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Prelims 2022 illustrates the utility of reading Daily CA & solving quizzes on InsightsIAS : Many questions asked directly from our content!

 

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Direct Sources

Solution: b)

April 2021 static quiz

Acid rain is mainly a by-product of a variety of human activities that emit the oxides of

a) Sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere

b) Mercury and lead compounds in water bodies

c) Radioactive compounds in effluent discharge

d) Carbon emitted by peat lands

Solution: a)

Burning of fossil fuels (which contain sulphur and nitrogenous matter) such as coal and oil in power stations and furnaces or petrol and diesel in motor engines produce sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.

SO2 and NO2 after oxidation and reaction with water are major contributors to acid rain, because polluted air usually contains particulate matter that catalyze the oxidation.

These lead to formation of acid rain that has deleterious effect on the overall ecology of the region.

Solution: c)

Oct 2021 ca quiz

Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under

a) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

b) Hazardous waste Handling and management act, 1989

c) Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991

d) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Solution: d)

Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3(3) of the ‘Environment (Protection) Act, 1986’ for the purpose of regulation and control of ground water development and management in the Country.

Solution: b)

April 2022 ca quiz

Consider the following pairs of vaccine and category:

1. Covishield :    mRNA Vaccine

2. Covaxin :         Inactivated Vaccine

3. Sputnik V :      Viral vector based vaccine

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: c)

Covaxin is an inactivated vaccine. This destroys the pathogen’s ability to replicate, but keeps it intact so that the immune system can still recognise it and produce an immune response.

Covishield is based on the viral-vectored platform. Sputnik V is also based on the viral-vectored platform.

Solution: a)

June 2020 ca quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Biorock or mineral accretion technology.

1. Biorock or mineral accretion technology can be used to restore coral reefs.

2. Biorock is the name given to the substance formed by electro accumulation of minerals dissolved in seawater on steel structures that are lowered onto the sea bed and are connected to a power source.

3. It results in the formation of calcium carbonate.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: d)

Biorock is the name given to the substance formed by electro accumulation of minerals dissolved in seawater on steel structures that are lowered onto the sea bed and are connected to a power source, in this case solar panels that float on the surface.

“The technology works by passing a small amount of electrical current through electrodes in the water. “When a positively charged anode and negatively charged cathode are placed on the sea floor, with an electric current flowing between them, calcium ions combine with carbonate ions and adhere to the structure (cathode). This results in calcium carbonate formation. Coral larvae adhere to the CaCO3 and grow quickly.

Fragments of broken corals are tied to the biorock structure, where they are able to grow at least four to six times faster than their actual growth as they need not spend their energy in building their own calcium carbonate skeletons.

 

Solution: a)

RTM Quiz [Feb-2022]

Which of the following statements is/are about Non-fungible token ?

1.    NFT is a unique token on the block chain which cannot be replaced with something else.

2.    NFTs can have only one owner at a time.

3.    NFT cannot be exchanged for another NFT.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a)    1 and 2 only

(b)    2 and 3 only

(c)     1 and 3 only

(d)    1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

S1: An NFT is a non-fungible token. And what this means is, an NFT is a unique token on the block chain which cannot be replaced with something else. NFTs can really be anything digital, including drawings, music, photographs, videos and any type of digital file.

S2: NFTs can have only one owner at a time.

S3: Cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin and Ethereum are also fungible, which means that one Bitcoin can be exchanged for another.

But an NFT cannot be exchanged for another NFT because the two are different and therefore unique.

 

Editorials Quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Non-fungible tokens .

1. Non-fungible tokens are cryptographic assets on a blockchain with unique identification codes that distinguish them from each other.

2. They are similar to tokens like cryptocurrencies.

3. NFTs can be used to represent individuals’ identities and property rights.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 2

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: b)

 

Virtual Digital Assets also include Non-fungible tokens or NFTs, which are cryptographic assets on a blockchain with unique identification codes and metadata that distinguish them from each other.

NFTs can also be used to represent individuals’ identities, property rights, and more.

This differs from fungible tokens like cryptocurrencies, which are identical to each other and, therefore, can be used as a medium for commercial transactions.

 

March 2022 ca quiz

Consider the following statements regarding non-fungible token .

1. NFTs are unique digital assets with each token representing a unique value.

2. NFTs include digital real estate, digital art and music.

3. NFT is not interchangeable in nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: d)

 

 

NFT is a one-of-its-kind asset that is not interchangeable in nature. It means that the NFT is not replaceable by another ‘identical’ item.

 

For example, if two individuals hold a bitcoin each, they can exchange their bitcoins, which are a replica of each other and have the same value. However, NFTs are not interchangeable, as they are more like pieces of art where each and every token is unique in itself. While bitcoins are also digital assets, NFTs are unique digital assets with each token representing a unique value.

 

NFTs have evolved to include digital real estate, video game items, digital art and music.

 

Solution: d)

April 2022 ca quiz

Which of the following is the primary objective of monetary policy in India?

a) Tackling stressed assets of banks

b) Maintaining low levels of unemployment

c) Appreciate the exchange value of rupee in the Forex markets

d) Maintaining price stability

 

Solution: d)

 

The Reserve Bank of India is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy with the primary objective of maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.

 

Solution: b)

RTM Quiz [March-2021]

Consider the following statements about Banks Board Bureau :

1.       The BBB is a not-for-profit organisation registered under Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013.

2.       The BBB was the part of Indradhanush Plan of government.

3.       It will make recommendations for appointment of whole-time directors as well as non-executive chairpersons of Public Sector Banks and state-owned financial institutions.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

1.       1 and 2 only

2.       2 and 3 only

3.       1 and 3 only

4.       1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Explanation: About BBB:

It was set up in February 2016 as an autonomous body– based on the recommendations of the RBI-appointed Nayak Committee.

It was part of the Indradhanush Plan.

It will make recommendations for appointment of whole-time directors as well as non-executive chairpersons of Public Sector Banks and state-owned financial institutions.

The Ministry of Finance takes the final decision on the appointments in consultation with the Prime Minister’s Office.

Composition:

Banks Board Bureau comprises the Chairman, three ex-officio members i.e Secretary, Department of Public Enterprises, Secretary of the Department of Financial Services and Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, and five expert members, two of which are from the private sector.

 

 

 

Editorials Quiz

Which of the following are the functions of Banks Board Bureau ?

1. Improve the governance of Public Sector Banks.

2. Advise the government on top-level bank appointments.

3. Provide adequate capital to the Public Sector Banks to deal with bad loans.

Select the correct answer code:

a) 1, 3

b) 1, 2

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: b)

 

  • Banks Board Bureau was set up in February 2016 as an autonomous body– based on the recommendations of the RBI-appointed PJ Nayak Committee to improve governance of Public Sector Banks .
  • It was the part of Indradhanush Plan of government.
  • It had replaced Appointments Board of Government.
  • Its broad agenda is to improve governance at state-owned lenders. Its mandate also involved advising the government on top-level bank appointments and assisting banks with capital-raising plans as well as strategies to deal with bad loans.
  • It guides banks on mergers and consolidations and governance issues to address bad loans problem among other issues.

 

Solution: c)

RTM Quiz [July-2021 ]

Miyawaki method, sometimes seen in news is related to

(a)    Waste water treatment

(b)    Afforestation technique

(c)     Water storage technique

(d)    Traditional system of medicine

Ans: (b)

 

Feb 2022 ca quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Miyawaki technique.

