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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Rampa Rebellion, consider the following statements:
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- It marked the first major rebellion of people in Punjab towards the political order of British in 1849.
- It was led by Alluri Sitarama Raju.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Rampa Rebellion of 1922, also known as the Manyam Rebellion,was a tribal uprising, led by Alluri Sitarama Rajuin Godavari Agency of Madras Presidency, British India. It began in August 1922 and lasted until the capture and killing of Raju in May 1924.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/alluri-sitarama-raju/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Rampa Rebellion of 1922, also known as the Manyam Rebellion,was a tribal uprising, led by Alluri Sitarama Rajuin Godavari Agency of Madras Presidency, British India. It began in August 1922 and lasted until the capture and killing of Raju in May 1924.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/alluri-sitarama-raju/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:
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- The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidies food grains.
- The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
- Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1:Coverage and entitlement under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS): Upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population will be covered under TPDS, with uniform entitlement of 5 kg per person per month. Not restricted to only BPL families.
- Statement 3:Pregnant women and lactating mothers and children in the age group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as per prescribed nutritional norms under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal (MDM) schemes.
- The nutritional and feeding norms for supplementary nutrition as prescribed by GOI are 500 calories and 12-15 grams of protein of children between the ages of 6 months to 6 years, 600 (not 1600) caloriesand 18-20 grams of protein to pregnant and nursing mothers and 800 calories and 20-25 gm. of protein to malnourished children.
- Statement 2: Eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1:Coverage and entitlement under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS): Upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population will be covered under TPDS, with uniform entitlement of 5 kg per person per month. Not restricted to only BPL families.
- Statement 3:Pregnant women and lactating mothers and children in the age group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as per prescribed nutritional norms under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal (MDM) schemes.
- The nutritional and feeding norms for supplementary nutrition as prescribed by GOI are 500 calories and 12-15 grams of protein of children between the ages of 6 months to 6 years, 600 (not 1600) caloriesand 18-20 grams of protein to pregnant and nursing mothers and 800 calories and 20-25 gm. of protein to malnourished children.
- Statement 2: Eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) is an independent body constituted to give advice on economic and related issues to the Government of India, specifically to the Prime Minister.
- The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) is an independent body constituted to give advice on economic and related issues to the Government of India, specifically to the Prime Minister.
- At present, the composition of EAC-PM is: Dr. Bibek Debroy (Chairman), Shri Rakesh Mohan (Part-Time Member), Dr. Sajjid Chinoy (Part-Time Member), Dr. Neelkanth Mishra (Part-Time Member), Shri Nilesh Shah (Part-Time Member), Prof. T.T. Ram Mohan (Part-Time Member) and Dr. Poonam Gupta (Part-Time Member).
- The Terms of Reference of EAC-PM include analyzing any issue, economic or otherwise, referred to it by the Prime Minister and advising him thereon, addressing issues of macroeconomic importance and presenting views thereon to the Prime Minister. These could be either suo-motu or on reference from the Prime Minister or anyone else. They also include attending to any other task as may be desired by the Prime Minister from time to time.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/indias-patent-law-safeguards-under-fire/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) is an independent body constituted to give advice on economic and related issues to the Government of India, specifically to the Prime Minister.
- At present, the composition of EAC-PM is: Dr. Bibek Debroy (Chairman), Shri Rakesh Mohan (Part-Time Member), Dr. Sajjid Chinoy (Part-Time Member), Dr. Neelkanth Mishra (Part-Time Member), Shri Nilesh Shah (Part-Time Member), Prof. T.T. Ram Mohan (Part-Time Member) and Dr. Poonam Gupta (Part-Time Member).
- The Terms of Reference of EAC-PM include analyzing any issue, economic or otherwise, referred to it by the Prime Minister and advising him thereon, addressing issues of macroeconomic importance and presenting views thereon to the Prime Minister. These could be either suo-motu or on reference from the Prime Minister or anyone else. They also include attending to any other task as may be desired by the Prime Minister from time to time.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/indias-patent-law-safeguards-under-fire/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about National Investigation Agency (NIA):
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- It is the primary counter-terrorist task force of India.
- It is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror related crimes across states without special permission from the states.
- The founding Director-General of NIA was T. N. Seshan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S3: The founding Director-General of NIA was Radha Vinod Raju, and he served until 31 January 2010.
- S1 and S2: The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is the primary counter-terrorist task force of India. The agency is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror related crimes across states without special permission from the states under written proclamation from the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/the-functioning-of-the-national-investigation-agency/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S3: The founding Director-General of NIA was Radha Vinod Raju, and he served until 31 January 2010.
- S1 and S2: The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is the primary counter-terrorist task force of India. The agency is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror related crimes across states without special permission from the states under written proclamation from the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/the-functioning-of-the-national-investigation-agency/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsRegarding Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, which of the following statements is/are true?
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- FCRA is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for three years.
- The entities covered by the Act does not include an individual.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
ANs: (a)
Explanation:
- FCRAregulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect the internal security of the country.
- The Act, first enacted in 1976 was amended in the year 2010 and then 2020.
- Section 5 of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 gives the Union government “unchecked and unbridled powers” to declare an organisation as being one of political nature and deny it access to funds from sources abroad.
- FCRA is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Applicability:
- The provisions of the Act apply to the territory of India, to citizens of India who may be outside India and to companies or their branches outside India that are registered or incorporated in India.
- The entities covered by the Act include an individual, a Hindu undivided family, an association, or a registered company.
- For how long is approval granted?
- Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for five years. NGOs are expected to apply for renewal within six months of the date of expiry of registration. In case of failure to apply for renewal, the registration is deemed to have expired, and the NGO is no longer entitled to receive foreign funds or utilise its existing funds without permission from the ministry.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/indians-can-get-%e2%82%b910-lakh-from-relatives-abroad/
Incorrect
ANs: (a)
Explanation:
- FCRAregulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect the internal security of the country.
- The Act, first enacted in 1976 was amended in the year 2010 and then 2020.
- Section 5 of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 gives the Union government “unchecked and unbridled powers” to declare an organisation as being one of political nature and deny it access to funds from sources abroad.
- FCRA is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Applicability:
- The provisions of the Act apply to the territory of India, to citizens of India who may be outside India and to companies or their branches outside India that are registered or incorporated in India.
- The entities covered by the Act include an individual, a Hindu undivided family, an association, or a registered company.
- For how long is approval granted?
- Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for five years. NGOs are expected to apply for renewal within six months of the date of expiry of registration. In case of failure to apply for renewal, the registration is deemed to have expired, and the NGO is no longer entitled to receive foreign funds or utilise its existing funds without permission from the ministry.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/indians-can-get-%e2%82%b910-lakh-from-relatives-abroad/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to UN (United Nations) Ocean Conference 2022, consider the following statements:
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- The conference was co-hosted by the Governments of Norway and Sweden.
- Minister of Earth Sciences led the Indian delegation at UN Ocean Conference.
- The conference ended with Lisbon Declaration titled ‘Our Ocean, Our Future: call for action’.
Which of the statements given above is/are corrcet?
Correct
ANs: (b)
Explanation:
- The conference was co-hosted by the Governments of Kenya and Portugal.
- Minister of Earth Sciences led the Indian delegation at UN Ocean Conference.
- 2nd UNOC ended with Lisbon Declaration titled ‘Our Ocean, Our Future: call for action’.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/un-ocean-conference-unoc-lisbon-declaration/
Incorrect
ANs: (b)
Explanation:
- The conference was co-hosted by the Governments of Kenya and Portugal.
- Minister of Earth Sciences led the Indian delegation at UN Ocean Conference.
- 2nd UNOC ended with Lisbon Declaration titled ‘Our Ocean, Our Future: call for action’.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/un-ocean-conference-unoc-lisbon-declaration/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the ‘GloLitter Partnerships Project’:
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- It is launched by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and initial funding from the World Bank Group.
- It is aimed to prevent and reduce marine plastic litter from shipping and fisheries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- It is launched by theInternational Maritime Organization (IMO)and the FAO and initial funding from the Government of Norway. It is aimed to prevent and reduce marine plastic litter from shipping and fisheries.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/un-ocean-conference-unoc-lisbon-declaration/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- It is launched by theInternational Maritime Organization (IMO)and the FAO and initial funding from the Government of Norway. It is aimed to prevent and reduce marine plastic litter from shipping and fisheries.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/un-ocean-conference-unoc-lisbon-declaration/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
- Cattle release ammonia into environment.
- Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%). Since 2002, N2O has replaced methane as the second largest Greenhouse Gas (GHG) from Indian agriculture.
- Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production, though their annual growth rate is 1%, due to a stable population.
- The poultry industry, on the other hand, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/new-pathway-to-regulate-nitrate-absorption-in-plants/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%). Since 2002, N2O has replaced methane as the second largest Greenhouse Gas (GHG) from Indian agriculture.
- Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production, though their annual growth rate is 1%, due to a stable population.
- The poultry industry, on the other hand, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/new-pathway-to-regulate-nitrate-absorption-in-plants/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the PM Formalisation of Micro Food processing enterprise (PMFME) Scheme:
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- It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
- It will be implemented over a period of five years from 2020-21 to 2024-25.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Centrally sponsored schemeunder Ministry of Food processing industries (MoFPI) under AatamaNirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
- Aim: To empower unorganized Micro Enterprises through the ‘One District One product’ approach. States to identify food products e.g., perishable Agri-produce, and cereal-based products.
- Time: 2020-21 to 2024-25
- Convergence: With NULM- will provide Seed capital to the Area level Federationinvolved in food processing for giving grants to micro-enterprises in the area.
- Achievements: Implemented in 35 states, Digital ODOP map developed, over 1 lakh SHG members.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-04-july-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Centrally sponsored schemeunder Ministry of Food processing industries (MoFPI) under AatamaNirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
- Aim: To empower unorganized Micro Enterprises through the ‘One District One product’ approach. States to identify food products e.g., perishable Agri-produce, and cereal-based products.
- Time: 2020-21 to 2024-25
- Convergence: With NULM- will provide Seed capital to the Area level Federationinvolved in food processing for giving grants to micro-enterprises in the area.
- Achievements: Implemented in 35 states, Digital ODOP map developed, over 1 lakh SHG members.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/07/04/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-04-july-2022/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
- The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
- The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Since S3 is clearly incorrect, the answer must be A.
- According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can be barred from holding office of profit under Central Government or state government as it can put them in position to gain financial benefit.
- The Supreme Court recently held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid. See https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Supreme-Court-upholds-office-of-profit-law/article16876481.ece
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Since S3 is clearly incorrect, the answer must be A.
- According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can be barred from holding office of profit under Central Government or state government as it can put them in position to gain financial benefit.
- The Supreme Court recently held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid. See https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Supreme-Court-upholds-office-of-profit-law/article16876481.ece
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019
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