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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Constitution of India allows the Parliament to make provisions in all matters relating to elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.
- Constitution of India permits a candidate to contest any election from up to two constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Constitution allows the Parliament to make provisions in all matters relating to elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.
- In accordance, the Parliament has enacted the following laws:
- Representation of the People Act 1950.
- Representation of the People Act 1951.
- Delimitation Commission Act of 1952.
- Section 33(7) of RPA 1951:
- Section 33(7) of the Representation of People’s Actpermits a candidate to contest any election (Parliamentary, State Assembly, Biennial Council, or bye-elections) from up to two constituencies.
- The provision was introduced in 1996 prior to which there was no bar on the number of constituencies from which a candidate could contest.
- Section 70bars candidates from representing two constituencies in the Lok Sabha/state.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/14/section-337-of-the-representation-of-peoples-act-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Constitution allows the Parliament to make provisions in all matters relating to elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.
- In accordance, the Parliament has enacted the following laws:
- Representation of the People Act 1950.
- Representation of the People Act 1951.
- Delimitation Commission Act of 1952.
- Section 33(7) of RPA 1951:
- Section 33(7) of the Representation of People’s Actpermits a candidate to contest any election (Parliamentary, State Assembly, Biennial Council, or bye-elections) from up to two constituencies.
- The provision was introduced in 1996 prior to which there was no bar on the number of constituencies from which a candidate could contest.
- Section 70bars candidates from representing two constituencies in the Lok Sabha/state.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/14/section-337-of-the-representation-of-peoples-act-2/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment (NeSDA):
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- It was constituted in 2019 by the NITI Aayog.
- It is a biennial study and aims to boost the e-government endeavours and drive digital government excellence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment (NeSDA):
- Constituted in 2019 by the Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DARPG).
- It is a biennial studythat assesses States, Union Territories (UTs), and focuses on Central Ministries on the effectiveness of e-Governance service delivery.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment (NeSDA):
- Constituted in 2019 by the Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DARPG).
- It is a biennial studythat assesses States, Union Territories (UTs), and focuses on Central Ministries on the effectiveness of e-Governance service delivery.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961 is an international treaty that controls activities of specific narcotic drugs and establishes a system of regulations for their medical and scientific uses.
- The International Narcotics Control Board was established in 1968 in accordance with the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S2: The International Narcotics Control Board (INCB) is an independent, quasi-judicial expert body established by the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs of 1961 by merging two bodies: the Permanent Central Narcotics Board, created by the 1925 International Opium Convention; and the Drug Supervisory Body, created by the 1931 Convention for Limiting the Manufacture and Regulating the Distribution of Narcotic Drugs. Read more>>
- S1: The Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961 (Single Convention, 1961 Convention, or C61) is an international treaty that controls activities (production, supply, trade, use) of specific narcotic drugs and establishes a system of regulations (licenses, measures for treatment, research, etc.) for their medical and scientific uses.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/14/the-war-on-drugs/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S2: The International Narcotics Control Board (INCB) is an independent, quasi-judicial expert body established by the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs of 1961 by merging two bodies: the Permanent Central Narcotics Board, created by the 1925 International Opium Convention; and the Drug Supervisory Body, created by the 1931 Convention for Limiting the Manufacture and Regulating the Distribution of Narcotic Drugs. Read more>>
- S1: The Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961 (Single Convention, 1961 Convention, or C61) is an international treaty that controls activities (production, supply, trade, use) of specific narcotic drugs and establishes a system of regulations (licenses, measures for treatment, research, etc.) for their medical and scientific uses.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/14/the-war-on-drugs/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Tax deduction at source (TDS) is a liability enforced against the exchanges that deposit tax on behalf of sellers on the platform.
- It will be calculated at 10% of the transaction value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- TDS is a liability enforced against the exchanges that deposit tax on behalf of sellers on the platform. It will be calculated at 1% of the transaction value.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/14/what-are-virtual-digital-assets-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- TDS is a liability enforced against the exchanges that deposit tax on behalf of sellers on the platform. It will be calculated at 1% of the transaction value.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/14/what-are-virtual-digital-assets-2/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Enforcement Directorate: :
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- Presently, it is part of the Department of Financial Service, Ministry of Finance.
- It is responsible for enforcement of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About Enforcement Directorate:
- The origin of this Directorate goes back to 1st May, 1956, when an ‘Enforcement Unit’was formed, in the Department of Economic Affairs, for handling Exchange Control Laws violations under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947 (FERA ’47).
- In the year 1957, this Unit was renamed as ‘Enforcement Directorate’.
- Presently, it is part of the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
- The Organization is mandated with the task of enforcing the provisions of two special fiscal laws – Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) and Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/14/enforcement-directorate-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About Enforcement Directorate:
- The origin of this Directorate goes back to 1st May, 1956, when an ‘Enforcement Unit’was formed, in the Department of Economic Affairs, for handling Exchange Control Laws violations under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947 (FERA ’47).
- In the year 1957, this Unit was renamed as ‘Enforcement Directorate’.