1. Miyawaki technique allows for growing dense forests comprising native trees on small patches of land.

2. In Miyawaki technique the tree growth is slower compared to the traditional afforestation method.

3. They help lower temperatures in urban heat islands, reduce air and noise pollution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: c)

 

Miyawaki model to increase the green cover:

Pioneered by Japanese botanist and ecologist Akira Miyawaki, the technique allows for growing dense forests comprising native trees on small patches of land. One of the ways this is done is by ensuring that tree growth is faster than traditional afforestation methods.

 

They help lower temperatures in concrete heat islands, reduce air and noise pollution, attract local birds and insects, and create carbon sinks.

 

Solution: b)

RTM [Aug-2021]

Arrange in the descending order, the human sources of Methane:

1.       Fossil Fuel production, distribution and use

2.       Livestock farming

3.       Landfills and waste

4.       Biomass burning

5.       Rice agriculture

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a)    2-1-4-3-5

(b)    1-2-4-3-5

(c)     2-1-3-4-5

(d)    1-2-3-4-5

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

Sep 2021 ca quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Methane Emissions.

1. Methane is more potent than carbon dioxide in terms of its global warming capacity.

2. Majority of the methane emitted is from natural sources.

3. Livestock farming, rice agriculture and biomass burning emits methane.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: b)

 

Methane, a greenhouse gas, is 80 times more potent than carbon dioxide in terms of its global warming capacity. Approximately 40% of methane emitted is from natural sources and about 60% comes from human-influenced sources, including livestock farming, rice agriculture, biomass burning and so forth.

 

Solution: d)

 

May 2022 ca quiz

Consider the following statements regarding System of Rice Intensification  method of sowing paddy.

1. System of Rice Intensification  was first developed in India and since then several countries in the world have been practising it.

2. It gives equal or more produce than the conventional rice cultivation, with less water, less seed and less chemicals.

3. SRI is not suitable in all types of soil like less fertile soil.

4. SRI method permits greater weed growth in comparison to Direct Seeding of Rice technique.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 4

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 3

 

Solution: b)

 

System of Rice Intensification was first developed in Madagascar in the 1980s and since then several countries in the world have been practising it, including India. It promises to save 15 to 20% ground water, improves rice productivity, which is almost at a stagnant point now. Experts said that it gives equal or more produce than the conventional rice cultivation, with less water, less seed and less chemicals.

 

Experts said that unlike Direct Seeding of Rice technique, which is suitable only for mid to heavy textured soils, SRI is suitable in all types of soil including less fertile soil as in such soil the number of seedlings can be increased to double.

 

SRI doesn’t require continuous flooding, it needs intermittent irrigation. Indeed the plants’ roots should not be starved for oxygen through flooding. Irrigation is given to maintain soil moisture near saturation initially, and water is added to the field when the surface soil develops hairline cracks. Irrigation intervals will vary according to field conditions.

 

Unlike DSR when weeds are major problem and weedicides are sprayed simultaneously at the time of sowing, in SRI, which permits greater weed growth because of alternate wetting and drying of fields, the weeds are incorporated into the soil by operating a cono-weeder between rows, which are made at the time of sowing, which adds nutrients to the crop like green manures. First weeding is to be done 10-12 days after planting. Further weedings may be undertaken, depending on the necessity, at 10-15 days intervals, until the crop reaches panicle stage. Each weeding enhances yield through a process of soil aeration.

 

Solution: b)

Dec 2020 Ca quiz

A quantum computer stores information in

a) Hexadecimal systems

b) Qubits

c) Binary digits

d) A network of disengaged computer clouds

 

Solution: b)

 

Rather than store information using bits represented by 0s or 1s as conventional digital computers do, quantum computers use quantum bits, or qubits, to encode information as 0s, 1s, or both at the same time. This superposition of states—along with the other quantum mechanical phenomena of entanglement and tunneling—enables quantum computers to manipulate enormous combinations of states at once.

 

Solution: c)

March 2021 static quiz

Consider the following statements regarding mandamus.

1. In India, the Supreme Court and High courts can issue prerogative writs under Article 32 of the Constitution.

2. The writ of mandamus cannot be issued unless the legal duty is of public nature, and to whose performance the applicant of the writ has a legal right.

3. Mandamus cannot be granted against the President or Governor of a State.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 2 only

 

Solution: c)

 

The Supreme Court has ruled that reservation in the matter of promotions in public posts is not a fundamental right, and a state cannot be compelled to offer the quota if it chooses not to.

“There is no fundamental right which inheres in an individual to claim reservation in promotions. No mandamus can be issued by the court directing state governments to provide reservations,”

 

Mandamus is among the “prerogative writs” in English common law — meaning the extraordinary writs or orders granted by the Sovereign when ordinary legal remedies are inadequate. These are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, and quo warranto.

 

In India, the Supreme Court can issue prerogative writs under Article 32 of the Constitution, and the High Courts under Article 226.

Mandamus literally means ‘we command’. When issued to a person or body, the writ of mandamus demands some activity on their part. It orders the person or body to perform a public or quasi-public duty, which they have refused to perform, and where no other adequate legal remedy exists to enforce the performance of that duty.

The writ cannot be issued unless the legal duty is of public nature, and to whose performance the applicant of the writ has a legal right.

The remedy is of a discretionary nature — a court can refuse to grant it when an alternative remedy exists. However, for enforcing fundamental rights, the alternative remedy argument does not hold as much weight, since it is the duty of the Supreme Court and the High Courts to enforce fundamental rights.

 

When a public officer or government does an act that violates the fundamental right of a person, the court would issue a writ of mandamus against such authorities so that the person’s rights are not infringed.

 

The writ can also be issued against inferior courts or other judicial bodies when they have refused to exercise their jurisdiction and perform their duty.

Under Article 361, mandamus cannot be granted against the President or Governor of a State, “for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties”.

 

The writ also cannot be issued against a private individual or body, except where the State is in collusion with the private party for contravening a provision of the Constitution or a statute.

 

Sep 2021 CA Quiz

For filing Public Interest Litigation , the Supreme Court invokes which of the jurisdiction under them?
a) Appellate jurisdiction

b) Writ Jurisdiction
c) Original Jurisdiction
d) Advisory Jurisdiction

 

Solution: b)

 

In India, the PIL is a product of the judicial activism role of the Supreme Court. It was introduced in the early 1980s.

Public Interest Litigation can be filed before the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution or before the High Court of a State under Article 226 of the Constitution under their respective Writ Jurisdictions.

 

Editorials quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Article 32 of the Indian Constitution.

1. Article 32 affirms the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of the rights conferred in Part III of the Indian Constitution.

2. The right guaranteed under Article 32 is absolute and shall not be suspended.

3. An individual approaching the High Court under Article 226 for the violation of fundamental rights is itself is a fundamental right.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 3 only

 

Solution: c)

 

What is Article 32?

It is one of the fundamental rights listed in the Constitution that each citizen is entitled. Article 32 deals with the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’, or affirms the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred in Part III of the Constitution.

 

It states that the Supreme Court “shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, whichever may be appropriate, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by this Part”. The right guaranteed by this Article “shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by this Constitution”.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the writ of “Quo Warranto”.

