INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2022
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2022
- Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2022 [ HERE ]
- CSAT Plan for Insta 75 Days Revision Plan – 2022 [ CLICK HERE ]
- Know about how to follow INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan – 2022 [ CLICK HERE ]
- Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ]
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following industries is/are covered under Rural Industry Service Centre (RISC)
- Herbal products: Cosmetics and Medicines.
- Detergents & Soaps
- Hand Made Paper
- Food processing
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Rural Industry Service Centre (RISC)
About the scheme
“Rural Industry Service Centre (RISC) is the Common Facility Unit which aims to provide infrastructural support and necessary services to the local units to upgrade their production capacity, skill upgradation and market promotion.”
The Rural Industry Service Centre (RISC) must cover one of the following services
- Provide testing facilities by establishing laboratory to ensure quality of the products.
- Provide improved machinery/equipment to be utilised as common utility facilities by the nearby unites /artisans to enhance production capacity or value addition of the product
Provide attractive and appropriate packaging facilities and machinaries to the local unties / artisans for better marketing of their products.
For the purpose of establishing Rural Industry Service Centre (RISC), it may be ensured that the number of artisans / Village Industries units shall not be less than 25 individual artisans or 5 REGP units / VI Institutions / Societies for projects upto Rs.5.00 lakhs.
The implementing agency / Organisation should have its own land where the Rural Industry Service Centre (RISC) will be established.
Industries covered under RISC
- Khadi & Poly Vastra post weaving value addition facilities.
- Herbal products: Cosmetics and Medicines.
- Edible Oil,
- Detergents & Soaps.
- Honey
- Hand Made Paper
- Food processing
- Bio-Fertilizer / Bio-Pesticides / Bio Manure
- Pottery
- Leather
- Woodwork
- All other V.I. except those which are in the negative list.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Rural Industry Service Centre (RISC)
About the scheme
“Rural Industry Service Centre (RISC) is the Common Facility Unit which aims to provide infrastructural support and necessary services to the local units to upgrade their production capacity, skill upgradation and market promotion.”
The Rural Industry Service Centre (RISC) must cover one of the following services
- Provide testing facilities by establishing laboratory to ensure quality of the products.
- Provide improved machinery/equipment to be utilised as common utility facilities by the nearby unites /artisans to enhance production capacity or value addition of the product
Provide attractive and appropriate packaging facilities and machinaries to the local unties / artisans for better marketing of their products.
For the purpose of establishing Rural Industry Service Centre (RISC), it may be ensured that the number of artisans / Village Industries units shall not be less than 25 individual artisans or 5 REGP units / VI Institutions / Societies for projects upto Rs.5.00 lakhs.
The implementing agency / Organisation should have its own land where the Rural Industry Service Centre (RISC) will be established.
Industries covered under RISC
- Khadi & Poly Vastra post weaving value addition facilities.
- Herbal products: Cosmetics and Medicines.
- Edible Oil,
- Detergents & Soaps.
- Honey
- Hand Made Paper
- Food processing
- Bio-Fertilizer / Bio-Pesticides / Bio Manure
- Pottery
- Leather
- Woodwork
- All other V.I. except those which are in the negative list.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Deen Dayal Sparsh Yojana
- Ministry of Education has launched the philately scholarship scheme Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana.
- Under the scheme, students of class VI to IX will be provided a scholarship of Rs. 6000/- per annum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Deen Dayal Sparsh Yojana, a Pan India Scholarship Programme Launched on 03.11.17 by our Government of India for the welfare of school children and to increase the reach of Philately.
Department of Posts has launched a philately scholarship scheme Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana (Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude & Research in Stamps as a Hobby) on 03.11.2017 for generating interest regarding Philately amongst students. Students of class VI to IX having good academic record and having either Philately Deposit Account or Member of Philately Club at schools are being awarded scholarship on the basis of a Philately quiz and a Philately project. The amount of scholarship is Rs. 6000/- per annum and it will be deposited in the quarterly basis (Rs. 1500/- per quarter). Department of Posts will conduct this scholarship program every year in future
Incorrect
Solution: B
Deen Dayal Sparsh Yojana, a Pan India Scholarship Programme Launched on 03.11.17 by our Government of India for the welfare of school children and to increase the reach of Philately.
