INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2022
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2022
- Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2022 [ HERE ]
- CSAT Plan for Insta 75 Days Revision Plan – 2022 [ CLICK HERE ]
- Know about how to follow INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan – 2022 [ CLICK HERE ]
- Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ]
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- In case of a conflict between the central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in the Concurrent List, the State law prevails over the Central law.
- The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State list for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
In case of a conflict between the central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails over the State law.
The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the state list for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions.
This provision enables the Central government to fulfil its international obligations and commitments.
Incorrect
Solution: B
In case of a conflict between the central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails over the State law.
The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the state list for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions.
This provision enables the Central government to fulfil its international obligations and commitments.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The governor can reserve certain types of bills passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President.
- The President can direct the states to reserve money bills and other financial bills passed by the state legislature for his consideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Besides the Parliament’s power to legislate directly on the state subjects under the exceptional situations, the Constitution empowers the Centre to exercise control over the state’s legislative matters in the following ways:
(i) The governor can reserve certain types of bills passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President. The president enjoys absolute veto over them.
(ii) Bills on certain matters enumerated in the State List can be introduced in the state legislature only with the previous sanction of the president. (For example, the bills imposing restrictions on the freedom of trade and commerce).
(iii) The President can direct the states to reserve money bills and other financial bills passed by the state legislature for his consideration during a financial emergency.Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Besides the Parliament’s power to legislate directly on the state subjects under the exceptional situations, the Constitution empowers the Centre to exercise control over the state’s legislative matters in the following ways:
(i) The governor can reserve certain types of bills passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President. The president enjoys absolute veto over them.
(ii) Bills on certain matters enumerated in the State List can be introduced in the state legislature only with the previous sanction of the president. (For example, the bills imposing restrictions on the freedom of trade and commerce).
(iii) The President can direct the states to reserve money bills and other financial bills passed by the state legislature for his consideration during a financial emergency. -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following circumstances or situation centre can give directions to the states
- The construction and maintenance of means of communication.
- The measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the state.
- Day to day administration of State
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: A
Centre’s Directions to the States
In addition to the above two cases, the Centre is empowered to give directions to the states with regard to the exercise of their executive power in the following matters:
(i) the construction and maintenance of means of communication (declared to be of national or military importance) by the state;
(ii) the measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the state;
(iii) the provision of adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups in the state; and
(iv) the drawing up and execution of the specified schemes for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the state.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Centre’s Directions to the States
In addition to the above two cases, the Centre is empowered to give directions to the states with regard to the exercise of their executive power in the following matters:
(i) the construction and maintenance of means of communication (declared to be of national or military importance) by the state;
(ii) the measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the state;
(iii) the provision of adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups in the state; and
(iv) the drawing up and execution of the specified schemes for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the state.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The Parliament can provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
- During the operation of a national emergency, the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on any matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Constitution contains the following provisions to secure cooperation and co-ordination between the Centre and the states:
- The Parliament can provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
- The President can establish (under Article 263) an Inter-State Council to investigate anddiscuss subject of common interest between the Centre and the states. Such a council was setup in 1990.
During the operation of a national emergency (under Article 352), the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on ‘any’ matter. Thus, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the Centre, though they are not suspended.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Constitution contains the following provisions to secure cooperation and co-ordination between the Centre and the states:
- The Parliament can provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
- The President can establish (under Article 263) an Inter-State Council to investigate anddiscuss subject of common interest between the Centre and the states. Such a council was setup in 1990.
During the operation of a national emergency (under Article 352), the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on ‘any’ matter. Thus, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the Centre, though they are not suspended.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The state legislature has exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the State List.
- The residuary power of taxation is vested in the State Legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The state legislature has exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the State List. Both the Parliament and the state legislature can levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List.
The residuary power of taxation (that is, the power to impose taxes not enumerated in any of the three lists) is vested in the Parliament. Under this provision, the Parliament has imposed gift tax, wealth tax and expenditure tax.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The state legislature has exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the State List. Both the Parliament and the state legislature can levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List.
The residuary power of taxation (that is, the power to impose taxes not enumerated in any of the three lists) is vested in the Parliament. Under this provision, the Parliament has imposed gift tax, wealth tax and expenditure tax.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- A state cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre, if there is still out-standing any part of a loan made to the state by the Centre.
