[Mission 2022] INSIGHTS DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS + PIB SUMMARY 26 MAY 2022

GS Paper 2

Syllabus: Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies

Context:

• Special court on May 25 sentenced Kashmiri separatist leader Yasin Malik to life imprisonment in a terror funding case.
• The National Investigation Agency (NIA) court charged him to life term under Section 17 of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention)Act (UAPA) and Section 121 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) and also imposed a fine of ₹10 lakh.

National Investigation Agency (NIA):

• It was constituted under the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008.
• The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) reviews the manpower, financial and infrastructure requirements of NIA from time to time.
• It is a central agency to investigate and prosecute offenses:

1. Affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India
2. Security of State
3. Friendly relations with foreign States.
4. Against atomic and nuclear facilities.
5. Smuggling in High-Quality Counterfeit Indian Currency.

• It implements international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organizations.
• Its objective is to combat terror in India.
• It acts as the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency.
• Headquarters: New Delhi
• Branches: Hyderabad, Guwahati, Kochi, Lucknow, Mumbai, Kolkata, Raipur and Jammu.
• The cases are assigned to the NIA by the Central Government in accordance with section VI of the NIA Act, 2008.
• The investigation of the cases is done by the Agency independently, cases are then placed before the NIA Special Court.
• For prosecuting the accused under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (UAPA) and certain other scheduled offenses, the Agency seeks the sanction of the Central Government. The sanction is granted under the UAPA based on the report of the ‘Authority’ constituted under section 45 (2) of the UAPA.
• The amendments to the NIA Act has brought the offences related to the smuggling in High-Quality Counterfeit Indian Currency under the definition of a terrorist Act.
• To curb various aspects of terrorist financing, a Terror Funding and Fake Currency Cell (TFFC) has been created in the NIA.
• The Central Government for the trial of Scheduled Offenses, constitutes one or more Special Courts under Section 11 and 22 of the NIA Act 2008.
• The Special Court shall be presided over by a judge to be appointed by the Central Government on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of the High Court.

Unlawful Activities (Prevention)Act (UAPA):

• Passed in 1967, the law aims at effective prevention of unlawful activities associations in India.
• The Act assigns absolute power to the central government, by way of which if the Centre deems an activity as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so.
• It has death penalty and life imprisonment as highest punishments.
• Both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged under UAPA.
• It will be applicable to the offenders in the same manner, even if crime is committed on a foreign land, outside India.
• Under the UAPA, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in maximum 180 days after the arrests and the duration can be extended further after intimating the court.
• As per amendments of 2019:

1. The Act empowers the Director General of National Investigation Agency (NIA) to grant approval of seizure or attachment of property when the case is investigated by the said agency.
2. The Act empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to investigate cases of terrorism in addition to those conducted by the DSP or ACP or above rank officer in the state.
3. It also included the provision of designating an individual as a terrorist.

Section 121 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC):

• Whoever wages war against the Government of India, or attempts to wage such war, or abets the waging of such war, shall be punished with death, or imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine.

Insta Links:

Prelims link:

NIA

 UAPA

Sec 121 of IPC

Special court of NIA

Mains link:

The National Investigation Agency (NIA) has been at forefront to investigate and prosecute offenses under UAPA. What are the impediments in its effective functioning?

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. The Ministry of Finance reviews the manpower, financial and infrastructure requirements of the NIA.
2. The special NIA court is presided over by a judge appointed by Central government in consultation with Chief Justice of India (CJI)

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

• 1 only
• 2 only
• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

GS Paper 2

Syllabus: Bilateral, regional and global grouping.

Context:

• The unresolved Palestine issue could be a factor in India-Israel relationship, but it does not diminish or negate the partnership between the two countries, Israel’s ConsulGeneral in Bengaluru, said.

Israel- Palestine conflict

Historical Background:

• The conflict has been ongoing for more than 100 years between Jews and Arabs over a piece of land between the Jordan River and the Mediterranean Sea.
• It was between 1882 to 1948, when the Jews from around the world gathered in Palestine. This movement came to be known as Aliyahs.
• Then in 1917, Ottoman Empire fell after World War 1 and the UK got control over Palestine.
• The land was inhabited by a Jewish minority and Arab majority.
• The Balfour Declaration was issued after Britain gained control with the aim of establishing a home for the Jews in Palestine. However during that period the Arabs were in majority in Palestine.
• Jews favored the idea while the Palestinians rejected it. Almost 6 million Jews lost their lives in the Holocaust which also ignited further demand for a separate Jewish state.
• Jews claimed Palestine to be their natural home while the Arabs too did not leave the land and claimed it.
• In 1947, the UN voted for Palestine to be split into separate Jewish and Arab states, with Jerusalem becoming an international city.
• That plan was accepted by Jewish leaders but rejected by the Arab side and never implemented.

