Gyan meaning Knowledge.
- In this competition, students, faculty and innovators/entrepreneurs from any university/technical institutions across the country can apply and participate in the program as a group.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-september-2022/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Seed treaty:
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- It was adopted by FAO in 1975 and came into force in 1980.
- India is a party to it.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Seed treaty or also known as the International Treaty of Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA) is a major legally bindinginternational agreement to conserve, use and manage plant genetic resources.
- It was adopted by FAO in 2001 and came into force in 2004.
- Indiais a party to it.
- The Treaty aims at:
- Recognizes the contribution of farmers to the diversity of crops.
- Provides accessto plant genetic materials;
- Ensures sharing of the benefits.
- The treaty enables sharing of 64 of our most important cropsthrough an easily accessible global pool of genetic resources.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Seed treaty or also known as the International Treaty of Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA) is a major legally bindinginternational agreement to conserve, use and manage plant genetic resources.
- It was adopted by FAO in 2001 and came into force in 2004.
- Indiais a party to it.
- The Treaty aims at:
- Recognizes the contribution of farmers to the diversity of crops.
- Provides accessto plant genetic materials;
- Ensures sharing of the benefits.
- The treaty enables sharing of 64 of our most important cropsthrough an easily accessible global pool of genetic resources.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/19/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-september-2022/
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