1. It can be issued only by the Supreme Court of India.

2. It can be issued if a legislator holds such office which makes him ineligible to become an MP.

3. This writ is applicable to the public offices only.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2 only

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: c)

 

Quo warranto means “by what warrant”? This means that Supreme Court and High Court may issue the writ which restrains the person or authority to act in an office which he / she is not entitled to.

This writ is applicable to the public offices only.

 

 

Solution: a)

RTM Quiz [April-2022]

With reference to Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

1.       The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not subordinate to the speaker of Lok Sabha.

2.       It is by convention that position of Deputy Speaker is offered to opposition party in India.

3.       The Deputy Speaker can be removed by the President anytime.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

(a)    1 and 2 only

(b)    1 only

(c)     2 and 3 only

(d)    1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

·         S1: The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not subordinate to the speaker of Lok Sabha, they are responsible for the Lok Sabha and they are the second highest ranking legislative officer of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. They act as the presiding officer in case of leave or absence caused by death or illness of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

·         S2: It is by convention that position of Deputy Speaker is offered to opposition party in India.

·         S3: They can be removed from office by a resolution passed in the Lok Sabha by an effective majority of its members. In effective majority, the majority should be 50% or more than 50% of total strength of the house after removing the vacancies. Since the Deputy Speaker is accountable for the Lok Sabha, the elimination is done by the effective majority in Lok Sabha only.

 

Editorials quiz

Consider the following statements.

1. Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides the date for the election of the Deputy Speaker.

2. In the Indian parliamentary system, the Deputy Speaker is subordinate to the Speaker.

3. When a resolution for removal of the Speaker is up for discussion, the Constitution specifies that the Deputy Speaker presides over the proceedings of the House.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: c)

 

It is the Speaker who decides the date for the election of the Deputy Speaker.

 

The Deputy Speaker is independent of the Speaker, not subordinate to him, as both are elected from among the members of the House.

 

The Deputy Speaker ensures the continuity of the Speakers office by acting as the Speaker when the office becomes vacant. In addition, when a resolution for removal of the Speaker is up for discussion, the Constitution specifies that the Deputy Speaker presides over the proceedings of the House.

 

May 2022 static quiz

Consider the following statements.

1. In Lok Sabha and state legislatures, the President and Governor respectively sets the date for the election of the Speaker.

2. The Constitution specifies that the Speaker should be elected within 6 months from the formation of new Government.

3. Usually, the Speaker comes from the ruling party.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: c)

 

The Constitution specifies offices like those of the President, Vice President, Chief Justice of India, and Comptroller and Auditor General of India, as well as Speakers and Deputy Speakers. Article 93 for Lok Sabha and Article 178 for state Assemblies state that these Houses “shall, as soon as may be”, choose two of its members to be Speaker and Deputy Speaker.

 

The Constitution neither sets a time limit nor specifies the process for these elections. It leaves it to the legislatures to decide how to hold these elections. In Lok Sabha and state legislatures, the President/Governor sets a date for the election of the Speaker. The legislators of the respective Houses vote to elect one among themselves to these offices.

 

Usually, the Speaker comes from the ruling party. In the case of the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, the position has varied over the years.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the Speaker of Lok Sabha.

1. While the office of speaker is vacant, the duties of the office shall be performed by the deputy speaker.

2. He may be removed from his office by a resolution of the house of the people passed by majority of all the then members of the house.

3. He may at any time resign by writing his resignation to the President of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: b)

 

While the office of Speaker is vacant, the duties of the office shall be performed by the Deputy Speaker or, if the office of Deputy Speaker is also vacant, by such member of the House of the People as the President may appoint for the purpose.

 

A member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the House of the People

(a) shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the House of the People;

(b) may at any time, by writing under his hand addressed, if such member is the Speaker, to the Deputy Speaker, and if such member is the Deputy Speaker, to the Speaker, resign his office; and

(c) may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House.

 

 

Solution: b)

Dec 2020 static quiz

Which of these peaks of Himalayas, are situated in India?

1. Dhaulagiri

2. Kanchenjunga

3. Namcha Barwa

4. Nanda Devi

5. Annapurna

Select the correct answer code:

a) 1, 3, 5

b) 1, 2, 3, 4

c) 2, 4

d) 2, 3, 4, 5

 

Solution: c)

 

 

 

 

RTM Quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Inflation indexed bonds.

1.       The main objective of Inflation Indexed Bonds is to provide a hedge and to safeguard the investor against macroeconomic risks in an economy.

2.       Inflation indexed bonds provide inflation protection only to principal and not to interest payment.

3.       In India, inflation indexed bonds are linked to Wholesale price index .

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

Inflation Indexed Bond is a bond issued by the Sovereign, which provides the investor a constant return irrespective of the level of inflation in the economy. The main objective of Inflation Indexed Bonds is to provide a hedge and to safeguard the investor against macroeconomic risks in an economy.

Inflation indexed bonds are linked to consumer price index .

A predecessor of Inflation Indexed Bonds was Capital Indexed Bonds issued during 1997. However, the CIBs issued in 1997 provided inflation protection only to principal and not to interest payment. IIBs provide inflation protection to both principal and interest payments.

RTM Quiz [Sept-2021]

 

With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements?

1.       It involves the creation of not just a unique health ID for every citizen, but also a digital health insurance.

2.       It supports health ID creation via mobile or Aadhaar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)    1 only

(b)    2 only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)    Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

·         S1: The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission was recently launched by PM. The mission will provide a digital health ID to the people who will hold their health records.

o    It comprises six key building blocks — HealthID, DigiDoctor, Health Facility Registry, Personal Health Records, e-Pharmacy and Telemedicine.

·         S2: Currently, ABDM supports health ID creation via mobile or Aadhaar (Aadhaar is not mandatory, One can use one’s mobile number for registration, without Aadhaar).

o    The official website states that ABDM will soon roll out features that will support health ID creation with a PAN card or a driving licence. For health ID creation through mobile or Aadhaar, the beneficiary will be asked to share details on name, year of birth, gender, address, mobile number/Aadhaar.

 

 

RTM Quiz [Dec 2021]

 

Consider the following pairs:

Dams                                                     River

1.       Polavaram Dam                Krishna River

2.       Panchet Dam                     Damodar River

3.       Gandikota Reservoir      Tungabhadra River

4.       Linganamakki dam           Sharavathi River

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a)    1 and 3 only

(b)    2 and 4 only

(c)     1, 2 and 3 only

(d)    2, 3 and 4 only

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

Linganamakki dam: Sharavathi River

Panchet Dam:Damodar River

Polavaram Dam: Godavari River

Gandikota Reservoir:  Pennar River

Solution: c)

RTM Quiz [Jun-2022]

 

Afghanistan is bordered by:

1.       Turkmenistan

2.       Kyrgyzstan

3.       Tajikistan

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)    1 and 2 only

(b)    2 and 3 only

(c)     1 and 3 only

(d)    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

It is bounded to the east and south by Pakistan (including those areas of Kashmir administered by Pakistan but claimed by India), to the west by Iran, and to the north by the Central Asian states of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan.

RTM Quiz [June 2021]

Consider the following statements:

1.       Tea grows well in hot and humid climate.

2.       Kerala is the largest producer of tea in India.

3.       Tea Board of India is a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

(a)    1 only

(b)    2 and 3 only

(c)     1 and 3 only

(d)    1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

·         S1: Tea is a tropical and sub-tropical plant and grows well in hot and humid climate.