- Presently, it is part of the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
- The Organization is mandated with the task of enforcing the provisions of two special fiscal laws – Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) and Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/14/enforcement-directorate-2/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following minerals:
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- Bentonite
- Chromite
- Kyanite
- Sillimanite
In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- See table below from http://www.mospi.gov.in/sites/default/files/reports_and_publication/statistical_manual/Chapter%2012.pdf
Refer: UPSC CSE 2020
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- See table below from http://www.mospi.gov.in/sites/default/files/reports_and_publication/statistical_manual/Chapter%2012.pdf
Refer: UPSC CSE 2020
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
- CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
- India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: About 29% are such, not 26%. Out of the 5723 assessment units assessed jointly by State Ground Water Departments and CGWB in the country, 4078 are safe (71%), 550 are semi critical (10%), 226 are critical (4%) and 839 are over exploited (15%). See https://niti.gov.in/planningcommission.gov.in/docs/reports/genrep/rep_grndwat.pdf
- S2: Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) constituted under Section 3(3) of ‘The Environment (Protection) Act, (1986)’ regulates extraction of ground water through guidelines which are updated regularly.
- S3: At 39 million hectares (67% of its total irrigation), India has the world’s largest groundwater well equipped irrigation system (China with 19 mha is second, USA with 17 mha is third).
Refer: UPSC CSE 2020
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: About 29% are such, not 26%. Out of the 5723 assessment units assessed jointly by State Ground Water Departments and CGWB in the country, 4078 are safe (71%), 550 are semi critical (10%), 226 are critical (4%) and 839 are over exploited (15%). See https://niti.gov.in/planningcommission.gov.in/docs/reports/genrep/rep_grndwat.pdf
- S2: Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) constituted under Section 3(3) of ‘The Environment (Protection) Act, (1986)’ regulates extraction of ground water through guidelines which are updated regularly.
- S3: At 39 million hectares (67% of its total irrigation), India has the world’s largest groundwater well equipped irrigation system (China with 19 mha is second, USA with 17 mha is third).
Refer: UPSC CSE 2020
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Jet Streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.
- Only some cyclones develop an eye.
- The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10 degree Celsius lesser than that of the surroundings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: This is obviously incorrect, they occur in upper atmospheres of both hemispheres.
- S2: Correct. Extra-tropical cyclones may not always have an eye, whereas mostly mature storms have well developed eye. Rapidly intensifying storms may develop an extremely small, clear, and circular eye, sometimes referred to as a pinhole eye.
- S3: It is warmer and not colder for a tropical cyclone. The warmer temperature is what drives the storm.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2020
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: This is obviously incorrect, they occur in upper atmospheres of both hemispheres.
- S2: Correct. Extra-tropical cyclones may not always have an eye, whereas mostly mature storms have well developed eye. Rapidly intensifying storms may develop an extremely small, clear, and circular eye, sometimes referred to as a pinhole eye.
- S3: It is warmer and not colder for a tropical cyclone. The warmer temperature is what drives the storm.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2020
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements:
-
- Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible pumps.
- Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with piston.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- They can be used to run them all. The most common pump mechanics in Solar power pumps used are centrifugal pumps, multistage pumps, borehole pumps, and helical pumps.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2020
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- They can be used to run them all. The most common pump mechanics in Solar power pumps used are centrifugal pumps, multistage pumps, borehole pumps, and helical pumps.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2020
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements:
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- A substantial saving in seed material is made when ‘bud chip settlings are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field.
- When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with single-budded setts as compared to setts with many buds.
- If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts.
- Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Conventional method of sugarcane planting requires 7 to 8 tonnes of seed cane per hectare and this is the main reason for slow rate of seed and varietal replacement. Sugarcane being a long duration crop and heavy biomass producer requires about 1500 to 2500 mm water.
- Keeping in mind the likely to be faced situations in future, the ICAR-Sugarcane Breeding Institute (ICAR-SBI) has developed an integrated sugarcane cultivation model called Settling Transplanting Technology (STT). Components of the model are listed below:
- High yielding and better quality varieties
- Raising and transplanting of settlings derived from single bud setts/ bud chips
- Sub-surface drip irrigation and fertigation
- Wider row planting
- Intercropping
- Trash mulching
- Multiple ratooning
- Mechanization
- S1: Transplanting sugarcane single-bud/ bud-chip settlings can save seed cane requirement up to 80 per cent besides providing healthy plants and good field establishment. It is less expensive and labour saving in comparison with conventional sett planting.
- Other options are spaced transplanting (STP) and polybag / pro-tray nursery.
- S2 and S3: Reverse is true. See here http://www.iisr.nic.in/download/publications/ijst-December-2011.pdf
- S4: Yes, tissue culture or vegetative propagation (a subset of TC), can be used to germinate and grow these settlings which can be transplanted in the field later.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2020
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Conventional method of sugarcane planting requires 7 to 8 tonnes of seed cane per hectare and this is the main reason for slow rate of seed and varietal replacement. Sugarcane being a long duration crop and heavy biomass producer requires about 1500 to 2500 mm water.
- Keeping in mind the likely to be faced situations in future, the ICAR-Sugarcane Breeding Institute (ICAR-SBI) has developed an integrated sugarcane cultivation model called Settling Transplanting Technology (STT). Components of the model are listed below:
- High yielding and better quality varieties
- Raising and transplanting of settlings derived from single bud setts/ bud chips
- Sub-surface drip irrigation and fertigation
- Wider row planting
- Intercropping
- Trash mulching
- Multiple ratooning
- Mechanization
- S1: Transplanting sugarcane single-bud/ bud-chip settlings can save seed cane requirement up to 80 per cent besides providing healthy plants and good field establishment. It is less expensive and labour saving in comparison with conventional sett planting.
- Other options are spaced transplanting (STP) and polybag / pro-tray nursery.
- S2 and S3: Reverse is true. See here http://www.iisr.nic.in/download/publications/ijst-December-2011.pdf
- S4: Yes, tissue culture or vegetative propagation (a subset of TC), can be used to germinate and grow these settlings which can be transplanted in the field later.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2020
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