Department of Posts has launched a philately scholarship scheme Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana (Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude & Research in Stamps as a Hobby) on 03.11.2017 for generating interest regarding Philately amongst students. Students of class VI to IX having good academic record and having either Philately Deposit Account or Member of Philately Club at schools are being awarded scholarship on the basis of a Philately quiz and a Philately project. The amount of scholarship is Rs. 6000/- per annum and it will be deposited in the quarterly basis (Rs. 1500/- per quarter). Department of Posts will conduct this scholarship program every year in future
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsPrice Stabilisation Fund (PSF) will be maintained by
Correct
Solution: A
Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) refers to any fund constituted for the purpose of containing extreme volatility in prices of selected commodities. The amount in the fund is generally utilised for activities aimed at bringing down/up the high/low prices say for instance, procurement of such products and distribution of the same as and when required, so that prices remain in a range.
India first created a price stabilisation fund for some export-oriented plantation crops in 2003, and this ceased to exist in 2013. Another fund was created in 2015 for perishable agricultural and horticultural commodities, but initially limited to support potato and onion prices only.
PSF mechanism is apart from the Minimum Support Price (MSP) based initiatives already existing in the country for certain agricultural goods. The MSP system has some price tempering properties, but it is from the perspective of the growers / farmers and becomes operative when prices fall below the cost of production. The output thus procured by the Government at MSP is later distributed at affordable rates through the public distribution system.
A Price Stabilization Fund of Rs. 500 Crore for agricultural commodities was announced in the Union Budget 2014-15 with a view to mitigate volatility in the prices of agricultural produce.
The Price Stabilization Fund will be managed centrally by a Price Stabilization Fund Management Committee (PSFMC) which will approve all proposals from State Governments and Central Agencies. The PSF will be maintained as a Central Corpus Fund by Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC), a society promoted by Ministry of Agriculture for linking agriculture to private businesses and investments and technology.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) refers to any fund constituted for the purpose of containing extreme volatility in prices of selected commodities. The amount in the fund is generally utilised for activities aimed at bringing down/up the high/low prices say for instance, procurement of such products and distribution of the same as and when required, so that prices remain in a range.
India first created a price stabilisation fund for some export-oriented plantation crops in 2003, and this ceased to exist in 2013. Another fund was created in 2015 for perishable agricultural and horticultural commodities, but initially limited to support potato and onion prices only.
PSF mechanism is apart from the Minimum Support Price (MSP) based initiatives already existing in the country for certain agricultural goods. The MSP system has some price tempering properties, but it is from the perspective of the growers / farmers and becomes operative when prices fall below the cost of production. The output thus procured by the Government at MSP is later distributed at affordable rates through the public distribution system.
A Price Stabilization Fund of Rs. 500 Crore for agricultural commodities was announced in the Union Budget 2014-15 with a view to mitigate volatility in the prices of agricultural produce.
The Price Stabilization Fund will be managed centrally by a Price Stabilization Fund Management Committee (PSFMC) which will approve all proposals from State Governments and Central Agencies. The PSF will be maintained as a Central Corpus Fund by Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC), a society promoted by Ministry of Agriculture for linking agriculture to private businesses and investments and technology.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding International Commission of Jurists (ICJ)
- It is an international human rights non-governmental organization.
- It is a standing group of 60 eminent jurists including senior judges, attorneys and academics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
All the above statements are correct.
International Commission of Jurists (ICJ) Advocates for Justice and Human Rights
Since 1952 the ICJ has performed a unique and prominent role as a nongovernmental organization (NGO) defending human rights and the rule of law worldwide.
The ICJ’s peerless reputation rests on these pillars:
- 60 eminent judges and lawyers – from all parts of the world and all legal systems – with unparalleled knowledge of the law and human rights;
- Cooperating with governments committed to improving their human rights performance;
- Effective balance of diplomacy, constructive criticism, capacity building, and if necessary, ‘naming and shaming’;
- Unmatched direct access to national judiciaries implementing international standards and improved legislation impacting millions;
- Guiding, training and protecting judges and lawyers worldwide to uphold and implement these standards;
- Working for access to justice for victims, survivors and human rights defenders, in particular from marginalized communities;
- Following a strict result based management in performance of its projects.