·         S2: West Bengal is the largest producer of tea in India.

·         S3: Tea Board of India is a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce.

 

RTM Quiz [June 2021]

Consider the following statements:

1.       Tea grows well in hot and humid climate.

2.       Kerala is the largest producer of tea in India.

3.       Tea Board of India is a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

(a)    1 only

(b)    2 and 3 only

(c)     1 and 3 only

(d)    1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

·         S1: Tea is a tropical and sub-tropical plant and grows well in hot and humid climate.

·         S2: West Bengal is the largest producer of tea in India.

·         S3: Tea Board of India is a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce

.

 

RTM Quiz []

Consider the following pairs of dams and the states they are located:

1.            Tungabhadra Dam: Andhra Pradesh

2.            Koyna Dam                       :Maharastra

3.            Krishnarajasagar Dam   :Karnataka

4.            Hirakud dam                     :Punjab

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a)          1 and 2 only

(b)          2 and 3 only

(c)           3 and 4 only

(d)          1 and 4 only

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

List Of Major Dams in India           State    River

•         Bhavani Sagar dam  Tamil Nadu  Bhavani

•         Tungabhadra Dam Karnataka Tungabhada

•         Rihand Dam-Uttar Pradesh – Rihand

•         Maithon Dam Jharkhand Barakar

•         Koyna Dam Maharastra  Koyna

•         Bisalpur Dam Rajasthan Banas

•         Mettur Dam/Tamil Nadu/Kaveri

•         Krishnarajasagar Dam/Karnataka/Kaveri

•         Indira Sagar Dam/Madhya Pradesh/Narmada

•         Cheruthoni Dam /Kerela/Cheruthoni

•         Sardar Sarovar Dam/Gujarat/Narmada

•         NagarjunaSagar Dam/Andhra Pradesh/Krishna

•         Hirakud dam/Odisha/Mahanadi

•         Bhakra Nangal Dam/Punjab /Sutlej

•         Tehri Dam/Uttarakhand/Bhagirathi

 

RTM Quiz [Dec-2021]

 

Q1.With reference to UN Convention on the Law of the Sea UNCLOS, consider the following statements:

It is an international agreement that establishes the legal framework for marine and maritime activities.

It is the only international convention which stipulates a framework for state jurisdiction in maritime spaces.

It provides a different legal status to different maritime zones.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

 

2. Consider the following statements regarding Exclusive economic zone .

1.    Exclusive economic zone is a sea zone prescribed by International Maritime Organization over which a state has special rights regarding the exploration and use of marine resources.

2.    It stretches from the baseline out to 200 nautical miles from the coast.

3.    In the exclusive economic zone, the coastal State shall have the exclusive right to construct and operate artificial islands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a)   1 and 2 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)   1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

·         An exclusive economic zone is a sea zone prescribed by the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea over which a state has special rights regarding the exploration and use of marine resources, including energy production from water and wind. It stretches from the baseline out to 200 nautical miles from its coast.  In the exclusive economic zone, the coastal State shall have the exclusive right to construct and to authorize and regulate the construction, operation and use of:

·         (a) artificial islands;

·         (b) installations and structures for the purposes provided for in article 56 of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea and other economic purposes;

·         (c) installations and structures which may interfere with the exercise of the rights of the coastal State in the zone.

·         The coastal State shall have exclusive jurisdiction over such artificial islands, installations and structures, including jurisdiction with regard to customs, fiscal, health, safety and immigration laws and regulations.

 

Solution: a)

RTM Quiz [Apr-2021]

3. With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements :

1.    Sri Ramanujacharya is the chief proponent of Vishishtadvaita subschool of Vedanta.

2.    Sri Ramanujacharya was initiated into bhakti spirituality by the poet-saint Sundaramurti.

3.    Siant Chokhamela and Sri Ramanujacharya are contemporaries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)    1 and 3 only

(b)    1 and 2 only

(c)     1 only

(d)    2 and 3 only

Ans: (c)

Explanation: About Sri Ramanujacharya:

    • Born in 1017 CE in Tamil Nadu.
    • He is the most respected Acharya in the philosophy of Sri Vaishnavism.
    • He was also referred to as Ilaya Perumal which means the radiant one.
    • His philosophical foundations for devotionalism were influential to the Bhakti movement.
    • He is famous as the chief proponent of Vishishtadvaita subschool of Vedānta.
    • He wrote influential texts, such as bhāsya on the Brahma Sutras and the Bhagavad Gita, all in Sanskrit.
  • S2: Ramanuja’s guru was Yādava Prakāśa, a scholar who was a part of the more ancient Advaita Vedānta monastic tradition. Sri Vaishnava tradition holds that Ramanuja disagreed with his guru and the non-dualistic Advaita Vedānta, and instead followed in the footsteps of Tamil Alvārs tradition, the scholars Nāthamuni and Yamunāchārya.
  • S3: Chokhamela was a saint in Maharashtra, India in the 14th century. He belonged to the Mahar caste, one of the untouchable castes in India. He wrote many Abhangas. He was one of the first low-cast poets in India.

 

 

Solution: d)

RTM Quiz [Dec 2020]

 

4. With reference to the Human Immune System Cells, Consider the following statements:

1.    T – Cells secrete antibodies, proteins that bind to antigens.

2.    In contrast, B – Cells do not produce antibodies but instead directly attack invaders.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

(a)    1 only

(b)    2 only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)    Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

  • The cells of the immune system can be categorized as lymphocytes (T-cellsB-cells and NK cells), neutrophils, and monocytes/macrophages. These are all types of white blood cells.
  • Lymphocytes originate from stem cells in the bone marrow; these stem cells divide continuously, releasing immature lymphocytes into the bloodstream. Some of these cells travel to the thymus, where they multiply and differentiate into T lymphocytes, or T cells. The T stands for thymus-derived, referring to the fact that these cells mature in the thymus. Once they have left the thymus, T cells enter the bloodstream and circulate to and within the rest of the lymphoid organs, where they can multiply further in response to appropriate stimulation. About half of all lymphocytes are T cells.
  • Some lymphocytes remain in the bone marrow, where they differentiate and then pass directly to the lymphoid organs. They are termed B lymphocytes, or B cells, and they, like T cells, can mature and multiply further in the lymphoid organs when suitably stimulated. Although it is appropriate to refer to them as B cells in humans and other mammals, because they are bone-marrow derived, the B actually stands for the bursa of Fabricius, a lymphoid organ found only in birds, the organisms in which B cells were first discovered.
  • S1: B and T cells both recognize and help eliminate foreign molecules antigens), such as those that are part of invading organisms, but they do so in different ways. B cells secrete antibodies, proteins that bind to antigens.
  • S2: Since antibodies circulate through the humours i.e., body fluids), the protection afforded by B cells is called humoral immunity. T cells, in contrast, do not produce antibodies but instead directly attack invaders. Because this second type of acquired immunity depends on the direct involvement of cells rather than antibodies, it is called cell-mediated immunity. T cells recognize only infectious agents that have entered into cells of the body, whereas B cells and antibodies interact with invaders that remain outside the body’s cells.