Abraham Accord:

• It was signed between Israel, the United Arab Emirates and Bahrain and is mediated by the USA.
• It is the first Arab-Israeli peace deal in 26 years.
• As per the agreements, the UAE and Bahrain will establish:

1. Embassies and exchange ambassadors.
2. Working together with Israel across a range of sectors, including tourism, trade, healthcare and security.

• The Abraham Accords also open the door for Muslims around the world to visit the historic sites in Israel and to peacefully pray at Al-Aqsa Mosque in Jerusalem, the third holiest site in Islam.

India-Israel Relations:

• Diplomatic Ties:

1. Though India officially recognised Israel in 1950, the two countries established full diplomatic ties only on 29th January 1992.
2. India was among 164 United Nations (UN) member states to have diplomatic ties with Israel.

• Economic and Commercial Relations:

1. From USD 200 million in 1992, bilateral merchandise trade stood at USD 4.14 billion (excluding defense) during the period April 2020 – February 2021 with the balance of trade being in India’s favour.
2. Trade in diamonds constitutes about 50% of bilateral trade.
3. India is Israel’s third-largest trade partner in Asia and seventh largest globally.

• Defense:

1. India is the largest buyer of military equipment from Israel, which, in turn, is the second-largest defense supplier to India, after Russia.
2. India has a wide array of Israeli weapon systems over the years, which range from Phalcon AWACS (Airborne Warning And Control Systems) and Heron, Searcher-II and Harop drones to Barak anti-missile defense systems and Spyder quick-reaction anti-aircraft missile systems.
3. The acquisitions also include a host of Israeli missiles and precision-guided munitions, from Python and Derby air-to-air missiles to Crystal Maze and Spice-2000 bombs.

• Cooperation in Agriculture:

1. In May 2021, “a three-year work program agreement” for development in agriculture cooperation, was signed.
2. The programme aims to grow existing Centers of Excellence, establish new centers, increase CoE’s value chain, bring the Centers of Excellence into the self-sufficient mode, and encourage private sector companies and collaboration.

• Science & Technology:

1. India and Israel deliberated on widening the scope of India-Israel Industrial R&D and Technological Innovation Fund (I4F) at its 8th Governing Body meeting.
2. I4F is a cooperation between the two countries to promote, facilitate and support joint industrial R&D projects between companies from India and Israel to address the challenges in the agreed ‘Focus Sectors’.

Insta Links:

Prelims links:

Map of Israel Palestine

Abraham Accord

Phalcon AWACS (Airborne Warning And Control Systems) and Heron

Searcher-II and Harop drones

Barak anti-missile defense systems

Spyder quick-reaction

anti-aircraft missile systems.

Balfour Declaration

West Bank

Gaza Strip

Mains link:

India has maintained a balanced relation with Israel and Palestine. Discuss.

Q2 Which of the following is true with reference to Abraham Accord:

1. It was signed between Israel, Oman and UAE.
2. It was mediated by China.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

• 1 only
• 2 only
• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d)

GS Paper 2

Syllabus: Bilateral relations, Important International Institutes

Context:

• USA has sent another senior official to discuss India’s oil purchases and plans to use the rupee-rouble payment mechanism to circumvent sanctions against Russia.

India’s dependence and Russia

• India is heavily dependent on oil imports, the bulk of which comes from the Middle East, Africa, Europe, North America, South America, and South-East Asia.
• Russia’s oil-related exports to India are only about $1 billion.
• Russia is keen to scale this up even as the US has announced a ban on oil imports from the country and the UK has adopted a more gradual reduction.
• This offers the opportunity for a lucrative supply deal with the second largest oil exporter after Saudi Arabia.
• The Rupee-Rouble payment system is crucial for bilateral non-oil trade. This would allow Indian exporters to be paid in rupees.

Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

• An inter-governmental body established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris.
• It assesses the strength of a country’s anti-money laundering and anti-terror financing frameworks.
• It sets standards and promote effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system.
• Its Secretariat is located at the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris.
• The FATF currently has 39 members including two regional organizations – the European Commission and Gulf Cooperation Council.
• India is a member of the FATF.

• Lists under FATF:
  Grey List:

1. Countries considered as safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put in the FATF grey list.
2. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.
   example: Pakistan

• Black List:

1. Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) countries are put in the blacklis
2. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities.
3. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
4. Iran and Democratic People’s Republic of Korea (DPRK) are under High-risk Jurisdiction or black list.

• The FATF Plenary is the decision making body of the FATF. It meets three times per year.

Insta Links:

Prelims link:

Russia-Ukraine map

FATF

Currency conversion

Mains link:

Critically analyze how India’s oil imports from Russia will impact US-India relations.

Q3. With reference to FATF, consider the following statements:

1. It was established by the G20 meeting in 1989.
2. India has an observer status in FATF.
3. Pakistan along with China has been placed under the grey list of FATF.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct:

• 1 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

GS Paper 2

Syllabus: Constitutional bodies, RPA act 1951

Context:

• The Election Commission of India (ECI) has decided to initiate graded action against more than 2,100 Registered Unrecognized Political Parties (RUPPs) for noncompliance of statutory requirements under the Representation of the People (RP) Act.

Election Commission of India (ECI):

• The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India.
• It administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.
• Part XV of the Indian constitution deals with elections, and establishes a commission for these matters.
• Article 324 to 329 of the constitution deals with powers, function, tenure, eligibility, etc of the commission and the members.
• It consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners appointed by the President.
• They have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
• The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament.
• It grants recognition to political parties & allot election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it.
• The Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
• It issues the Model Code of Conduct in election for political parties and candidates so that no one indulges in unfair practice or there is no arbitrary abuse of powers by those in power.
• It sets limits of campaign expenditure per candidate to all the political parties, and also monitors the same.

Registered Unrecognized Political Parties:

• Either newly registered parties or those which have not secured enough percentage of votes in the assembly or general elections to become a state party, or those which have never contested elections since being registered are considered unrecognized parties.
• They do not enjoy all the benefits extended to the recognised parties.

Recognised Political Party:

• A recognised political party shall either be a National party or a State party if it meets certain laid down conditions.
• To become a recognised political party:
  • State Party – The registered party has to satisfy any of the 5 conditions:

1. Secure at least 6% of the valid vote & win at least 2 seats in an Assembly General Election
2. Secure at least 6% of the valid vote & win at least 1 seats in a Lok Sabha General Election
3. Win at least 3% of the seats or at least 3 seats, whichever is more, in an Assembly General Election
4. Win at least 1 out of every 25 seats from a state in a Lok Sabha General Election
5. Secure at least 8% of the total valid vote in an Assembly or a Lok Sabha General Election
   • National Party – The registered party has to satisfy any of the 3 conditions.
6. Secure at least 6% of the valid vote in an Assembly or a Lok Sabha General Election in any four or more states and won at least 4 seats in a Lok Sabha General Election from any State or States
7. Win at least 2% of the total Lok Sabha seats in a Lok Sabha General Election and these seats have to be won from at least 3 states
8. The party is recognized as a State Party in at least four states

• The recognition granted by the Commission to the parties determines their right to certain privileges like allocation of the party symbols, provision of time for political broadcasts on the state-owned television and radio stations and access to electoral rolls.

Insta Links:

Prelims link:

ECI

RPA

Recognised and unrecognized political parties

 Mains link:

Indian democracy has adopted a multiple party system. In the light of this statement discuss the procedure of recognition of political parties in India.

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. For a party to be recognised as a national party it should win at least 6% of the total Lok Sabha seats in a Lok Sabha General Election and these seats have to be won from at least 3 states.
2. For a party to be recognised as a state party it should Secure at least 6% of the valid vote & win at least 1 seat in a Lok Sabha General Election.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct:

• 1 only
• 2 only
• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

GS Paper 2

Syllabus: Laws, policies, institutes and bodies constituted to protect vulnerable sections, important international institutions.

Context:

• A document released by the International Labour Organisation (ILO) on “Inclusion of lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, intersex and queer (LGBTIQ+) persons in the “world of work” recommended member countries, employers’ organisations and representatives of workers to launch social protection programmes to remove barriers that LGBTIQ+ persons face in society.

