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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
- The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
- The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Since S3 is clearly incorrect, the answer must be A.
- According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can be barred from holding office of profit under Central Government or state government as it can put them in position to gain financial benefit.
- The Supreme Court held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid. See https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Supreme-Court-upholds-office-of-profit-law/article16876481.ece
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/26/disqualification-proceedings-under-office-of-profit/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Since S3 is clearly incorrect, the answer must be A.
- According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can be barred from holding office of profit under Central Government or state government as it can put them in position to gain financial benefit.
- The Supreme Court held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid. See https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Supreme-Court-upholds-office-of-profit-law/article16876481.ece
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/26/disqualification-proceedings-under-office-of-profit/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsFeni River flows through which of the following Indian state/states before entering the Bangladesh?
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- Tripura
- Mizoram
- Meghalaya
Select the correct answer using the code below
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Feni is a river in southeastern Bangladesh. It is a trans-boundary river with an ongoing dispute about water rights. The Feni River originates in South Tripura district and flows through Sabroom town and then enters Bangladesh.
- The question of sharing of the waters of the river between India and Pakistan was first discussed in 1958. Through at least 2006 the countries continued to consider possible compromises.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Feni is a river in southeastern Bangladesh. It is a trans-boundary river with an ongoing dispute about water rights. The Feni River originates in South Tripura district and flows through Sabroom town and then enters Bangladesh.
- The question of sharing of the waters of the river between India and Pakistan was first discussed in 1958. Through at least 2006 the countries continued to consider possible compromises.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsThe Farakka Barrage is built across which of the following river?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Ganga Water Treaty 1996:
- It is an agreement to share surface waters at the Farakka Barrage(on the river Ganga) near the mutual border between India and Bangladesh.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Ganga Water Treaty 1996:
- It is an agreement to share surface waters at the Farakka Barrage(on the river Ganga) near the mutual border between India and Bangladesh.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following Environmental conventions:
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- Basel Convention: Persistent Organic Pollutants.
- Rotterdam Convention: Prior Informed Consent Procedure for certain hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in international trade.
- Stockholm Convention: Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal.
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Basel, Rotterdam and Stockholm (BRS) Conventions are multilateral environmental agreements, which share the common objective of protecting human health and the environment from hazardous chemicals and wastes.
- (B) Basel Convention:
- The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal was created to protect people and the environment from the negative effects of the inappropriate management of hazardous wastes worldwide. It is the most comprehensive global treaty dealing with hazardous waste materials throughout their lifecycles, from production and transport to final use and disposal.
- (R) Rotterdam Convention:
- The Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for certain hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in international trade provides Parties with a first line of defence against hazardous chemicals. It promotes international efforts to protect human health and the environment as well as enabling countries to decide if they want to import hazardous chemicals and pesticides listed in the Convention.
- (S) Stockholm Convention:
- The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from highly dangerous, long-lasting chemicals by restricting and ultimately eliminating their production, use, trade, release and storage.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/26/government-notifies-battery-waste-management-rules-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Basel, Rotterdam and Stockholm (BRS) Conventions are multilateral environmental agreements, which share the common objective of protecting human health and the environment from hazardous chemicals and wastes.
- (B) Basel Convention:
- The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal was created to protect people and the environment from the negative effects of the inappropriate management of hazardous wastes worldwide. It is the most comprehensive global treaty dealing with hazardous waste materials throughout their lifecycles, from production and transport to final use and disposal.
- (R) Rotterdam Convention:
- The Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for certain hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in international trade provides Parties with a first line of defence against hazardous chemicals. It promotes international efforts to protect human health and the environment as well as enabling countries to decide if they want to import hazardous chemicals and pesticides listed in the Convention.
- (S) Stockholm Convention:
- The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from highly dangerous, long-lasting chemicals by restricting and ultimately eliminating their production, use, trade, release and storage.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/26/government-notifies-battery-waste-management-rules-2022/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 points“Protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance” is a provision made in the
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Art 49 [DPSP] of the Indian Constitution deals with protection of monuments and places of national importance.
- Anang Tal lake declared a monument of national importance
- It dates back to 1,060 AD. Anang Tal is situated to the north of Jog Maya temple and approximately 500 metres to the northwest of Qutub Complex. It was built by the 11th Century Tomar king Anang Pal Tomar.
- Monuments of National Importance: Under the Ancient Monument and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act,1958. The Central Government is authorised to maintain, protect and promote the monuments.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/26/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-august-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Art 49 [DPSP] of the Indian Constitution deals with protection of monuments and places of national importance.