 

Indirect Sources

 

RTM Quiz [Oct 2020]

Barcode of Life Data Systems (BOLD) is sometimes mentioned in the news in reference to:

(a)    DNA-based identification system

(b)    Segregation of biodiversity data

(c)     New methodology to measure biodiversity

(d)    None of the above

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

The mission of the International Barcode of Life iBOL is to unite DNA barcoding research as a global science.

Through a research alliance spanning 26 nations with varying levels of investment and responsibilities, iBOL is successfully extending the geographic and taxonomic coverage of the Barcode of Life Data Systems (BOLD).

In 2010, iBOL has met its key target for Phase I: records for 500K species were added to BOLD through this international collaboration.

The overall task of iBOL researchers is to collect and curate specimens, and organize their DNA sequences into a reference library used for global species identification.

Once implemented, this DNA-based identification system will exert broad impacts on all areas in which society interacts with biodiversity – pest and disease control, food production and safety, resource management, conservation, research, education, and recreation.

 

 

RTM Quiz [April-2022]

 

Consider the following statements with reference to State Council of Ministers:

1.            The total number of ministers, including the chief minister, in the council of ministers in a state shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the legislative assembly of that state.

2.            The number of ministers, including the chief minister, in a state shall not be less than 10.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)          1 only

(b)          2 only

(c)           Both 1 and 2

(d)          Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a)

Explanation: Article 164—Other Provisions as to Ministers

  • The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister. However, in the states of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha, there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the scheduled castes and backward classes or any other work. The state of Bihar was excluded from this provision by the 94th Amendment Act of 2006.
  • The total number of ministers, including the chief minister, in the council of ministers in a state shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the legislative assembly of that state. But, the number of ministers, including the chief minister, in a state shall not be less than 12. This provision was added by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.

 

 

Solution: b)

Sep 2021 Static quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Contempt of Courts.

1. Contempt of court is the offense of being disobedient to or disrespectful towards a court of law and its officers.

2. Criminal contempt means publication of any matter that scandalises or lowers the authority of any court.

3. The Constitution of India does not mention anything about Contempt of Courts, whereas all the provisions are included in the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: b)

 

●        Contempt of court is the offense of being disobedient to or disrespectful towards a court of law and its officers in the form of behavior that opposes or defies the authority, justice and dignity of the court.

 

Civil contempt means wilful disobedience of any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court, or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.

Criminal contempt is attracted by the publication (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representations, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which:

  1. Scandalises or tends to scandalise, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court; or
  2. Prejudices, or interferes or tends to interfere with, the due course of any judicial proceeding; or
  3. Interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the administration of justice in any other manner.

 

Relevant provisions:

●        Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and High Court respectively to punish people for their respective contempt.

●        Section 10 of The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971 defines the power of the High Court to punish contempts of its subordinate courts.

●        The Constitution also includes contempt of court as a reasonable restriction to the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19, along with elements like public order and defamation.

 

Editorials Quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Contempt of Court.

1. The expression ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution.

2. The Supreme Court and High Courts derive their contempt powers from The Contempt of Court Act, 1971.

3. Fair and reasonable criticism of judicial acts and comment on the administrative side of the judiciary do not amount to contempt of court.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: b)

 

Contempt of Court:

·         The expression ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution.

·         Contempt of Court refers to the offence of showing disrespect to the dignity or authority of a court.

·         The objective for contempt is stated to be to safeguard the interests of the public if the authority of the Court is denigrated and public confidence in the administration of justice is weakened or eroded.

·         The Supreme Court and High Courts derive their contempt powers from the Constitution.

·         As per the Contempt of Courts Act 1971, contempt refers to the offence of showing disrespect to the dignity or authority of a court.

 

The act divides contempt into civil and criminal contempt.

·         Civil contempt: It is willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other processes of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to the court.

·         Criminal contempt: It is any publication which may result in:

o   Scandalising the court by lowering its authority.

o   Interference in the due course of a judicial proceeding.

o   An obstruction in the administration of justice.

 

However, innocent publication and distribution of some matter, fair and reasonable criticism of judicial acts and comment on the administrative side of the judiciary do not amount to contempt of court.

 

 

Solution: b)

Jan 2022 static quiz

Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368.

1. A bill to this effect can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha first.

2. Such a bill must be introduced by a minister.

3. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, a joint sitting of the two Houses is held for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: d)

 

An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.

The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.

The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.

Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.

 

 

Article 368 gives Parliament the power to amend the Constitution and describes its procedure. Consider the following statements regarding the legal position with regards to the amendment of this article itself?

1. The article can be amended by the Parliament only if the amendment does not destroy the basic structure of the Constitution.

2. The article can be amended by the Parliament only if a bill to this effect was introduced by the President.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: a)

 

An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha) and not in the state legislatures.

The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.

 

May 2022 static quiz

Which of the following statements about a bill for amendment of the constitution of India is/are correct?

1. The State legislatures cannot initiate any bill for amendment of the Constitution of India.

2. The previous sanction of the president of India is not required for introducing any bill in the parliament for amendment of the Constitution of India.

3. Joint sitting can be resorted to for passing a bill amending the Constitution of India.

Select the correct answer code:

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: b)

 

An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament. The Bill must then be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. This is known as special majority. There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of disagreement between the two Houses. 

 

 

Solution: b)

April 2022 ca quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Anti-defection provisions.

1. The presiding officer of the House is empowered to make rules to give effect to the provisions of the Tenth Schedule.

2. The presiding officer of the House can take up a defection case suo-moto and not necessarily when he/she receives a complaint from a member of the House.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: a)

 

Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by presiding officer of the house.

 

The presiding officer of a House is also empowered to make rules to give effect to the provisions of the Tenth Schedule.

All such rules must be placed before the House for thirty days. The House may approve or modify or disapprove them.

Further, he may direct that any wilful contravention by any member of such rules may be dealt with in the same manner as a breach of privilege of the House.

According to the rules made so, the presiding officer can take up a defection case only when he receives a complaint from a member of the House.

Before taking the final decision, he must give the member (against whom the complaint has been made) a chance to submit his explanation. He may also refer the matter to the committee of privileges for inquiry. Hence, defection has no immediate and automatic effect.

 

 

Dec 2021 CA Quiz

Consider the following statements.

1. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha have the same rights and privileges as elected members of Rajya Sabha with the right to vote in the election of the President.

2. The Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are subjected to disqualification, if they join a political party within six months of being nominated to the House.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

Solution: c)

 

In 1985 the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution.

The law specifies the circumstances under which changing of political parties by MPs invite action under the law. The law covers three types of scenarios with respect to an MP switching parties. The first is when a member elected on the ticket of a political party “voluntarily gives up” membership of such a party or votes in the House contrary to the wishes of the party. The second possibility is when an MP who has won his or her seat as an independent candidate after the election joins a political party. In both these instances, the MP lose the seat in the House on changing (or joining) a party.

The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law specifies that within six months of being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party.

 

 

Solution: d)

July 2021 static quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Attorney General for India.

1. He is a part of the Union Executive.

2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.

3. An eminent jurist cannot be appointed as Attorney General for India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: b)

 

The Attorney General for India is the central government’s chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.

He is a part of the Union Executive.

 

Appointment and eligibility:

He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.

● He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

● He should be an Indian Citizen.

● He must have either completed 5 years in High Court of any Indian state as a judge or 10 years in High Court as an advocate.

He may be an eminent jurist too, in the eye of the President.

 

June 2021 static quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Privileges.