- The Central government cannot make loans to any state or give guarantees in respect of loans raised by any state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
A state cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre, if there is still out-standing any part of a loan made to the state by the Centre or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Centre.
The Central government can make loans to any state or give guarantees in respect of loans raised by any state. Any sums required for the purpose of making such loans are to be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Incorrect
Solution: A
A state cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre, if there is still out-standing any part of a loan made to the state by the Centre or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Centre.
The Central government can make loans to any state or give guarantees in respect of loans raised by any state. Any sums required for the purpose of making such loans are to be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the recommendations of Sarkaria Commission?
- Article 356 should be used very sparingly, in extreme cases as a last resort
when all the available alternatives fail. - When the president withholds his assent to the state bills, the reasons should be communicated to the state government.
- The Centre should consult the states before making a law on a subject of the Concurrent List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Sarkaria Commission
In 1983, the Central government appointed a three-member Commission on Centre–state relations under the chairmanship of R S Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court.
The Commission made 247 recommendations to improve Centre–state relations. The important recommendations are mentioned below:
- A permanent Inter-State Council called the Inter-Governmental Council should be set up under Article 263.
2. Article 356 (President’s Rule) should be used very sparingly, in extreme cases as a last resort when all the available alternatives fail. - When the president withholds his assent to the state bills, the reasons should be communicated to the state government.
- The Centre should have powers to deploy its armed forces, even without the consent of states.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Sarkaria Commission
In 1983, the Central government appointed a three-member Commission on Centre–state relations under the chairmanship of R S Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court.
The Commission made 247 recommendations to improve Centre–state relations. The important recommendations are mentioned below:
- A permanent Inter-State Council called the Inter-Governmental Council should be set up under Article 263.
2. Article 356 (President’s Rule) should be used very sparingly, in extreme cases as a last resort when all the available alternatives fail. - When the president withholds his assent to the state bills, the reasons should be communicated to the state government.
- The Centre should have powers to deploy its armed forces, even without the consent of states.
- Article 356 should be used very sparingly, in extreme cases as a last resort
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements Zonal Council
- Zonal Councils are constitutional bodies.
- Prime Minister is the common chairman of the five zonal councils.
- It aims at promoting cooperation and coordination between states, union territories and the Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Re-organisation Act of 1956. The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone.
The home minister of Central government is the common chairman of the five zonal councils. Each chief minister acts as a vice-chairman of the council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time.
The zonal councils aim at promoting cooperation and coordination between states, union territories and the Centre. They discuss and make recommendations regarding matters like economic and social planning, linguistic minorities, border disputes, inter-state transport, and so on. They are only deliberative and advisory bodies.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Re-organisation Act of 1956. The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone.
The home minister of Central government is the common chairman of the five zonal councils. Each chief minister acts as a vice-chairman of the council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time.
The zonal councils aim at promoting cooperation and coordination between states, union territories and the Centre. They discuss and make recommendations regarding matters like economic and social planning, linguistic minorities, border disputes, inter-state transport, and so on. They are only deliberative and advisory bodies.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- During an Emergency, the Central government becomes all powerful and the states go into the total control of the Centre.
- The word National Emergency is mentioned in constitution
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
During an Emergency, the Central government becomes all powerful and the states go into the total control of the Centre. It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution.
An emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion (Article 352). This is popularly known as ‘National Emergency’. However, the Constitution employs the expression ‘proclamation of emergency’ to denote an emergency of this type. The word National Emergency is not mentioned in constitution
Incorrect
Solution: A
During an Emergency, the Central government becomes all powerful and the states go into the total control of the Centre. It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution.
An emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion (Article 352). This is popularly known as ‘National Emergency’. However, the Constitution employs the expression ‘proclamation of emergency’ to denote an emergency of this type. The word National Emergency is not mentioned in constitution
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within six months from the date of its issue.
- Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue. Originally, the period allowed for approval by the Parliament was two months, but was reduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.
Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority, which is, (a) a majority of the total membership of that house, and (b) a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that house present and voting.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue. Originally, the period allowed for approval by the Parliament was two months, but was reduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.
Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority, which is, (a) a majority of the total membership of that house, and (b) a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that house present and voting.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised.