- Anang Tal lake declared a monument of national importance
- It dates back to 1,060 AD. Anang Tal is situated to the north of Jog Maya temple and approximately 500 metres to the northwest of Qutub Complex. It was built by the 11th Century Tomar king Anang Pal Tomar.
- Monuments of National Importance: Under the Ancient Monument and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act,1958. The Central Government is authorised to maintain, protect and promote the monuments.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/26/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-august-2022/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Rajendra I:
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- Under his reign, the Chola Dynasty was expanded to its greatest extent, dominating trade throughout the Indian Ocean.
- He built the city of Gangaikondacholapuram and the Brihadisvara Temple.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Rajendra was one of the few Indian monarchs to conquer territory outside the Indian subcontinent. Under his reign, the Chola Dynasty was expanded to its greatest extent, dominating trade throughout the Indian Ocean.
- After his conquest of the Pala dynasty, Rajendra built the city of Gangaikondacholapuram, which he eventually made the capital of the Chola Empire.
- He built the Brihadisvara Temple and upgraded several others, such as the Koneswaram temple. Rajendra also built several Buddhist stupas across Southeast Asia and Southern India.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/26/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-august-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Rajendra was one of the few Indian monarchs to conquer territory outside the Indian subcontinent. Under his reign, the Chola Dynasty was expanded to its greatest extent, dominating trade throughout the Indian Ocean.
- After his conquest of the Pala dynasty, Rajendra built the city of Gangaikondacholapuram, which he eventually made the capital of the Chola Empire.
- He built the Brihadisvara Temple and upgraded several others, such as the Koneswaram temple. Rajendra also built several Buddhist stupas across Southeast Asia and Southern India.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/26/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-august-2022/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the e-Shram Portal:
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- It is a centralized database seeded with Aadhaar.
- It will be used for delivery of social security benefits as implemented by Central & State Ministries.
- Any worker who is unorganized and aged between 16-59, is eligible to register on the eSHRAM portal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: eSHRAM portal.
- It is a centralized database seeded with Aadhaar. It will be used for delivery of social security benefits as implemented by Central & State Ministries. It will also ensure portability of the social security and welfare benefits to the migrant and construction workers at their working places.
- Any worker who is unorganized and aged between 16-59, is eligible to register on the eSHRAM portal.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/26/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-august-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: eSHRAM portal.
- It is a centralized database seeded with Aadhaar. It will be used for delivery of social security benefits as implemented by Central & State Ministries. It will also ensure portability of the social security and welfare benefits to the migrant and construction workers at their working places.
- Any worker who is unorganized and aged between 16-59, is eligible to register on the eSHRAM portal.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/26/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-august-2022/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
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- The Anglo-Nepalese war ended with the Treaty of Sagauli.
- First Burma War ended with the Treaty of Yandabo.
- Second-Anglo Afghan War ended with the Treaty of Gandamak.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Anglo-Nepalese Relations
- The Gorkhas wrested control of Nepal from the successors of Ranjit Malla of Bhatgaon in 1760. They began to expand their dominion beyond the mountains. They found it easier to expand in the southern direction, as the north was well defended by the Chinese. In 1801, the English annexed Gorakhpur which brought the Gorkhas’ boundary and the Company’s boundary together. The conflict started due to the Gorkhas’ capture of Butwal and Sheoraj in the period of Lord Hastings (1813-23). The war, ended in the Treaty of Sagauli, 1816 which was in favour of the British.
- First Burma War (1824-26)
- The first war with Burma was fought when the Burmese expansion westwards and occupation of Arakan and Manipur, and the threat to Assam and the Brahmaputra Valley led to continuous friction along the ill-defined border between Bengal and Burma, in the opening decades of the nineteenth century. The British expeditionary forces occupied Rangoon in May 1824 and reached within 72 km of the capital at Ava. Peace was established in 1826 with the Treaty of Yandabo.
- Anglo-Afghan war
- The Treaty of Gandamak (May 1879) was signed with Yakub Khan, the eldest son of Sher Ali. Treaty of Gandamak (May 1879) The treaty signed after the Second-Anglo Afghan War.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/26/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-august-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Anglo-Nepalese Relations
- The Gorkhas wrested control of Nepal from the successors of Ranjit Malla of Bhatgaon in 1760. They began to expand their dominion beyond the mountains. They found it easier to expand in the southern direction, as the north was well defended by the Chinese. In 1801, the English annexed Gorakhpur which brought the Gorkhas’ boundary and the Company’s boundary together. The conflict started due to the Gorkhas’ capture of Butwal and Sheoraj in the period of Lord Hastings (1813-23). The war, ended in the Treaty of Sagauli, 1816 which was in favour of the British.
