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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
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- Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
- Abolition of untouchability
- Protection of the interests of minorities
- Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Abolition of untouchability comes under Right to Equality.
- Protection of the interests of minorities comes under Cultural and Educational Rights.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/modern-slavery/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Abolition of untouchability comes under Right to Equality.
- Protection of the interests of minorities comes under Cultural and Educational Rights.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/modern-slavery/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsThe Global Slavery Index published by the
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Global Slavery Index is a global study of modern slavery published by the Minderoo Foundation’s Walk Free
- ‘The Global Estimates of Modern Slavery’, a report published by the International Labour Organisation (ILO), International Organisation for Migration (IOM) and international human rights group Walk Free, said 50 million people were living in modern slavery in 2021.
Refer: : https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/modern-slavery/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Global Slavery Index is a global study of modern slavery published by the Minderoo Foundation’s Walk Free
- ‘The Global Estimates of Modern Slavery’, a report published by the International Labour Organisation (ILO), International Organisation for Migration (IOM) and international human rights group Walk Free, said 50 million people were living in modern slavery in 2021.
Refer: : https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/modern-slavery/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding landlord port model.
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- In the landlord port model, the publicly governed port authority acts as a regulatory body that carry out port operations—mainly cargo handling activities.
- Here, the port authority maintains ownership of the port.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- In the landlord port model, the publicly governed port authority acts as a regulatory body and as landlord while private companies carry out port operations—mainly cargo-handling activities.
- Here, the port authority maintains ownership of the port while the infrastructure is leased to private firms that provide and maintain their own superstructure and install own equipment to handle cargo.
- In return, the landlord port gets a share of the revenue from the private entity.
- The role of the landlord port authority would be to carry out all public sector services and operations such as the award of bids for cargo terminals and dredging
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/an-improved-bill-but-still-contentious/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- In the landlord port model, the publicly governed port authority acts as a regulatory body and as landlord while private companies carry out port operations—mainly cargo-handling activities.
- Here, the port authority maintains ownership of the port while the infrastructure is leased to private firms that provide and maintain their own superstructure and install own equipment to handle cargo.
- In return, the landlord port gets a share of the revenue from the private entity.
- The role of the landlord port authority would be to carry out all public sector services and operations such as the award of bids for cargo terminals and dredging
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/an-improved-bill-but-still-contentious/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding CRISPR–Cas9.
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- CRISPR technology allows to easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function.
- It can be used to correct sickle cell anemia, a genetic blood disorder.
- Gene editing system does not occur naturally in organisms.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Indian scientists have developed a new variant of currently popular gene editing tool, CRISPR-Cas9, and have shown that this variant can increase precision in editing genome while avoiding unintended changes in DNA.
- The researchers have also shown that this type of gene editing can be used to correct sickle cell anemia, a genetic blood disorder.
- By reprogramming and using a naturally occurring gene editing system – CRISPR-Cas9 – found in bacteria, scientists globally have been engaged in ‘editing’ genome of various organisms.
- CRISPR-Cas9 stands for ‘Clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats and CRISPR-associated protein 9.’ This protein can be programmed to go to a desired location in the genome and correct or edit defective strands (such as those involved in certain diseases) of DNA. The technology, when perfected, may be used to treat several genetic disorders.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Indian scientists have developed a new variant of currently popular gene editing tool, CRISPR-Cas9, and have shown that this variant can increase precision in editing genome while avoiding unintended changes in DNA.
- The researchers have also shown that this type of gene editing can be used to correct sickle cell anemia, a genetic blood disorder.
- By reprogramming and using a naturally occurring gene editing system – CRISPR-Cas9 – found in bacteria, scientists globally have been engaged in ‘editing’ genome of various organisms.
- CRISPR-Cas9 stands for ‘Clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats and CRISPR-associated protein 9.’ This protein can be programmed to go to a desired location in the genome and correct or edit defective strands (such as those involved in certain diseases) of DNA. The technology, when perfected, may be used to treat several genetic disorders.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCRISPR-based genetic engineering technology can be used in which of the following areas?