- The laws made by Parliament on the state subjects during a National Emergency would exist until repealed by State Legislature or Parliament.
- When a proclamation of national emergency is made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised. In normal times, the Centre can give executive directions to a state only on certain specified matters.
The laws made by Parliament on the state subjects during a National Emergency become inoperative six months after the emergency has ceased to operate. Notably, while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the President can issue ordinances on the state subjects also, if the Parliament is not in session
According to Article 358, when a proclamation of national emergency is made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended. No separate order for their suspension is required.
Incorrect
Solution: B
During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised. In normal times, the Centre can give executive directions to a state only on certain specified matters.
The laws made by Parliament on the state subjects during a National Emergency become inoperative six months after the emergency has ceased to operate. Notably, while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the President can issue ordinances on the state subjects also, if the Parliament is not in session
According to Article 358, when a proclamation of national emergency is made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended. No separate order for their suspension is required.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Article 359 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 358 extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order.
- Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Article 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 359 extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order.
Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it. Article 358 suspends Article 19 completely while Article 359 does not empower the suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Article 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 359 extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order.
Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it. Article 358 suspends Article 19 completely while Article 359 does not empower the suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Article 355 imposes a duty on the Centre to ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
- President’s rule automatically dissolves state legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Article 355 imposes a duty on the Centre to ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
It is this duty in the performance of which the Centre takes over the government of a state under Article 356 in case of failure of constitutional
machinery in state.President’s automatically suspends state legislature.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Article 355 imposes a duty on the Centre to ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
It is this duty in the performance of which the Centre takes over the government of a state under Article 356 in case of failure of constitutional
machinery in state.President’s automatically suspends state legislature.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The presidential proclamation imposing President’s Rule is subject to not subjected to judicial review.
- A state government pursuing anti-secular politics is liable to action under Article 356.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The presidential proclamation imposing President’s Rule is subject to judicial review. The satisfaction of the President must be based on relevant material. The action of the president can be struck down by the court if it is based on irrelevant or extraneous grounds or if it was found to be malafide or perverse.
Secularism is one of the ‘basic features’ of the Constitution. Hence, a state government pursuing anti-secular politics is liable to action under Article 356.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The presidential proclamation imposing President’s Rule is subject to judicial review. The satisfaction of the President must be based on relevant material. The action of the president can be struck down by the court if it is based on irrelevant or extraneous grounds or if it was found to be malafide or perverse.
Secularism is one of the ‘basic features’ of the Constitution. Hence, a state government pursuing anti-secular politics is liable to action under Article 356.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- President’s rule was never imposed on Telangana.
- During Financial Emergency, President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of Judges of the Supreme Court and the high court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
Telangana is a new state and President’s rule was never imposed on it.
Effects of Financial Emergency
The consequences of the proclamation of a Financial Emergency are as follows:- The executive authority of the Centre extends (a) to directing any state to observe such canons of financial propriety as are specified by it; and (b) to directions as the President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose.
- Any such direction may include a provision requiring
(a) the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in the state; and
(b) the reservation of all money bills or other financial bills for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the legislature of the state.
3. The President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of (a) all or any class of persons serving the Union; and (b) the judges of the Supreme Court and the high court.Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
Telangana is a new state and President’s rule was never imposed on it.
Effects of Financial Emergency
The consequences of the proclamation of a Financial Emergency are as follows:- The executive authority of the Centre extends (a) to directing any state to observe such canons of financial propriety as are specified by it; and (b) to directions as the President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose.
- Any such direction may include a provision requiring
(a) the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in the state; and
(b) the reservation of all money bills or other financial bills for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the legislature of the state.
3. The President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of (a) all or any class of persons serving the Union; and (b) the judges of the Supreme Court and the high court. -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements in regard to the Legislative councils :
- The State Legislative Council, or Vidhan Parishad, or Saasada Mandali is the lower house in those states of India.
- Its establishment is defined in Article 168 of the Constitution of India.
- As of 2022, 8 out of 28 states have a State Legislative Council.
- The states-Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh have legislative councils.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Solution:
- The State Legislative Council, or Vidhan Parishad, or Saasada Mandali is the upper house in those states of India that have a bicameral state legislature; the lower house being the State Legislative Assembly.