1. Parliamentary Privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament collectively and not individually.

2. The Speaker or Rajya Sabha chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion.

3. The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President, who is an integral part of the Parliament.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: b)

 

Parliamentary Privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”.

 

The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion.

The Constitution also extends the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees. These include the Attorney General of India.

The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President who is also an integral part of the Parliament. Article 361 of the Constitution provides for privileges for the President.

 

April 2022 Ca quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Attorney General of India.

1. The Attorney General of India is the highest law officer in the country and is a part of the Union Executive.

2. He/she appears on behalf of the Government of India in all cases in the Supreme Court or in any case in any High Court in which the Government of India is concerned.

3. Term of office of AG is fixed by constitution for 5 years.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2 only

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: a)

 

Attorney General of India:

The Attorney General of India is a part of the Union Executive. AG is the highest law officer in the country.

Article 76 of the Constitution provides for the office of AG of India.

 

Appointment and Eligibility:

·         AG is appointed by the President on the advice of the government.

·         S/he must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court, i.e. s/he must be a citizen of India and must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President.

·         Term of the Office: Not fixed by the Constitution.

·         Removal: Procedures and grounds for the removal of AG are not stated in the Constitution. S/he holds office during the pleasure of the President (may be removed by the President at any time).

 

Duties and Functions:

·         To give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters, which are referred to her/him by the President.

·         To perform such other duties of a legal character that are assigned to her/him by the President.

·         To appear on behalf of the GoI in all cases in the Supreme Court or in any case in any High Court in which the GoI is concerned.

·         To represent the GoI in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 Power of the President to consult the Supreme Court) of the Constitution.

 

Editorials Quiz

1)      Afghanistan shares its land border with which of the following countries?

1. India

2. Iran

3. Kazakhstan

4. China

Select the correct answer code:

a) 2 only

b) 1, 2

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 4

 

Solution: d)

 

Afghanistan is bordered by Pakistan to the east and south; Iran to the west; Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan to the north; and China to the northeast.

 

Solution: b)

July 2021 CA Quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Summer Solstice.

1. During summer solstice, the Earth’s axis is tilted in a way that the North Pole is tipped towards the sun and the South Pole is away from it.

2. The amount of incoming energy the Earth received from the sun is higher at the North Pole than at the Equator.

3. At the Arctic Circle, the sun never sets during the summer solstice.

4. Summer solstice will bring the earliest sunrise or latest sunset for all the places in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

                a) 1, 2

                b) 1, 2, 3

                c) 1, 3

                d) 1, 2, 3, 4

 

                Solution: b)

 

The longest day of 2021 for those living north of the Equator is June 21. In technical terms, this day is referred to as the summer solstice, the longest day of the summer season. It occurs when the sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer, or more specifically right over 23.5 degree north latitude.

 

Why do we have summer solstice?

Since Earth rotates on its axis, the Northern Hemisphere gets more direct sunlight between March and September over the course of a day, which also means people living in the Northern Hemisphere experience summer during this time. The rest of the year, the Southern Hemisphere gets more sunlight.

 

During the solstice, the Earth’s axis — around which the planet spins, completing one turn each day — is tilted in a way that the North Pole is tipped towards the sun and the South Pole is away from it.

 

The solstice, as NASA puts it, is that instant in time when the North Pole points more directly toward the sun that at any other time during the year.

 

The amount of light received by a specific area in the Northern Hemisphere during the summer solstice depends on the latitudinal location of the place. The further north one moves from the equator, the more light one receives during the summer solstice. At the Arctic Circle, the sun never sets during the solstice.

 

Although June 21 will be the longest day in 2021, it does not necessarily mean that it brings the earliest sunrise or latest sunset. It depends on the latitudinal location of the country.

 

Solution: d)

Jan 2021 static quiz

The Ghadar party was

1. A revolutionary organization

2. Founded in Punjab

3. Aiming at securing India’s independence from British rule

Select the correct answer code:

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 3 only

d) 2, 3

 

Solution: b)

 

The Ghadr Party was a revolutionary group organized around a weekly newspaper The Ghadr with its headquarters at San Francisco and branches along the US coast and in the Far East with the aim of securing India’s independence from British rule.

Key members included Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, Abdul Hafiz Mohamed Barakatullah, Kartar Singh Sarabha, and Rashbehari Bose.

 

Solution: b)

Sep 2021 static quiz

Consider the following statements regarding the proposals of the Cripps Mission.

1. An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up.

2. After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened with all the members elected by the provincial assemblies.

3. Defence of India would remain in British hands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: c)

 

In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek Indian support for the war.

The main proposals of the mission were as follows.

1. An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up; it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth and free to participate in the United Nations and other international bodies.

2. After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution. Members of this assembly would be partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation and partly nominated by the princes.

3. The British government would accept the new constitution subject to two conditions: i) any province not willing to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union, and ii) the new constitution making body and the British government would negotiate a

treaty to effect the transfer of power and to safeguard racial and religious minorities.

4. In the meantime, defence of India would remain in British hands and the governor-general’s powers would remain intact.

 

 

Solution: d)

Aug 2021 CA Quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank .

1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank is a multilateral development bank with a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia and beyond.

2. All the G-20 nations are members of AIIB.

3. China is the largest shareholder in the bank followed by India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1 only

 

Solution: c)

 

Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank is a multilateral development bank with a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia and beyond.

The Parties 57 founding members) to agreement comprise the Membership of the Bank.

● It is headquartered in Beijing.

● It commenced operations in January 2016.

 

Aim:

By investing in sustainable infrastructure and other productive sectors today, it aims to connect people, services and markets that over time will impact the lives of billions and build a better future.

 

Membership:

● There are more than 100 members now.

● Fourteen of the G-20 nations are AIIB members including France, Germany, Italy and the United Kingdom.

 

Voting Rights:

China is the largest shareholder with 26.61 % voting shares in the bank followed by India 7.6%, Russia 6.01% and Germany 4.2 %.

The regional members hold 75% of the total voting power in the Bank.

 

Consider the following statements regarding Missile Technology Control Regime.

1. It is an informal and voluntary partnership among countries.

2. It was formed by the G-20 countries.

3. It is not a legally binding treaty on the members.

4. It focuses on the proliferation of missiles for the delivery of all types of weapons of mass destruction .

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

 

Solution: c)

 

India and the MTCR:

India was inducted into the Missile Technology Control Regime in 2016 as the 35thmember.

China is not a member of this regime but it had verbally pledged to adhere to its original guidelines but not to the subsequent additions.

 

Sep 2021 CA Quiz

Which of the following countries are members of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation ?

1. Russia

2. Kyrgyzstan

3. Afghanistan

4. Uzbekistan

5. Iran

Select the correct answer code:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4

b) 1, 2, 4

c) 1, 2, 4, 5

d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

 

Solution: c)

 

The eight-member SCO, including Russia, China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan, included Iran as its latest member at the summit.

 

 

Solution: b)

April 2020 ca quiz

Arrange the following Islands from North to South

1. Paracel Islands

2. Kuril Islands

3. Senkaku Islands

4. Chagos Islands

Select the correct answer code:

a) 2-3-1-4

b) 3-2-1-4

c) 2-3-4-1

d) 3-2-4-1

 

Solution: a)

 

Kuril Islands is a volcanic archipelago in Russia’s Sakhalin Oblast that stretches approximately 1,300 km northeast from Hokkaido, Japan to Kamchatka, Russia, separating the Sea of Okhotsk from the north Pacific Ocean. Here there is dispute between Russia and Japan.

