Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
To view Solutions, follow these instructions:
-
Click on – ‘Start Quiz’ button
-
Solve Questions
-
Click on ‘Quiz Summary’ button
-
Click on ‘Finish Quiz’ button
-
Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
| Average score |
|
| Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
-
New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
| Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Table is loading | ||||
| No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Anti-Defection Law:
-
- The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985.
- A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote.
- The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger.
- The law specify a time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S4: The law does not specify a time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea. Given that courts can intervene only after the Presiding Officer has decided on the matter, the petitioner seeking disqualification has no option but to wait for this decision to be made.
- S3: Legislators may change their party without the risk of disqualification in certain circumstances. The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger. In such a scenario, neither the members who decide to merge, nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification.
- S1 and S2: The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote.This implies that a legislator defying (abstaining or voting against) the party whip on any issue can lose his membership of the House. The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/the-absurdity-of-the-anti-defection-law/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S4: The law does not specify a time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea. Given that courts can intervene only after the Presiding Officer has decided on the matter, the petitioner seeking disqualification has no option but to wait for this decision to be made.
- S3: Legislators may change their party without the risk of disqualification in certain circumstances. The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger. In such a scenario, neither the members who decide to merge, nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification.
- S1 and S2: The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote.This implies that a legislator defying (abstaining or voting against) the party whip on any issue can lose his membership of the House. The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/the-absurdity-of-the-anti-defection-law/
-
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- Under the anti-defection law, the power to decide the disqualification of an MP or MLA rests with the Governor of the State.
- The anti-defection law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Under the anti-defection law, the power to decide the disqualification of an MP or MLA rests with the presiding officer of the legislature.
- The law does not specify a time framein which such a decision has to be made.
- Last year, the Supreme Court observed that anti-defection cases should be decided by Speakers in three months’ time.
- However, Legislators may change their party without the risk of disqualification in certain circumstances. Exceptions:
- The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger.
- On being elected as the presiding officer of the House, if a member, voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or rejoins it after he ceases to hold that office, he won’t be disqualified.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/the-absurdity-of-the-anti-defection-law/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Under the anti-defection law, the power to decide the disqualification of an MP or MLA rests with the presiding officer of the legislature.
- The law does not specify a time framein which such a decision has to be made.
- Last year, the Supreme Court observed that anti-defection cases should be decided by Speakers in three months’ time.
- However, Legislators may change their party without the risk of disqualification in certain circumstances. Exceptions:
- The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger.
- On being elected as the presiding officer of the House, if a member, voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or rejoins it after he ceases to hold that office, he won’t be disqualified.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/the-absurdity-of-the-anti-defection-law/
-
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to political parties and elections in India, consider the following statements
-
- According to Representation of the People Act, 1951, no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison.
- Registered political parties, can get recognition as `State Party’ or ‘National Party’ subject to the fulfillment of the conditions prescribed by the Commission in the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RPA), as amended from time to time.
- A recognized National or State party can have a maximum of 40 “Star campaigners”.
- If a party wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha from at least four different States, it can be recognized as a national party.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation: here the directive word is not correct!!
- S1: According to section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the police.
- S2: Registered political parties, in course of time, can get recognition as `State Party’ or National Party’ subject to the fulfillment of the conditions prescribed by the Commission in the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, as amended from time to time.
- S3: The maximum limit on the number of star campaigners for recognized National/State parties shall be 30 in place of 40 & for unrecognized registered political parties it shall be 15 in place of 20 during COVID-19. Link: https://www.timesnownews.com/india/article/eci-revises-election-norms-maximum-number-of-star-campaigners-for-recognized-parties-to-be/663839
- S4: To be eligible for a ‘National Political Party of India:
- It secures at least six percent of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly.
- In addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States.
- It wins at least two percent seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least three different States.
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation: here the directive word is not correct!!
- S1: According to section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the police.
- S2: Registered political parties, in course of time, can get recognition as `State Party’ or National Party’ subject to the fulfillment of the conditions prescribed by the Commission in the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, as amended from time to time.
- S3: The maximum limit on the number of star campaigners for recognized National/State parties shall be 30 in place of 40 & for unrecognized registered political parties it shall be 15 in place of 20 during COVID-19. Link: https://www.timesnownews.com/india/article/eci-revises-election-norms-maximum-number-of-star-campaigners-for-recognized-parties-to-be/663839
- S4: To be eligible for a ‘National Political Party of India:
- It secures at least six percent of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly.
- In addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States.
- It wins at least two percent seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least three different States.
-
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- A current account surplus implies a higher outflow of forex than inflow.
- Currently, India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: A current account surplus implies a higher inflow of forex than outflow.
- It helps with an increase in reserves which is critical for maintaining financial and external sector stability.
- S2: According to an assessment by India Ratings, the Current Account Deficit (CAD) has moderated to $17.3 billion or 1.96 per cent of GDP in the fourth quarter of FY22.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/indias-emerging-twin-deficit-problem/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: A current account surplus implies a higher inflow of forex than outflow.
- It helps with an increase in reserves which is critical for maintaining financial and external sector stability.