(LGBTIQ+):

• LGBTQ is an acronym for lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender and queer or questioning.
• These terms are used to describe a person’s sexual orientation or gender identity.

Difficulties Faced by LGBTIQ+ Community:

• Heterosexuality: They are experiencing intolerance, discrimination, harassment, and threat of violence due to their sexual orientation than those that identify themselves as heterosexual.
• In-equality & Violence: They face inequality and violence at every place around the world. They face torture from people who mock at them and make them realize that they are different from others.
• Deprived in Rights: In many countries, the rights enjoyed by opposite-sex couples are not enjoyed by same-sex couples. They are prohibited from those rights.
• Isolation from society: They gradually develop low self-esteem and low self-confidence and become isolated from friends and family.
• Conflict in Family itself: Lack of communication between LGBT children and the parents often leads to conflict in the family. Many LGBT youths are placed in foster care or end up in juvenile detention or on the streets.
• Racial Discrimination: Additionally, lesbian, gay, bisexual and transgender people face poverty and racism daily. They suffer from social and economic inequalities due to continuous discrimination in the workplace.

Various Judgments in favour of the LGBTIQ+ Community:

• Naz foundation v/s Government of Delhi case
• Koushal Judgment: In 2013, the Supreme Court criminalizes homosexuality (Koushal judgment)
• Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (2017)
• Navtej Singh Johar vs. Union Of India (2018)

International Labour Organization (ILO):

• It is the only tripartite U.N. agency that brings together governments, employers and workers of 187 member States.
• It sets labour standards, develops policies and devises programmes promoting decent work for all women and men.
• It was established in 1919 by the Treaty of Versailles as an affiliated agency of the League of Nations.
• It became the first affiliated specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946.
• Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
• Its founding Mission is social justice is essential to universal and lasting peace.
• It promotes internationally recognized human and labour rights.
• It is providing substantial support in the building of an ethical and productive framework for fair globalization.

Insta Links

Prelims link

LGBTIQ+

ILO

Article 14, Article 15, Article 21

Mains link:

LGBTIQ+ community has faced historic discrimination at the hand of society. Discuss the recent judgments in favour of LGBTIQ+ rights.

With reference to International Labour Organization (ILO), consider the following statements:

1. It was the first affiliated specialized agency of the United Nations.
2. It has no role in globalization.
3. It was established by the treaty of Versailles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 and 2 only
• 1 and 3 only
• 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

GS Paper 3

Syllabus: Local Bodies, Conservation of wild life etc

Context:

• Kerala government has empowered local bodies to cull wild boars that pose a threat to agriculture crops or human life.
• The secretaries of the local bodies concerned will act as the delegated officers.

Local Bodies:

• Panchayati Raj Institution (PRI) was constitutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 to build democracy at the grassroots level
• This act has added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India.
• This part is entitled as ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O.
• 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. This schedule contains 29 functional items of the panchayats. It deals with Article 243-G.

Urban Local Governments:

• There are eight types of urban local governments in India – Municipal Corporation, Municipality, Notified Area Committee, Town Area Committee, Cantonment Board, township, port trust, special purpose agency.
• At the Central level the subject of ‘urban local government’ is dealt with by the following three Ministries:

1. The Ministry of Urban Development was created as a separate ministry in 1985 (now Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs).
2. Ministry of Defense in the case of cantonment boards.
3. Ministry of Home Affairs in the case of Union Territories.

• 74th Amendment Act of 1992 added Part IX -A and consists of provisions from articles 243-P to 243-ZG.
• It added the 12th Schedule to the Constitution. It contains 18 functional items of Municipalities and deals with Article 243 W.

Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972:

• The Act was enacted for the protection of plants and animal species.
• It extends to the whole of India. Prior to this legislation, India had only five designated national parks.
• The Central Government appoints the Director of Wildlife Preservation and assistant directors and other officers subordinate to the Director.
• The State Governments appoint a Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) who heads the Wildlife Wing of the department and exercises complete administrative control over Protected Areas (PAs) within a state.
• The state governments are also entitled to appoint Wildlife Wardens in each district.
• Prohibition of hunting:

1. It prohibits the hunting of any wild animal specified in Schedules I, II, III and IV of the act.
2. Exception: A wild animal listed under these schedules can be hunted/ killed only after getting permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of the state if:

It becomes dangerous to human life or to property (including standing crops on any land.

