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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
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- National Commission for Backward Classes is a non-constitutional body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
- The commission was the outcome of Indra Sawhney & Ors. Vs. Union of India.
- The commission have the same powers as a Civil Court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body (123rd constitutional amendment bill 2017 and 102nd amendment 2018 in constitution to make it constitutional body) (Article 338B of the Indian Constitution) under Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment established on 14 August 1993.
- It was constituted pursuant to the provisions of the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993. The commission was the outcome of Indra Sawhney & Ors. Vs. Union of India.
- The National Commission for Backward Classes, National Commission for Scheduled Castes as well as National Commission for Scheduled Tribes have the same powers as a Civil Court.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/reservation-in-ulb/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body (123rd constitutional amendment bill 2017 and 102nd amendment 2018 in constitution to make it constitutional body) (Article 338B of the Indian Constitution) under Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment established on 14 August 1993.
- It was constituted pursuant to the provisions of the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993. The commission was the outcome of Indra Sawhney & Ors. Vs. Union of India.
- The National Commission for Backward Classes, National Commission for Scheduled Castes as well as National Commission for Scheduled Tribes have the same powers as a Civil Court.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/reservation-in-ulb/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsThe 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, sometimes seen in news is related to
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The One Hundred and Second Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as the Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018, granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/reservation-in-ulb/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The One Hundred and Second Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as the Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018, granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/reservation-in-ulb/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Amendment Act, 2021?
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- It extends the upper limit for medical termination of pregnancy to 24 weeks from 20 weeks, for certain categories of women.
- The opinion of a registered medical practitioner, eligible as per the rules is required for the termination of pregnancy at different gestation ages up to 20 weeks.
- The opinion for medical termination of pregnancy beyond twenty weeks gestation period will be given by a medical board duly constituted by the respective state government or UT administration at approved facilities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021
- The Act amends the 1971 MTP law which regulates the conditions under which medical termination of pregnancy is to be pursued. The amended MTP Act extends the upper limit for medical termination of pregnancy to 24 weeks from 20 weeks, for certain categories of women.
- S2: The opinion of a registered medical practitioner, eligible as per the rules is required for the termination of pregnancy at different gestation ages up to 20 weeks. Opinion of two registered medical practitioners is required for termination of pregnancy beyond twenty weeks till twenty-four weeks of gestation period.
- S3:The opinion for medical termination of pregnancy beyond twenty-four weeks gestation period will be given by a medical board duly constituted by the respective state government or UT administration at approved facilities. Two registered medical practitioners eligible as per the MTP rules will perform the termination of pregnancy based on the decision of the medical board.
- The rules stipulate that the medical board will have the power to allow or deny termination of pregnancy beyond twenty-four weeks of gestation period only after due consideration and ensuring that the procedure would be safe for the woman at that gestation age and whether the foetal malformation has substantial risk of it being incompatible with life or if the child is born it may suffer from serious physical or mental abnormalities.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/recent-issues-related-to-indias-law-on-abortion/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021
- The Act amends the 1971 MTP law which regulates the conditions under which medical termination of pregnancy is to be pursued. The amended MTP Act extends the upper limit for medical termination of pregnancy to 24 weeks from 20 weeks, for certain categories of women.
- S2: The opinion of a registered medical practitioner, eligible as per the rules is required for the termination of pregnancy at different gestation ages up to 20 weeks. Opinion of two registered medical practitioners is required for termination of pregnancy beyond twenty weeks till twenty-four weeks of gestation period.
- S3:The opinion for medical termination of pregnancy beyond twenty-four weeks gestation period will be given by a medical board duly constituted by the respective state government or UT administration at approved facilities. Two registered medical practitioners eligible as per the MTP rules will perform the termination of pregnancy based on the decision of the medical board.
- The rules stipulate that the medical board will have the power to allow or deny termination of pregnancy beyond twenty-four weeks of gestation period only after due consideration and ensuring that the procedure would be safe for the woman at that gestation age and whether the foetal malformation has substantial risk of it being incompatible with life or if the child is born it may suffer from serious physical or mental abnormalities.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/recent-issues-related-to-indias-law-on-abortion/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWho is known as the ‘father of genetics’?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Genetics: Genetics is the study of genes, genetic variation, and heredity in organisms.
- It was first experimentally established by Gregor Mendel(a monk) (1822 to 1884)
- Johann Gregor Mendel is considered the father of genetics.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/science-of-genetics/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Genetics: Genetics is the study of genes, genetic variation, and heredity in organisms.
- It was first experimentally established by Gregor Mendel(a monk) (1822 to 1884)
- Johann Gregor Mendel is considered the father of genetics.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/science-of-genetics/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Vesara style of temple architecture.
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- The Vesara style is described as the ‘Central Indian temple architecture style’.
- The trend was started by the Chalukyas of Badami who built temples in this style.
- It lost prominence during Rashtrakutas and Hoysalas, who built temples mainly in Dravidian style.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Vesara style contain elements of both Dravida and Nagara styles.
- The Vesara style is also described in some texts as the ‘Central Indian temple architecture style’ or ‘Deccan architecture’.
- The trend was started by the Chalukyas of Badami(500-753AD) who built temples in a style that was essentially a mixture of the nagara and the dravida styles, further refined by the Rashtrakutas of Manyakheta (750-983AD) in Ellora, Chalukyas of Kalyani (983-1195 AD) in Lakkundi, Dambal, Gadag etc. and epitomized by the Hoysala empire.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-july-2022/
- In the landlord port model, the publicly governed port authority acts as a regulatory body and as landlord while private companies carry out port operations—mainly cargo-handling activities.