The International Commission of Jurists (ICJ) is an international human rights non-governmental organization. It is a standing group of 60 eminent jurists—including senior judges, attorneys and academics—who work to develop national and international human rights standards through the law.
Incorrect
Solution: C
All the above statements are correct.
International Commission of Jurists (ICJ) Advocates for Justice and Human Rights
Since 1952 the ICJ has performed a unique and prominent role as a nongovernmental organization (NGO) defending human rights and the rule of law worldwide.
The ICJ’s peerless reputation rests on these pillars:
- 60 eminent judges and lawyers – from all parts of the world and all legal systems – with unparalleled knowledge of the law and human rights;
- Cooperating with governments committed to improving their human rights performance;
- Effective balance of diplomacy, constructive criticism, capacity building, and if necessary, ‘naming and shaming’;
- Unmatched direct access to national judiciaries implementing international standards and improved legislation impacting millions;
- Guiding, training and protecting judges and lawyers worldwide to uphold and implement these standards;
- Working for access to justice for victims, survivors and human rights defenders, in particular from marginalized communities;
- Following a strict result based management in performance of its projects.
The International Commission of Jurists (ICJ) is an international human rights non-governmental organization. It is a standing group of 60 eminent jurists—including senior judges, attorneys and academics—who work to develop national and international human rights standards through the law.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Atal Bhujal Yojana (ATAL JAL)
- It is a Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry of Jal Shakti to improve ground water management through community participation.
- The scheme will be implemented in identified priority areas in seven States, viz. Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
All the above statements are correct.
Atal Bhujal Yojana (ATAL JAL) is a Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry of Jal Shakti to improve ground water management through community participation. The scheme has a total outlay of Rs.6000 crore and is to be implemented over a period of 5 years (2020-21 to 2024-25).
Scheme Overview
Atal Bhujal Yojana (ATAL JAL) is an initiative for ensuring long term sustainability of ground water resources in the country. The Department of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti is adopting a mix of ‘top down’ and ‘bottom up’ approaches in identified ground water stressed blocks in seven states, representing a range of geomorphic, climatic and hydrogeologic and cultural settings. ATAL JAL has been designed with the principal objective of strengthening the institutional framework for participatory ground water management and bringing about behavioral changes at the community level for sustainable ground water resource management. The scheme envisages undertaking this through various interventions, including awareness programmes, capacity building, convergence of ongoing/new schemes and improved agricultural practices etc.
Coverage
The scheme aims to improve ground water management through community participation in identified priority areas in seven States, viz. Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. Implementation of the scheme is expected to benefit nearly 8350 Gram Panchayats in 78 districts in these States.
Scheme components
ATAL JAL has two major components:
- Institutional Strengthening and Capacity Building Component for strengthening institutional arrangements for sustainable ground water management in the States including improving monitoring networks, capacity building, strengthening of Water User Associations, etc.
- Incentive Component for incentivising the States for achievements in improved groundwater management practices namely, data dissemination, preparation of water security plans, implementation of management interventions through convergence of ongoing schemes, adopting demand side management practices etc.
Incorrect
Solution: C
All the above statements are correct.
Atal Bhujal Yojana (ATAL JAL) is a Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry of Jal Shakti to improve ground water management through community participation. The scheme has a total outlay of Rs.6000 crore and is to be implemented over a period of 5 years (2020-21 to 2024-25).
Scheme Overview
Atal Bhujal Yojana (ATAL JAL) is an initiative for ensuring long term sustainability of ground water resources in the country. The Department of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti is adopting a mix of ‘top down’ and ‘bottom up’ approaches in identified ground water stressed blocks in seven states, representing a range of geomorphic, climatic and hydrogeologic and cultural settings. ATAL JAL has been designed with the principal objective of strengthening the institutional framework for participatory ground water management and bringing about behavioral changes at the community level for sustainable ground water resource management. The scheme envisages undertaking this through various interventions, including awareness programmes, capacity building, convergence of ongoing/new schemes and improved agricultural practices etc.
Coverage
The scheme aims to improve ground water management through community participation in identified priority areas in seven States, viz. Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. Implementation of the scheme is expected to benefit nearly 8350 Gram Panchayats in 78 districts in these States.
Scheme components
ATAL JAL has two major components:
- Institutional Strengthening and Capacity Building Component for strengthening institutional arrangements for sustainable ground water management in the States including improving monitoring networks, capacity building, strengthening of Water User Associations, etc.