It is disabled or suffering from a disease that is beyond recovery.

• It prohibits the uprooting, damage, collection, possession or selling of any specified plant from any forest land or any protected area.

1. Exception: The CWLW, however, may grant permission for uprooting or collecting a specific plant for the purpose of education, scientific research, preservation in a herbarium or if a person/institution is approved to do so by the central government.

• The government can declare an area (including an area within a sanctuary) as a National Park. A Collector is appointed by the central government to administer the area declared as a Sanctuary.
• Under Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter.

Wild boar:

• Also known as the wild swine
• The species is now one of the widest-ranging mammals in the world, as well as the most widespread suiform.
• IUCN Red List- least concern
• It has become an invasive species in part of its introduced range.
• Indian boar, also known as the Andamanese pig or Moupin pig, is a subspecies of wild boar native to India.
• They can also be spotted in some of the National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuary such as Sariska Tiger Reserve, Bandhavgarh National Park, Corbett National Park and Ranthambore National Park.

Insta Links:

Prelims link:

Wild boar (IUCN status, distribution)

Wildlife Act, 1972

Local bodies (73rd and 74th constitutional amendment acts)

Mains links:

Empowering local bodies can build democracy at grassroot levels. Discuss with recent examples.

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. Under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 Director of Wildlife Preservation is appointed by the state government and chief Wildlife warden is appointed by the central government.
2. The IUCN status of Wild Boar is of least concern.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct:

• 1 only
• 2 only
• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : (b)

GS Paper 3

Syllabus: Conservation, Environmental pollution and degradation.

Context:

• With a ban on 19 single use plastic (SUP) items to kick in from July 1, Delhi Environment Minister said the government will hold an exhibition in June to promote alternatives to SUP.

Single-use plastics or disposable plastics:

• They are used only once before they are thrown away or recycled.
• Petroleum-based plastic is non biodegradable and usually goes into a landfill where it is buried or it gets into the water and finds its way into the ocean.
• In the process of breaking down, it releases toxic chemicals (additives that were used to shape and harden the plastic) which make their way into our food and water supply.

Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2022:

• Classification of Plastics:
  Category 1: Rigid plastic packaging will be included under this category.
  Category 2: Flexible plastic packaging of single layer or multilayer (more than one layer with different types of plastic), plastic sheets and covers made of plastic sheet, carry bags, plastic sachet or pouches will be included under this category.
  Category 3: Multi-layered plastic packaging (at least one layer of plastic and at least one layer of material other than plastic) will be included under this category.
  Category 4: Plastic sheet or like used for packaging as well as carry bags made of compostable plastics fall under this category.
• Plastic Packaging:
  Reuse of rigid plastic packaging material has been mandated in the guidelines to reduce the use of fresh plastic material for packaging.
• Extended Producer Responsibility Certificates:
  It allows for sale and purchase of surplus extended producer responsibility certificates.
• Centralised Online Portal:
  The government has also called for establishing a centralized online portal by Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) for the registration as well as filing of annual returns by producers, importers and brand-owners, plastic waste processors of plastic packaging waste by 31st March, 2022.
• Environmental Compensation:
  It will be levied based upon polluter pays principle, with respect to non-fulfilment of EPR targets by producers, importers and brand owners, for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the environment and preventing, controlling and abating environment pollution.
• Committee to Recommend Measures:
  A committee constituted by the CPCB under the chairmanship of CPCB chairman will recommend measures to the environment ministry for effective implementation of EPR, including amendments to Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) guidelines.
• Annual Report on EPR Portal:
  State Pollution Control Board (SPCBs) or Pollution Control Committees (PCCs) have been tasked to submit an annual report on EPR portal with respect to its fulfillment by producers, importers and brand-owners and plastic waste processors in the state/Union Territory to the CPCB.

Insta Links:

Prelims links:

Single use plastics

Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2022

Mains link:

Critically analyze Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2022.

Q6. Which of the following is/are correct with reference to Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2022?

1. It allows for sale and purchase of surplus for extended producer responsibility certificates.
2. Flexible plastics are placed under category 1 plastics.
3. Reuse of rigid plastic packaging material is voluntary.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

• 1 only
• 2 only 3 only
• 1 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)