- Its establishment is defined in Article 168 of the Constitution of India.
- As of 2022, 6 out of 28 states have a State Legislative Council.
- These are Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Solution:
- The State Legislative Council, or Vidhan Parishad, or Saasada Mandali is the upper house in those states of India that have a bicameral state legislature; the lower house being the State Legislative Assembly.
- Its establishment is defined in Article 168 of the Constitution of India.
- As of 2022, 6 out of 28 states have a State Legislative Council.
- These are Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the advantages of Gig Economy:
- It helps in flexible and adaptable lifestyles.
- It strengthens traditional economic relationships.
- It benefits both employers and employees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Solution:
- The gig economy undermines the traditional economy of full-time workers who often focus on their career development.
- The gig economy can benefit workers, businesses, and consumers by making work more adaptable to the needs of the moment and the demand for flexible lifestyles.
- The gig economy has many benefits for both the employee and employer. An employer has access to a wide range of talent that they can hire. If the talent proves to be less than acceptable, there is no contract to keep the employee on or issues of letting them go.
- For employees, the gig economy’s benefits include having the option to do multiple jobs, work from anywhere depending on the specific job, freedom, and flexibility in their daily routine.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Solution:
- The gig economy undermines the traditional economy of full-time workers who often focus on their career development.
- The gig economy can benefit workers, businesses, and consumers by making work more adaptable to the needs of the moment and the demand for flexible lifestyles.
- The gig economy has many benefits for both the employee and employer. An employer has access to a wide range of talent that they can hire. If the talent proves to be less than acceptable, there is no contract to keep the employee on or issues of letting them go.
- For employees, the gig economy’s benefits include having the option to do multiple jobs, work from anywhere depending on the specific job, freedom, and flexibility in their daily routine.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements in regard to Crypto Currencies:
- Cryptocurrency can exist in physical form (like paper money) and is typically not issued by a central authority.
- Cryptocurrencies typically use decentralized control as opposed to a central bank digital currency (CBDC).
- Cryptocurrency works through distributed ledger technology, typically a blockchain, that serves as a public financial transaction database.
- There are currently over a thousand different cryptocurrencies in the world.
- Cryptocurrencies use special techniques to authenticate and protect transactions and do not use encryption to authenticate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Solution:
- Cryptocurrency does not exist in physical form (like paper money) and is typically not issued by a central authority.
- Cryptocurrencies typically use decentralized control as opposed to a central bank digital currency (CBDC).
- When a cryptocurrency is minted or created prior to issuance or issued by a single issuer, it is generally considered centralized.
- When implemented with decentralized control, each cryptocurrency works through distributed ledger technology, typically a blockchain, that serves as a public financial transaction database.
- A cryptocurrency is a tradable digital asset or digital form of money, built on blockchain technology that only exists online.
- Cryptocurrencies use encryption to authenticate and protect transactions, hence their name.
- There are currently over a thousand different cryptocurrencies in the world.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Solution:
- Cryptocurrency does not exist in physical form (like paper money) and is typically not issued by a central authority.
- Cryptocurrencies typically use decentralized control as opposed to a central bank digital currency (CBDC).
- When a cryptocurrency is minted or created prior to issuance or issued by a single issuer, it is generally considered centralized.
- When implemented with decentralized control, each cryptocurrency works through distributed ledger technology, typically a blockchain, that serves as a public financial transaction database.
- A cryptocurrency is a tradable digital asset or digital form of money, built on blockchain technology that only exists online.
- Cryptocurrencies use encryption to authenticate and protect transactions, hence their name.
- There are currently over a thousand different cryptocurrencies in the world.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following organisations appears to replace SAARC grouping sometimes referred to as mini-SAARC.
Correct
Solution: D
Solution:
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is an international organisation of seven South Asian and Southeast Asian nations, housing 1.73 billion people and having a combined gross domestic product of US$ 4.4 trillion (2022).The BIMSTEC member states – Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand – are among the countries dependent on the Bay of Bengal.
Fourteen priority sectors of cooperation have been identified and several BIMSTEC centres have been established to focus on those sectors. A BIMSTEC free trade agreement is under negotiation, also referred to as the mini SAARC.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Solution:
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is an international organisation of seven South Asian and Southeast Asian nations, housing 1.73 billion people and having a combined gross domestic product of US$ 4.4 trillion (2022).The BIMSTEC member states – Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand – are among the countries dependent on the Bay of Bengal.