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- Restrain populations of mosquitoes that infect humans
- Enhancing crop production
- Improve the production of biofuels
- Live Imaging of DNA/mRNA
Select the correct answer code:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Leveraging advancements in CRISPR-based genetic engineering, researchers have created a system that restrains populations of mosquitoes that infect millions each yearwith debilitating diseases.
- Applications of CRISPR
- Using CRISPR for genome editing
- Using CRISPR libraries for screening
- CRISPR/Cas9-mediated chromatin immunoprecipitation
- Transcriptional activation and repression
- Epigenetic editing with CRISPR/Cas9
- Live imaging of DNA/mRNA
- Therapeutic Applications
- Enhancing crop production
- Fighting antimicrobial resistance
- Gene editing could improve the production of biofuelsby algae. Using CRISPR-Cas9, the strains of algae that produce twice as much fat can be created, which is then used to produce biodiesel.
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Leveraging advancements in CRISPR-based genetic engineering, researchers have created a system that restrains populations of mosquitoes that infect millions each yearwith debilitating diseases.
- Applications of CRISPR
- Using CRISPR for genome editing
- Using CRISPR libraries for screening
- CRISPR/Cas9-mediated chromatin immunoprecipitation
- Transcriptional activation and repression
- Epigenetic editing with CRISPR/Cas9
- Live imaging of DNA/mRNA
- Therapeutic Applications
- Enhancing crop production
- Fighting antimicrobial resistance
- Gene editing could improve the production of biofuelsby algae. Using CRISPR-Cas9, the strains of algae that produce twice as much fat can be created, which is then used to produce biodiesel.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsPrison Statistics in India report is released by which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- NCRB data are important to quote, but note down only important ones.
- Context: This is in continuation of other reports by NCRB released recently.
- Key findings of the report:
- Overcrowded Prisons:over 130% occupancy
- Undertrials: 77%
- SC/ST/OBC: over 67% of inmates belong to these communities.
- Highest number of undertrials:Uttar Pradesh> Bihar> MH
- Transgender: Most prisons don’t have separate facilities including in Delhi
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- NCRB data are important to quote, but note down only important ones.
- Context: This is in continuation of other reports by NCRB released recently.
- Key findings of the report:
- Overcrowded Prisons:over 130% occupancy
- Undertrials: 77%
- SC/ST/OBC: over 67% of inmates belong to these communities.
- Highest number of undertrials:Uttar Pradesh> Bihar> MH
- Transgender: Most prisons don’t have separate facilities including in Delhi
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-september-2022/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- A registered political party is accorded the status of a recognized state or national party as per the criteria listed in ‘The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968’.
- According to the Election Commission, any party seeking registration under the Election Commission has to submit an application to it within a period of 30 days following the date of its formation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: A registered political party is accorded the status of a recognized state or national party as per the criteria listed in ‘The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968’. This order was amended from time to time.
- S2: According to the Election Commission, any party seeking registration under the Election Commission has to submit an application to it within a period of 30 days following the date of its formation. o This is in keeping with the guidelines prescribed by the Commission in exercise of the powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: A registered political party is accorded the status of a recognized state or national party as per the criteria listed in ‘The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968’. This order was amended from time to time.
- S2: According to the Election Commission, any party seeking registration under the Election Commission has to submit an application to it within a period of 30 days following the date of its formation. o This is in keeping with the guidelines prescribed by the Commission in exercise of the powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-september-2022/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the key objectives of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) scheme?
- Generation of paid rural employment of not less than 100 days for each worker who volunteers for unskilled labour.
- Reduce urban migration from rural areas.
- Create rural infrastructure by using untapped rural labour.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The scheme was introduced in 2005 as a social measure that guarantees “the right to work”.