- Incentive Component for incentivising the States for achievements in improved groundwater management practices namely, data dissemination, preparation of water security plans, implementation of management interventions through convergence of ongoing schemes, adopting demand side management practices etc.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding SAFAR
- The SAFAR system is developed by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune.
- The system will monitor the existence of Benzene, Toluene and Xylene.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
All the above statements are correct.
About SAFAR
SAFAR envisages a research-based management system where strategies of air pollution mitigation go hand in hand with nation’s economic development to target a win-win scenario.
Through SAFAR know the City Air Quality– Over all city pollution and Location specific Air Quality– A relative contribution of different environments in a city
Under the plan scheme “Metropolitan Advisories for Cities for Sports, Tourism (Metropolitan Air Quality and Weather Services), Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Govt. of India, has introduced a major national initiative, “System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research” known as “SAFAR” for greater metropolitan cities of India to provide location specific information on air quality in near real time and its forecast 1-3 days in advance for the first time in India. It has been combined with the early warning system on weather parameters.
The SAFAR system is developed by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune, along with ESSO partner institutions namely India Meteorological Department (IMD) and National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF). The implementation of SAFAR is made possible with an active collaboration with local municipal corporations and various local educational institutions and governmental agencies in that Metro city. The ultimate objective of the project is to increase awareness among general public regarding the air quality in their city well in advance so that appropriate mitigation measures and systematic action can be taken up for betterment of air quality and related health issues. It engineers awareness drive by educating public, prompting self-mitigation and also to help develop mitigation strategies for policy makers.
In addition to regular air quality parameters like PM2.5, PM10, Sulfur Dioxide, Ozone, Nitrogen Oxides, Carbon Monoxide, the system will also monitor the existence of Benzene, Toluene and Xylene.
Besides health, SAFAR system would benefit cost savings to several other sectors like agriculture, aviation, infrastructure, disaster management skill, tourism and many others, which directly or indirectly get affected by air quality and weather.
Incorrect
Solution: C
All the above statements are correct.
About SAFAR
SAFAR envisages a research-based management system where strategies of air pollution mitigation go hand in hand with nation’s economic development to target a win-win scenario.
Through SAFAR know the City Air Quality– Over all city pollution and Location specific Air Quality– A relative contribution of different environments in a city
Under the plan scheme “Metropolitan Advisories for Cities for Sports, Tourism (Metropolitan Air Quality and Weather Services), Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Govt. of India, has introduced a major national initiative, “System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research” known as “SAFAR” for greater metropolitan cities of India to provide location specific information on air quality in near real time and its forecast 1-3 days in advance for the first time in India. It has been combined with the early warning system on weather parameters.
The SAFAR system is developed by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune, along with ESSO partner institutions namely India Meteorological Department (IMD) and National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF). The implementation of SAFAR is made possible with an active collaboration with local municipal corporations and various local educational institutions and governmental agencies in that Metro city. The ultimate objective of the project is to increase awareness among general public regarding the air quality in their city well in advance so that appropriate mitigation measures and systematic action can be taken up for betterment of air quality and related health issues. It engineers awareness drive by educating public, prompting self-mitigation and also to help develop mitigation strategies for policy makers.
In addition to regular air quality parameters like PM2.5, PM10, Sulfur Dioxide, Ozone, Nitrogen Oxides, Carbon Monoxide, the system will also monitor the existence of Benzene, Toluene and Xylene.
Besides health, SAFAR system would benefit cost savings to several other sectors like agriculture, aviation, infrastructure, disaster management skill, tourism and many others, which directly or indirectly get affected by air quality and weather.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
- The scheme is available to people in the age group of 18 to 50 and having a bank account.
- The scheme was launched to provide Accidental Death Insurance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY – Scheme 1 – for Accidental Death Insurance)
Eligibility: Available to people in age group 18 to 70 years with bank account. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Premium: Rs.12 per annum.
Payment Mode: The premium will be directly auto-debited by the bank from the subscribers account on or before 1 st June of each annual coverage period under the scheme.
Risk Coverage:
- Death – Rs 2 Lakh
- Total and irrecoverable loss of both eyes or loss of use of both hands or feet or loss of sight of one eye and loss of use of hand or foot – Rs 2 Lakh
- Total and irrecoverable loss of sight of one eye or loss of use of one hand or foot – Rs.1 Lakh.