Fourteen priority sectors of cooperation have been identified and several BIMSTEC centres have been established to focus on those sectors. A BIMSTEC free trade agreement is under negotiation, also referred to as the mini SAARC.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsBOLD-QIT Project, sometimes seen in news is a
Correct
Solution: D
Solution:
BOLD-QIT is the project to install technical systems which enable BSF to equip Indo-Bangla borders with different kinds of sensors in the unfenced riverine area of the Brahmaputra and its tributaries.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Solution:
BOLD-QIT is the project to install technical systems which enable BSF to equip Indo-Bangla borders with different kinds of sensors in the unfenced riverine area of the Brahmaputra and its tributaries.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) centrally sponsored scheme Ministry of women and child development.
- The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a central sector scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- In both the above schemes financial assistance is provided to women.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) centrally sponsored scheme Ministry of women and child development. The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a centrally sponsored scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.In both the above schemes financial assistance is provided to women.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) centrally sponsored scheme Ministry of women and child development. The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a centrally sponsored scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.In both the above schemes financial assistance is provided to women.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsIn the context of MSME’s consider the following statements
- Government of India & SIDBI set up the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE)
- The aim of CGTMSE, is facilitate flow of credit to MSME sector without the need for collaterals / third party guarantees
- TamilNadu tops India‘s list of MSMEs
Which of the following statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Solution: Government of India & SIDBI set up the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) The aim of CGTMSE, is facilitate flow of credit to MSME sector without the need for collaterals / third party guarantees. Maharashtra tops India‘s list of MSMEs
Incorrect
Solution: C
Solution: Government of India & SIDBI set up the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) The aim of CGTMSE, is facilitate flow of credit to MSME sector without the need for collaterals / third party guarantees. Maharashtra tops India‘s list of MSMEs
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), consider the following statements.
- To aims to provide connectivity, by way of an all-weather road to unconnected habitations.
- To connect population size 500+ in plain areas and 250+ in North-Eastern States, Himalayan States, Deserts and Tribal Areas as per 2001 census population.
- Funding is 60 : 40 for States & 90:10 ratio for Himalayan states
Which of the following statements are correct?
Correct
Solution : C
Solution: To aims to provide connectivity, by way of an all-weather road to unconnected habitations.To connect population size 500+ in plain areas and 250+ in North-Eastern States, Himalayan States, Deserts and Tribal Areas as per 2001 census population.Funding is 70: 30 for States & 90 : 10 ratio for Himalayan states
Incorrect
Solution : C
Solution: To aims to provide connectivity, by way of an all-weather road to unconnected habitations.To connect population size 500+ in plain areas and 250+ in North-Eastern States, Himalayan States, Deserts and Tribal Areas as per 2001 census population.Funding is 70: 30 for States & 90 : 10 ratio for Himalayan states
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsSometimes seen in news Bharat Gaurav Scheme is launched by
Correct
Solution: A
Solution: Indian Railways has announced the new scheme “Bharat Gaurav” to tap the huge potential of tourism in the country.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Solution: Indian Railways has announced the new scheme “Bharat Gaurav” to tap the huge potential of tourism in the country.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWith respect to State Development Loans (SDLs) consider the following statements?
- State Development Loans (SDLs) are dated securities, usually for a longer duration.
- Returns on SDL’’s are less than G -Secs
- SDL securities are also eligible securities for Statutory Liquid Ratio of RBI.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
State Development Loans (SDLs) are dated securities [for longer duration] issued by states for meeting their market borrowings requirements. SDL usually gives higher return than G-Sec SDL securities are eligible securities for SLR and LAF of the RBI.
Incorrect
Solution: A
State Development Loans (SDLs) are dated securities [for longer duration] issued by states for meeting their market borrowings requirements. SDL usually gives higher return than G-Sec SDL securities are eligible securities for SLR and LAF of the RBI.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsThere are 10 stations on a railway line. The number of different journey tickets that are required by the authorities, is
Correct
Answer : b
There are 10 stations on railway line the number of different journey
So, tickets between two stations from given 10 stations from one side = 10C2 = [(10´ 9)/2] = 45
Similarly, number of different journey
tickets from other side = 45
\Total number of tickets to be generated by authorities.