- First Burma War (1824-26)
- The first war with Burma was fought when the Burmese expansion westwards and occupation of Arakan and Manipur, and the threat to Assam and the Brahmaputra Valley led to continuous friction along the ill-defined border between Bengal and Burma, in the opening decades of the nineteenth century. The British expeditionary forces occupied Rangoon in May 1824 and reached within 72 km of the capital at Ava. Peace was established in 1826 with the Treaty of Yandabo.
- Anglo-Afghan war
- The Treaty of Gandamak (May 1879) was signed with Yakub Khan, the eldest son of Sher Ali. Treaty of Gandamak (May 1879) The treaty signed after the Second-Anglo Afghan War.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/26/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-august-2022/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- Sir William Jones worked under his administration.
- The new system of revenue – Permanent Settlement was initiated in his rule.
- He separated revenue and judicial functions of the Civil Servants.
The above given statements refers to which one of the following Governor General of India?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Cornwallis (1786-1793) had an excellent team of subordinates comprising John Shore, James Grant, and Sir William In the work of judicial reorganization, Cornwallis secured the services of Sir William Jones, who was a judge and a great scholar Civil and criminal courts were completely reorganized.
- Lord Cornwallis’ most conspicuous administrative measure was the Permanent Land Revenue Settlement of Bengal, which was extended to the provinces of Bihar and Orissa. Recall that Warren Hastings introduced the annual lease system of auctioning the land to the highest bidder. After a prolonged discussion with his colleagues like Sir John Shore and James Grant he decided to abolish the annual lease system and introduce a decennial (Ten years)settlement which was subsequently declared to be continuous.
- Cornwallis inaugurated the policy of making appointments mainly on the basis of merit thereby laying the foundation of the Indian Civil Service. To cut down on extravagances, he abolished a number of surplus posts. Another major reform that Cornwallis introduced was the separation of the three branches of service, namely commercial, judicial and revenue.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/26/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-august-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Cornwallis (1786-1793) had an excellent team of subordinates comprising John Shore, James Grant, and Sir William In the work of judicial reorganization, Cornwallis secured the services of Sir William Jones, who was a judge and a great scholar Civil and criminal courts were completely reorganized.
- Lord Cornwallis’ most conspicuous administrative measure was the Permanent Land Revenue Settlement of Bengal, which was extended to the provinces of Bihar and Orissa. Recall that Warren Hastings introduced the annual lease system of auctioning the land to the highest bidder. After a prolonged discussion with his colleagues like Sir John Shore and James Grant he decided to abolish the annual lease system and introduce a decennial (Ten years)settlement which was subsequently declared to be continuous.
- Cornwallis inaugurated the policy of making appointments mainly on the basis of merit thereby laying the foundation of the Indian Civil Service. To cut down on extravagances, he abolished a number of surplus posts. Another major reform that Cornwallis introduced was the separation of the three branches of service, namely commercial, judicial and revenue.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/08/26/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-26-august-2022/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:
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- A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
- Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
- Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1:Soil water holding capacity is the amount of water that a given soil can hold for crop use. Soil texture and organic matter are the key components that determine soil water holding capacity. Organic matter influences the physical conditions of a soil in several ways. Plant residues that cover the soil surface protect the soil from sealing and crusting by raindrop impact, thereby enhancing rainwater infiltration and reducing runoff. Each 1 percent increase in soil organic matter helps soil hold 20,000 gallons more water per acre.
- S2:Sulphur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere. The sulphur cycle describes the movement of sulphur through the atmosphere, mineral and organic forms, and through living things. Although sulphur is primarily found in sedimentary rocks, it is particularly important to living things because it is a component of many proteins
- S3:Salinization is a major problem associated with irrigation, because deposits of salts build up in the soil and can reach levels that are harmful to crops. Hence statement 3 is correct
Refer: UPSC CSE 2018
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1:Soil water holding capacity is the amount of water that a given soil can hold for crop use. Soil texture and organic matter are the key components that determine soil water holding capacity. Organic matter influences the physical conditions of a soil in several ways. Plant residues that cover the soil surface protect the soil from sealing and crusting by raindrop impact, thereby enhancing rainwater infiltration and reducing runoff. Each 1 percent increase in soil organic matter helps soil hold 20,000 gallons more water per acre.
- S2:Sulphur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere. The sulphur cycle describes the movement of sulphur through the atmosphere, mineral and organic forms, and through living things. Although sulphur is primarily found in sedimentary rocks, it is particularly important to living things because it is a component of many proteins
- S3:Salinization is a major problem associated with irrigation, because deposits of salts build up in the soil and can reach levels that are harmful to crops. Hence statement 3 is correct
Refer: UPSC CSE 2018
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