- Here, the port authority maintains ownership of the port while the infrastructure is leased to private firms that provide and maintain their own superstructure and install own equipment to handle cargo.
- In return, the landlord port gets a share of the revenue from the private entity.
- The role of the landlord port authority would be to carry out all public sector services and operations such as the award of bids for cargo terminals and dredging
Refer: Facts For Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/21/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-21-july-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Vesara style contain elements of both Dravida and Nagara styles.
- The Vesara style is also described in some texts as the ‘Central Indian temple architecture style’ or ‘Deccan architecture’.
- The trend was started by the Chalukyas of Badami(500-753AD) who built temples in a style that was essentially a mixture of the nagara and the dravida styles, further refined by the Rashtrakutas of Manyakheta (750-983AD) in Ellora, Chalukyas of Kalyani (983-1195 AD) in Lakkundi, Dambal, Gadag etc. and epitomized by the Hoysala empire.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-july-2022/
- In the landlord port model, the publicly governed port authority acts as a regulatory body and as landlord while private companies carry out port operations—mainly cargo-handling activities.
- Here, the port authority maintains ownership of the port while the infrastructure is leased to private firms that provide and maintain their own superstructure and install own equipment to handle cargo.
- In return, the landlord port gets a share of the revenue from the private entity.
- The role of the landlord port authority would be to carry out all public sector services and operations such as the award of bids for cargo terminals and dredging
Refer: Facts For Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/21/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-21-july-2022/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985:
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- Under the NDPS Act, it is illegal for a person to produce/manufacture/cultivate, possess, sell, purchase, transport, store, and/or consume any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance.
- Under one of the provisions of the act, the State Governments are empowered to regulate the cultivation, production, manufacture, import, export, sale, consumption, use of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985:
- The Act is designed to fulfill India’s treaty obligations under the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, Convention on Psychotropic Substances, and United Nations Convention Against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances.
- The Act 1985 sets out the statutory framework for drug law enforcement in India.
- Under the Act, the cultivation, production, manufacture, possession, sale, purchase, transportation, warehousing, consumption, inter-State movement, transshipment and import and export of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances is prohibited, except for medical or scientific purposes and in accordance with the terms and conditions of any license, permit or authorization given by the Government.
- The Central Government is empowered to regulate the cultivation, production, manufacture, import, export, sale, consumption, use etc of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
- State Governments are empowered to permit and regulate possession and inter-State movement of opium, poppy straw, the manufacture of medicinal opium and the cultivation of cannabis excluding hashish.
- The Central Government is empowered to declare any substance, based on an assessment of its likely use in the manufacture of narcotics drugs and psychotropic substances as a controlled substance.
- Both the Central Government and State Governments are empowered to appoint officers for the purposes of the Act.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-july-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985:
- The Act is designed to fulfill India’s treaty obligations under the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, Convention on Psychotropic Substances, and United Nations Convention Against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances.
- The Act 1985 sets out the statutory framework for drug law enforcement in India.
- Under the Act, the cultivation, production, manufacture, possession, sale, purchase, transportation, warehousing, consumption, inter-State movement, transshipment and import and export of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances is prohibited, except for medical or scientific purposes and in accordance with the terms and conditions of any license, permit or authorization given by the Government.
- The Central Government is empowered to regulate the cultivation, production, manufacture, import, export, sale, consumption, use etc of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
- State Governments are empowered to permit and regulate possession and inter-State movement of opium, poppy straw, the manufacture of medicinal opium and the cultivation of cannabis excluding hashish.
- The Central Government is empowered to declare any substance, based on an assessment of its likely use in the manufacture of narcotics drugs and psychotropic substances as a controlled substance.
- Both the Central Government and State Governments are empowered to appoint officers for the purposes of the Act.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-july-2022/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsIndia Innovation Index 2022 is released by which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- NITI Aayog’s India Innovation Index, 2022
- The index determines innovation capacities and ecosystems at the sub-national level.
- Key outcomes:
- Karnataka topped the ranking, followed by Telangana, Haryana, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
- Manipur secured the lead in the Northeast and Hill States category
- Chandigarh was the top performer in the Union Territories and the City States category.
- Bottom rank: Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Bihar and Gujarat were at the bottom of the index.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-july-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- NITI Aayog’s India Innovation Index, 2022
- The index determines innovation capacities and ecosystems at the sub-national level.
- Key outcomes:
- Karnataka topped the ranking, followed by Telangana, Haryana, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
- Manipur secured the lead in the Northeast and Hill States category
- Chandigarh was the top performer in the Union Territories and the City States category.
- Bottom rank: Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Bihar and Gujarat were at the bottom of the index.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-july-2022/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsThe World Press Freedom Index is published by
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The 2022 World Press Freedom Index (20th edition)was recently published by Reporters Without Borders.
- It was released on the World Press Freedom Day (WPFD) (3rd May).
- The report points to an overall two-fold increase in media polarisationcreating divisions within countries, and between countries at the international level.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-july-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The 2022 World Press Freedom Index (20th edition)was recently published by Reporters Without Borders.
- It was released on the World Press Freedom Day (WPFD) (3rd May).
- The report points to an overall two-fold increase in media polarisationcreating divisions within countries, and between countries at the international level.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-22-july-2022/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following Rivers:
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- Dibang
- Lohit
- Kameng
- Manas
Which of the above are right bank tributaries of Brahmaputra?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Tributaries of Brahmaputra River
- Left: Dibang River, called by Dimasa tribe , Lohit River, Dhansiri River, Kolong River
- Right: Kameng River, Manas River,Beki River, Raidak River, Jaldhaka River, Teesta River, Subansiri River
Refer: Major Rivers and Tributaries
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsAmong the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Dehradun?