- The key tenet of this social measure and labour law is that the local government will have to legally provide at least 100 days of wage employment in rural India to enhance their quality of life.
- Key objectives:
- Generation of paid rural employment of not less than 100 days for each worker who volunteers for unskilled labour.
- Proactively ensuring social inclusion by strengthening the livelihood base of rural poor.
- Creation of durable assets in rural areas such as wells, ponds, roads and canals.
- Reduce urban migration from rural areas. o Create rural infrastructure by using untapped rural labour.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The scheme was introduced in 2005 as a social measure that guarantees “the right to work”.
- The key tenet of this social measure and labour law is that the local government will have to legally provide at least 100 days of wage employment in rural India to enhance their quality of life.
- Key objectives:
- Generation of paid rural employment of not less than 100 days for each worker who volunteers for unskilled labour.
- Proactively ensuring social inclusion by strengthening the livelihood base of rural poor.
- Creation of durable assets in rural areas such as wells, ponds, roads and canals.
- Reduce urban migration from rural areas. o Create rural infrastructure by using untapped rural labour.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-september-2022/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act” or MGNREGA, consider the following statements:
-
- It provides at least one hundred days of guaranteed wage employment in every financial year to every household whose male members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
- The scheme is implemented by Ministry of Labour and Employment.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Ministry of Rural Development has been implementing ‘The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005’ which provides at least one hundred days of guaranteed wage employment in every financial year to every household whose adult members (both male and female) volunteer to do unskilled manual work. The demand for work itself is influenced by various factors such as rain-fall pattern, availability of alternative and remunerative employment opportunities outside MGNREGA and prevailing unskilled wage rates.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Ministry of Rural Development has been implementing ‘The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005’ which provides at least one hundred days of guaranteed wage employment in every financial year to every household whose adult members (both male and female) volunteer to do unskilled manual work. The demand for work itself is influenced by various factors such as rain-fall pattern, availability of alternative and remunerative employment opportunities outside MGNREGA and prevailing unskilled wage rates.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-september-2022/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsThe Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015 with an emphasis on ‘Bottom –Up’ approach. Envisage the vision of Maximum Governance, Minimum Government, echoing the spirit of ‘Cooperative Federalism’.
- Composition:
- Chairperson: Prime Minister
- Vice-Chairperson: To be appointed by the Prime-Minister
- Governing Council: Chief Ministers of all states and Lt. Governors of Union Territories.
- Regional Council: To address specific regional issues, Comprising Chief Ministers and Lt. Governors Chaired by the Prime Minister or his nominee.
- Adhoc Membership: 2 membersin ex-officio capacity from leading Research institutions on a rotational basis.
- Ex-Officio membership:Maximum of four from the Union council of ministers to be nominated by the Prime minister.
- Chief Executive Officer:Appointed by Prime-minister for a fixed tenure, in the rank of Secretary to Government of India.
- Special Invitees:Experts, Specialists with domain knowledge nominated by the Prime-minister.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-september-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015 with an emphasis on ‘Bottom –Up’ approach. Envisage the vision of Maximum Governance, Minimum Government, echoing the spirit of ‘Cooperative Federalism’.
- Composition:
- Chairperson: Prime Minister
- Vice-Chairperson: To be appointed by the Prime-Minister
- Governing Council: Chief Ministers of all states and Lt. Governors of Union Territories.
- Regional Council: To address specific regional issues, Comprising Chief Ministers and Lt. Governors Chaired by the Prime Minister or his nominee.
- Adhoc Membership: 2 membersin ex-officio capacity from leading Research institutions on a rotational basis.
- Ex-Officio membership:Maximum of four from the Union council of ministers to be nominated by the Prime minister.
- Chief Executive Officer:Appointed by Prime-minister for a fixed tenure, in the rank of Secretary to Government of India.
- Special Invitees:Experts, Specialists with domain knowledge nominated by the Prime-minister.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/09/14/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-14-september-2022/
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