Eligibility : Any person having a bank account and Aadhaar number linked to the bank account can give a simple form to the bank every year before 1st of June in order to join the scheme. Name of nominee to be given in the form.
The Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY – Scheme 2 – for Life Insurance Cover)
Eligibility : Available to people in the age group of 18 to 50 and having a bank account. People who join the scheme before completing 50 years can, however, continue to have the risk of life cover up to the age of 55 years subject to payment of premium.
Premium : Rs.330 per annum. It will be auto-debited in one installment.
Payment Mode: The payment of premium will be directly auto-debited by the bank from the subscribers account.
Risk Coverage : Rs.2 Lakh in case of death for any reason.
Terms of Risk Coverage : A person has to opt for the scheme every year. He can also prefer to give a long-term option of continuing, in which case his account will be auto-debited every year by the bank.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY – Scheme 1 – for Accidental Death Insurance)
Eligibility: Available to people in age group 18 to 70 years with bank account. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Premium: Rs.12 per annum.
Payment Mode: The premium will be directly auto-debited by the bank from the subscribers account on or before 1 st June of each annual coverage period under the scheme.
Risk Coverage:
- Death – Rs 2 Lakh
- Total and irrecoverable loss of both eyes or loss of use of both hands or feet or loss of sight of one eye and loss of use of hand or foot – Rs 2 Lakh
- Total and irrecoverable loss of sight of one eye or loss of use of one hand or foot – Rs.1 Lakh.
Eligibility : Any person having a bank account and Aadhaar number linked to the bank account can give a simple form to the bank every year before 1st of June in order to join the scheme. Name of nominee to be given in the form.
The Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY – Scheme 2 – for Life Insurance Cover)
Eligibility : Available to people in the age group of 18 to 50 and having a bank account. People who join the scheme before completing 50 years can, however, continue to have the risk of life cover up to the age of 55 years subject to payment of premium.
Premium : Rs.330 per annum. It will be auto-debited in one installment.
Payment Mode: The payment of premium will be directly auto-debited by the bank from the subscribers account.
Risk Coverage : Rs.2 Lakh in case of death for any reason.
Terms of Risk Coverage : A person has to opt for the scheme every year. He can also prefer to give a long-term option of continuing, in which case his account will be auto-debited every year by the bank.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram (JSSK)
- The scheme was launched in view of high out of pocket expenses incurred by pregnant women and parents of sick new-born.
- The initiative entitles all pregnant women delivering in public health institutions to absolutely free and no expense delivery, excluding caesarean section.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Government of India has launched the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram (JSSK) on 1st June, 2011. The scheme is to benefit pregnant women who access Government health facilities for their delivery. Moreover, it will motivate those who still choose to deliver at their homes to opt for institutional deliveries. All the States and UTs have initiated implementation of the scheme.
The New Initiative
In view of the difficulty being faced by the pregnant women and parents of sick new-born along-with high out of pocket expenses incurred by them on delivery and treatment of sick- new-born, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) has taken a major initiative to evolve a consensus on the part of all States to provide completely free and cashless services to pregnant women including normal deliveries and caesarean operations and sick new born (up to 30 days after birth) in Government health institutions in both rural and urban areas.
Key features of the scheme
The initiative entitles all pregnant women delivering in public health institutions to absolutely free and no expense delivery, including caesarean section. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- The entitlements include free drugs and consumables, free diet up to 3 days during normal delivery and up to 7 days for C-section, free diagnostics, and free blood wherever required. This initiative also provides for free transport from home to institution, between facilities in case of a referral and drop back home. Similar entitlements have been put in place for all sick newborns accessing public health institutions for treatment till 30 days after birth. This has now been expanded to cover sick infants.
- The scheme aims to eliminate out of pocket expenses incurred by the pregnant women and sick new borne while accessing services at Government health facilities.
- The scheme is estimated to benefit more than 12 million pregnant women who access Government health facilities for their delivery. Moreover it will motivate those who still choose to deliver at their homes to opt for institutional deliveries.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Government of India has launched the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram (JSSK) on 1st June, 2011. The scheme is to benefit pregnant women who access Government health facilities for their delivery. Moreover, it will motivate those who still choose to deliver at their homes to opt for institutional deliveries. All the States and UTs have initiated implementation of the scheme.