= 45 + 45= 90
Incorrect
Answer : b
There are 10 stations on railway line the number of different journey
So, tickets between two stations from given 10 stations from one side = 10C2 = [(10´ 9)/2] = 45
Similarly, number of different journey
tickets from other side = 45
\Total number of tickets to be generated by authorities.
= 45 + 45= 90
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 points5 men start working to complete a work in 15 days. After 5 days, 10 women are accompanied by them to complete the work in next 5 days. If the work is to be done by Women only, when could the work be over, if 10 women have started it?
Correct
Answer : c
According to the question,
5 men’s 1 day’s work= (1/15) ………………………..(1)
5 men’s 5 day’s work= (1/15)* 5 = 1/3
Remaining work = 1 – (1/3) = (2/3)
5 men + 10 women can do (2/3)of the work in 5 days.
5 men +10 women can do the whole of
the work in (15/2)days.
(5 men + 10 women’s) 1 day’s work = (2/15) ……………….(2)
10 women’s 1 day’s work
= (2/15)-5 men’s 1 day’s work
=(2/15)-(1/15)=(1/15)
\10 women can finish the work in 15 days.
Incorrect
Answer : c
According to the question,
5 men’s 1 day’s work= (1/15) ………………………..(1)
5 men’s 5 day’s work= (1/15)* 5 = 1/3
Remaining work = 1 – (1/3) = (2/3)
5 men + 10 women can do (2/3)of the work in 5 days.
5 men +10 women can do the whole of
the work in (15/2)days.
(5 men + 10 women’s) 1 day’s work = (2/15) ……………….(2)
10 women’s 1 day’s work
= (2/15)-5 men’s 1 day’s work
=(2/15)-(1/15)=(1/15)
\10 women can finish the work in 15 days.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 points195 +215 is divisible by
Correct
Sol . C
We can check divisibility of . 195 +215 by 10 by adding the unit
digits of 95 and 15 which is equal to 9 + 1 = 10
So, it must be divisible by 10.
Now, for divisibility by 20, we add 19 and 21 which is equal to 40.
So, it is clear that it is also divisible by 20
So, it is divisible by both 10 and 20
Incorrect
Sol . C
We can check divisibility of . 195 +215 by 10 by adding the unit
digits of 95 and 15 which is equal to 9 + 1 = 10
So, it must be divisible by 10.
Now, for divisibility by 20, we add 19 and 21 which is equal to 40.
So, it is clear that it is also divisible by 20
So, it is divisible by both 10 and 20
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsA is thrice as efficient as B and hence completes a work in 40 days less than the number of days taken by B. What will be the number of days taken by both of them when working together?
Correct
Sol . B
Let efficiency of A be x days.
Then, efficiency of B = 3x days
Hence, B’s one day’s work= 1/3x
and A’s one day’s work = 1/x
Again, let time taken by B be t days.
Then, time taken by A = (t – 40) days
Now, t/3x = (t-40)
Hence, t = 60 days
So, B complete the work in 60 days and A complete the work in
20 days
If both of them work together, then they will complete the work in n
days (let).
n/60 + n/20 = 1
so, n = 15.
Hence, they will complete the work in 15 days when work together.
Incorrect
Sol . B
Let efficiency of A be x days.
Then, efficiency of B = 3x days
Hence, B’s one day’s work= 1/3x
and A’s one day’s work = 1/x
Again, let time taken by B be t days.
Then, time taken by A = (t – 40) days
Now, t/3x = (t-40)
Hence, t = 60 days
So, B complete the work in 60 days and A complete the work in
20 days
If both of them work together, then they will complete the work in n
days (let).
n/60 + n/20 = 1
so, n = 15.
Hence, they will complete the work in 15 days when work together.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsOne of the biggest ironies around water is that it comes from rivers and other wetlands. Yet it is seen as divorced from them. While water is used as a resource, public policy does not always grasp that it is a part of the natural ecosystem. Efforts at engineering water systems are thus efforts at augmenting water supply rather than strengthening the capacities of ecological systems.
Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct
Sol. (c)
The passage talks about strengthening the capacities of ecological system.
Incorrect
Sol. (c)
The passage talks about strengthening the capacities of ecological system.
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