 

Senkaku Islands are a group of uninhabited islands in the East China Sea. Here there is dispute Japan and China.

 

Paracel Islands are a disputed archipelago in the South China Sea.

 

Chagos Islands are a group of seven atolls comprising more than 60 individual tropical islands in the Indian Ocean about 500 kilometres south of the Maldives archipelago.

 

Solution: c)

Sep 2021 CA QUIZ

Consider the following statements regarding Real effective exchange rate .

1. The real effective exchange rate compares a nation’s currency value against the weighted average of the currencies of its major trading partners.

2. An increase in a nation’s REER is an indication that its exports are becoming more expensive and its imports are becoming cheaper.

3. India’s REER basket has remained constant for the past 10 years.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: b)

 

The real effective exchange rate of the rupee has remained around the benchmark base year value of 100) for most part of the last 15 years, reflecting India’s better external competitiveness, a Reserve Bank of India study said.

 

The nominal effective exchange rate and real effective exchange rate basket of the rupee is reviewed regularly.

 

The NEER is an index of the weighted average of bilateral exchange rates of home currency vis-a-vis currencies of trading partners, with weights derived from their shares in the trade basket of the home currency. A REER is the NEER adjusted by relative prices or costs, typically captured in inflation differentials between the home economy and trading partners.

 

Taking cognisance of these factors, the broad basket of NEER/ REER indices of the rupee has been expanded from 36 to 40 currencies and rebased to 2015-16.

 

An increase in a nation’s REER is an indication that its exports are becoming more expensive and its imports are becoming cheaper. It is losing its trade competitiveness.

 

May 2021 Static quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Real Effective Exchange Rate.

1. It is an indicator of the international competitiveness of a nation in comparison with its trade partners.

2. An increasing REER indicates that a country is losing its competitive edge.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: c)

 

  • The real effective exchange rate compares a nation’s currency value against the weighted average of the currencies of its major trading partners.
  • It is an indicator of the international competitiveness of a nation in comparison with its trade partners.
  • The formula is weighted to take into account the relative importance of each trading partner to the home country.
  • An increasing REER indicates that a country is losing its competitive edge.
  • A nation’s nominal effective exchange rate , adjusted for inflation in the home country, equals its real effective exchange rate .

 

Solution: a)

Editorials Quiz

Which of the following forms part of Capital receipts of the Government of India?

1. Borrowings by Government from Reserve Bank.

2. Interest income received from foreign Governments

3. Disinvestment receipts

4. Loans and advances granted by Central Government to State Governments.

Select the correct answer code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

 

Solution: b)

 

Under Article 112 of the Constitution of India, the Annual Financial Statement has to distinguish expenditure of the Government on revenue account from other expenditures. Government Budget, therefore, comprises of Revenue Budget and Capital Budget.

Capital Budget consists of capital receipts and capital payments.

 

The capital receipts are loans raised by Government from public, called market loans, borrowings by Government from Reserve Bank and other parties through sale of Treasury Bills, loans received from foreign Governments and bodies, disinvestment receipts and recoveries of loans from State and Union Territory Governments and other parties.

 

Capital payments consist of capital expenditure on acquisition of assets like land, buildings, machinery, equipment, as also investments in shares, etc., and loans and advances granted by Central Government to State and Union Territory Governments, Government companies, Corporations and other parties.

 

April 2022 static quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Revenue Expenditure.

1. Revenue Expenditure is expenditure incurred for purposes other than the creation of physical or financial assets of the Government.

2. Interest payments on debt incurred by the government and repayment of debt forms the part of Revenue Expenditure.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: a)

 

Revenue Expenditure is expenditure incurred for purposes other than the creation of physical or financial assets of the central government. It relates to those expenses incurred for the normal functioning of the government departments and various services, interest payments on debt incurred by the government, and grants given to state governments and other parties even though some of the grants may be meant for creation of assets).

 

 

Solution: b)

Jan 2022 static quiz

1)      A resolution of disapproval of national emergency is different from a resolution approving the continuation of a proclamation in which of the following respects?

1. Disapproval of emergency requires the approval of both the houses, whereas approval of proclamation can be done only by the Lok Sabha.

2. Disapproval requires special majority, whereas approval requires a simple majority.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: d)

 

A resolution of disapproval is different from a resolution approving the continuation of a proclamation in the following two respects:

·         First one disapproval) is required to be passed by the Lok Sabha only, while the second one needs to be passed by the both Houses of Parliament.

·         The first one is to be adopted by a simple majority only, while the second one needs to be adopted by a special majority.

This is done to put greater safeguards as emergency in an extraordinary measure and must be resorted to only in exceptional circumstances.

 

July 2021 static quiz

Consider the following statements regarding No-confidence motion.

1. It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha or state assembly as the case may be.

2. It is moved against the entire Council of Ministers and not individual ministers or private members.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: d)

 

What are the conditions related to no-confidence motion?

It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha or state assembly as the case may be. It cannot be moved in the Rajya Sabha or state legislative council.

● The no-confidence motion is moved against the entire Council of Ministers and not individual ministers or private members.

 

Solution: b)

May 2022 CA quiz

Consider the following statements.

1. Decline in gold prices leads to decline in a country’s foreign exchange reserves.

2. If the value of the rupee depreciates, the RBI intervenes in the forex market by buying more dollars.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: a)

 

The valuation loss, reflecting the appreciation of the US dollar against major currencies, and decline in gold prices have also played a part in the decline in foreign exchange reserves.

 

If the rupee slides further, the RBI will be forced to intervene in the forex market by selling dollars from its forex kitty, putting pressure on the total forex reserves.

 

If the RBI gives preference to sustain the forex reserves level, there could be some rupee depreciation in the horizon.

 

May 2022 CA quiz

Which of the following tools are used by the RBI to control Inflation?

1. Bank rate

2. Moral Suasion

3. Liquidity Adjustment Facility

4. Open Market Operations

Select the correct answer code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 1, 2

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

 

Solution: d)

 

Tools for inflation targeting:

·         Liquidity Adjustment Facility- With this RBI controls the money supply in the economy. These interest rates and inflation rates tend to move in opposite directions.

·         Open Market Operations– RBI buys or sells short-term securities in the open market, thus impacting money available with the public.

·         Variable Reserve Requirement- Cash Reserve Ratio and the Statutory Liquidity Ratio are increased or decreased in accordance with inflation or deflation respectively.

·         Bank rate– It is the rate at which RBI lends money to commercial banks without any security. When bank rate is increased interest rate also increases leading to inflation.

·         Moral Suasion– If there is a need RBI can urge the banks to exercise credit control at times to maintain the balance of funds in the market.

 

Solution: c)

June 2021 static quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Auroras.

1. Auroras occur due to a solar flare, which emerged from a Sunspot.

2. They are seen only in the high latitude regions of Arctic and Antarctic.

3. Auroras affect the radio lines and power lines.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 3 only

 

Solution: b)

 

An Aurora is a display of light in the sky predominantly seen in the high latitude regions Arctic and Antarctic). It is also known as a Polar light.