- S2: According to an assessment by India Ratings, the Current Account Deficit (CAD) has moderated to $17.3 billion or 1.96 per cent of GDP in the fourth quarter of FY22.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/indias-emerging-twin-deficit-problem/
-
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsIn a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Quoting a Planning Commission report, “For 2011-12, for rural areas the national poverty line using the Tendulkar methodology is estimated at Rs. 816 per capita per month and Rs. 1,000 per capita per month in urban areas. Thus, for a family of five, the all India poverty line in terms of consumption expenditure would amount to about Rs. 4,080 per month in rural areas and Rs. 5,000 per month in urban areas. These poverty lines would vary from State to State because of inter-state price differentials.”
- See http://planningcommission.nic.in/news/pre_pov2307.pdf, page 2.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Quoting a Planning Commission report, “For 2011-12, for rural areas the national poverty line using the Tendulkar methodology is estimated at Rs. 816 per capita per month and Rs. 1,000 per capita per month in urban areas. Thus, for a family of five, the all India poverty line in terms of consumption expenditure would amount to about Rs. 4,080 per month in rural areas and Rs. 5,000 per month in urban areas. These poverty lines would vary from State to State because of inter-state price differentials.”
- See http://planningcommission.nic.in/news/pre_pov2307.pdf, page 2.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsSaavira Kambada Temple, also known as “Chandranatha Temple” since it honours the Tirthankara Chandraprabha, whose eight-foot idol is worshipped in the shrine. It is located in
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The temple is also known as “Chandranatha Temple” since it honours the Tirthankara Chandraprabha, whose eight-foot idol is worshipped in the shrine. It is the most prominent of the 18 Jain temples in Moodubidiri town, Karnataka.
- The Basadi was built by the local chieftain, Devaraya Wodeyar in 1430additions to temples were made in 1962. The shrine has a 50 feet tall monolith manasthambha erected by Karkala Bhairava Queen Nagala Devi.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-june-2022-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The temple is also known as “Chandranatha Temple” since it honours the Tirthankara Chandraprabha, whose eight-foot idol is worshipped in the shrine. It is the most prominent of the 18 Jain temples in Moodubidiri town, Karnataka.
- The Basadi was built by the local chieftain, Devaraya Wodeyar in 1430additions to temples were made in 1962. The shrine has a 50 feet tall monolith manasthambha erected by Karkala Bhairava Queen Nagala Devi.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-june-2022-2/
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsOn 21st June, the Sun
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- For that hemisphere, the summer solstice is when the Sun reaches its highest position in the sky and is the day with the longest period of daylight. At the pole, there is continuous daylight around the summer solstice. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Summer_solstice
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-june-2022-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- For that hemisphere, the summer solstice is when the Sun reaches its highest position in the sky and is the day with the longest period of daylight. At the pole, there is continuous daylight around the summer solstice. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Summer_solstice
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-june-2022-2/
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Aadi Adarsh Gram Yojana:
-
- It was launched by Ministry of Rural Development.
- It aims to achieve integrated development of selected tribal villages through convergent implementation of all relevant Central and State schemes.
Which of the statemenst given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairsfor faster development of tribal villages. It will help in the convergence and coordination of various schemes (similar to Adarsh Gram Yojana). It will also allow convergence with Aspirational district programmes in the tribal districts of the country.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-june-2022-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairsfor faster development of tribal villages. It will help in the convergence and coordination of various schemes (similar to Adarsh Gram Yojana). It will also allow convergence with Aspirational district programmes in the tribal districts of the country.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-june-2022-2/
-
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about National Initiative for Promoting Upskilling of Nirman workers (NIPUN):
-
- It comes under MoHUA’s DAY-NULM (National Urban Livelihood Mission).
- It will train construction workers to access self-employment and skilled wage employment opportunities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Union Minister of Housing and Urban Affairs launched a project named National Initiative for Promoting Upskilling of Nirman workers (NIPUN) for the promotion of Upskilling of 1 lakh Nirman Workers.
- It comes under MoHUA’s DAY-NULM (National Urban Livelihood Mission)
- It will train construction workers to access self-employment and skilled wage employment opportunities
- Implementation will be done by National Skill Development Corporation (under MSDE)
- Construction is one of the largest employers and contributes about 9% to India’s GDP.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-june-2022-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Union Minister of Housing and Urban Affairs launched a project named National Initiative for Promoting Upskilling of Nirman workers (NIPUN) for the promotion of Upskilling of 1 lakh Nirman Workers.
- It comes under MoHUA’s DAY-NULM (National Urban Livelihood Mission)
- It will train construction workers to access self-employment and skilled wage employment opportunities
- Implementation will be done by National Skill Development Corporation (under MSDE)
- Construction is one of the largest employers and contributes about 9% to India’s GDP.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/22/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-june-2022-2/
-
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
- Cattle release ammonia into environment.
- Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%). Since 2002, N2O has replaced methane as the second largest Greenhouse Gas (GHG) from Indian agriculture.
- Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production, though their annual growth rate is 1%, due to a stable population.
- The poultry industry, on the other hand, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.
- See https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/nitrogen-emissions-going-up-study/article24090131.ece
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%). Since 2002, N2O has replaced methane as the second largest Greenhouse Gas (GHG) from Indian agriculture.
- Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production, though their annual growth rate is 1%, due to a stable population.
- The poultry industry, on the other hand, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.
- See https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/nitrogen-emissions-going-up-study/article24090131.ece
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019
-