 

This is due to a solar flare, which emerged from a Sunspot. The flare is accompanied by a Coronal Mass Ejection — a large bubble of radiation and particles emitted by the Sun that explodes into space at high speed. This causes the Northern Lights to be visible in more number of areas than usual.

 

They commonly occur at high northern and southern latitudes, less frequent at mid-latitudes, and seldom seen near the equator.

 

Effects:

Auroras affect communication lines, radio lines and power lines.

It should also be noted here that Sun’s energy, in the form of solar wind, is behind the whole process.

 

Solution: c)

Jan 2021 static quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act, 1919.

1. The Act provided a dual form of government for the major provinces.

2. Under the act, the ‘reserved list’ remained under the control of the Viceroy.

3. The reserved list included foreign affairs, communications and defence.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: d)

 

The Act provided a dual form of government a “dyarchy”) for the major provinces. In each such province, control of some areas of government, the “transferred list”, were given to a Government of ministers answerable to the Provincial Council. The ‘transferred list’ included Agriculture, supervision of local government, Health and Education. The Provincial Councils were enlarged.

At the same time, all other areas of government the ‘reserved list’) remained under the control of the Viceroy. The ‘reserved list’ included Defence the military), Foreign Affairs, and Communications.

 

Nov 2021 ca quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Hybrid immunity with reference to SARS-CoV-2.

1. Hybrid immunity refers to a combination of natural infection with a single dose of vaccine.

2. Several studies show that hybrid immunity provides greater protection than fully vaccinated people without prior infection.

3. The immunological advantage from hybrid immunity arises from memory B cells which evolve in the lymph nodes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution:  d)

Solution: d)

Dec 2021 static quiz

Which of the following are the ecosystem services provided by Wetlands?

1. Water purification

2. Aquifer recharge

3. Microclimate regulation

4. Aesthetic enhancement of landscapes

5. Shoreline Erosion Control

Select the correct answer code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

 

Solution: d)

 

The wetlands, vital parts of the hydrological cycle, are highly productive ecosystems which support rich biodiversity and provide a wide range of ecosystem services such as water storage, water purification, flood mitigation, erosion control, aquifer recharge, microclimate regulation, aesthetic enhancement of landscapes while simultaneously supporting many significant recreational, social and cultural activities, being part of our rich cultural heritage;

 

Solution: d)

March 2021 ca quiz

Which of the following is/are examples of natural nanomaterials, i.e. those which occur naturally in the world?

1. Haemoglobin in our blood

2. Particles in volcanic ash

3. Nano-structures that give colour to peacock’s feathers

4. Exhaust from fossil fuel burning engines

Select the correct answer code:

a) 2, 3, 4

b) 1, 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 3

d) 1, 2

 

Solution: c)

 

Natural nanomaterials, as the name suggests, are those that occur naturally in the world. These include particles that make up volcanic ash, smoke, and even some molecules in our bodies, such as the hemoglobin in our blood. The brilliant colors of a peacock’s feathers are the result of spacing between nanometer-scale structures on their surface.

Nov 2020 static quiz

Consider the following statements.

1. As per Ramanuja, God is Sagunabrahman.

2. As per Madhava, the world is not an illusion but a reality.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: c)

 

In the twelfth century, Ramanuja preached Visishtadvaita.

According to him God is Sagunabrahman. The creative process and all the objects in creation are real but not illusory as was held by Sankaracharya. Therefore, God, soul, matter are real. But God is inner substance and the rest are his attributes.

He also advocated prabattimarga or path of self-surrender to God. He invited the downtrodden to Vaishnavism.

 

Solution: a)

July 2020 ca quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Schedule V of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

1. The State Government may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I and Part II of Schedule II of Wild Life Protection) Act, 1972 to be vermin.

2. The hunted wildlife is considered as ‘government property’ and restrictions are imposed on how these carcasses must be disposed.

3. Earlier wild boar, rhesus macaque, and nilgai have been declared as vermin.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: c)

 

Section 62 in The Wild Life Protection) Act, 1972: Declaration of certain wild animals to be vermin.—

States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin.

[The Central Government] may, by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I and Part II of Schedule II to be vermin for any area and for such period as may be specified therein and so long as such notification is in force, such wild animal shall be deemed to have been included in Schedule V.

 

Since 2015, the Union Environment Ministry has acceded to requests from Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Bihar to declare wild boar, rhesus macaque, and nilgai as vermin within specified territories of these States, and outside forests and protected areas. Wildlife laws also consider hunted wildlife as ‘government property’ and impose restrictions on how these carcasses must be disposed.

 

Wildlife laws divide species into ‘schedules’ ranked from I to V. Schedule I members are the best protected, in theory, with severe punishments meted out to those who hunt them. Wild boars, nilgai and rhesus monkeys are Schedule II and III members — also protected, but can be hunted under specific conditions. Crows and fruit bat fall in Schedule 5, the vermin category.

 

There are laws in the Wildlife Act that empower every State’s Chief Wildlife Warden to authorise hunters to cull animals in a region where they are a proven nuisance. 

 

Solution: a)

May 2020 static quiz

Which of the following schedules of the Constitution have a bearing on the governance of tribals in India?

1. Fifth schedule

2. Sixth Schedule

3. Seventh Schedule

4. Tenth Schedule

Select the correct answer code:

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 4

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: d)

 

5th and 6th schedule directly concern themselves with tribal governance as all the special provisions made under the constitution fall under it. For e.g. constituting a tribal advisory council; giving tribals control over land and forests etc.

 

7th schedule is concerned with the division of legislative power between Centre and States. It concerns with forests; welfare; mining and minerals which have a direct bearing on the tribal community in India.

10th schedule is about anti-defection.

 

Solution: c)

March 2021 static quiz

Consider the following statements regarding Labour Bureau.

1. Labour Bureau is the data and survey wing of the union ministry of Commerce and Industry.

2. Labour Bureau aims to achieve in producing quality data on rural, agriculture and industrial workers.

3. The foundations of Labour Bureau can be traced to the Royal Commission on Labour setup before India’s Independence.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 3

c) 2, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: c)

 

At least 80 years after it was established, the Labour Bureau, the data and survey wing of the union labour ministry, has got a logo that encapsulates the essence of three core areas – rural, agriculture and industrial workers.

 

The logo represents three goals that Labour Bureau aims to achieve in producing quality data — accuracy, validity and reliability.

The foundations of Labour Bureau can be traced to the Royal Commission on Labour in 1931, which underlined the need for systematic collection of labour statistics relating to living, working and socio-economic conditions of industrial labour.

 

Oct 2021 CA Quiz

Consider the following statements regarding All-India Quarterly Establishment-based Employment Survey .

1. The All-India Quarterly Establishment-based Employment Survey is released by Labour Bureau.

2. The survey covers all establishments in the organised segment in the selected sectors.

3. The objective of the QES is to enable the government to frame a sound national policy on employment.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 2, 3

 

Solution: c)

 

The Labour Bureau released the results of the All-India Quarterly Establishment-based Employment Survey  for the first quarter of 2021 April to June). The survey covers establishments employing 10 or more workers in the organised segment in nine sectors manufacturing, construction, trade, transport, education, health, accommodation and restaurants, IT/BPO, and financial service activities). These sectors account for 85% of the total employment in establishments employing 10 or more workers as per the Sixth Economic Census , which serves as the basis of the QES survey.