The New Initiative
In view of the difficulty being faced by the pregnant women and parents of sick new-born along-with high out of pocket expenses incurred by them on delivery and treatment of sick- new-born, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) has taken a major initiative to evolve a consensus on the part of all States to provide completely free and cashless services to pregnant women including normal deliveries and caesarean operations and sick new born (up to 30 days after birth) in Government health institutions in both rural and urban areas.
Key features of the scheme
The initiative entitles all pregnant women delivering in public health institutions to absolutely free and no expense delivery, including caesarean section. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- The entitlements include free drugs and consumables, free diet up to 3 days during normal delivery and up to 7 days for C-section, free diagnostics, and free blood wherever required. This initiative also provides for free transport from home to institution, between facilities in case of a referral and drop back home. Similar entitlements have been put in place for all sick newborns accessing public health institutions for treatment till 30 days after birth. This has now been expanded to cover sick infants.
- The scheme aims to eliminate out of pocket expenses incurred by the pregnant women and sick new borne while accessing services at Government health facilities.
- The scheme is estimated to benefit more than 12 million pregnant women who access Government health facilities for their delivery. Moreover it will motivate those who still choose to deliver at their homes to opt for institutional deliveries.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following diseases are covered under Universal Immunization Programme?
- Hepatitis B
- Japanese Encephalitis (JE)
- Pneumonia
- Tuberculosis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
All the above are correct.
Mission Indradhanush was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India on December 25, 2014. Between 2009-2013 immunization coverage has increased from 61% to 65%, indicating only 1% increase in coverage every year. To accelerate the process of immunization by covering 5% and more children every year, Indradhanush mission has been adopted to achieve target of full coverage by 2020.
Objective
The Mission Indradhanush aims to cover all those children by 2020 who are either unvaccinated, or are partially vaccinated against vaccine preventable diseases. India’s Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) provide free vaccines against 12 life threatening diseases, to 26 million children annually.
The Universal Immunization Programme provides life-saving vaccines to all children across the country free of cost to protect them against Tuberculosis, Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Hepatitis B, Pneumonia and Meningitis due to Haemophilus Influenzae type b (Hib), Measles, Rubella, Japanese Encephalitis (JE) and Rotavirus diarrhoea. (Rubella, JE and Rotavirus vaccine in select states and districts).
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the above are correct.
Mission Indradhanush was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India on December 25, 2014. Between 2009-2013 immunization coverage has increased from 61% to 65%, indicating only 1% increase in coverage every year. To accelerate the process of immunization by covering 5% and more children every year, Indradhanush mission has been adopted to achieve target of full coverage by 2020.
Objective
The Mission Indradhanush aims to cover all those children by 2020 who are either unvaccinated, or are partially vaccinated against vaccine preventable diseases. India’s Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) provide free vaccines against 12 life threatening diseases, to 26 million children annually.
The Universal Immunization Programme provides life-saving vaccines to all children across the country free of cost to protect them against Tuberculosis, Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Hepatitis B, Pneumonia and Meningitis due to Haemophilus Influenzae type b (Hib), Measles, Rubella, Japanese Encephalitis (JE) and Rotavirus diarrhoea. (Rubella, JE and Rotavirus vaccine in select states and districts).
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Lonar Lake
- It is an ancient circular lake created by a meteorite strike in Karnataka.
- Lonar crater is a geo-heritage site.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Why Lonar Lake turned pink?
Context:
Maharashtra’s Lonar Lake had turned Pink in June this year. Lakhs of people including the scientists were curious about this colour-change. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
What’s the reason behind colour change?
- It was due to a salt-loving bacteria (red-coloured archaeal strains classified as halophilic archaea or haloarchaea). It is associated with high salinity and alkalinity (pH).
- Pink colour of the water was not permanent- Once the biomass of the microbes settled at the bottom, the water became transparent during one such experiment at the labs.
These findings are based on a report by Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) in Pune, an autonomous body under the Department of Science and Technology.
Other Factors:
Absence of rain, less human interference and high temperature resulted in the evaporation of water which increased its salinity and pH.
The increased salinity and pH facilitated the growth of halophilic microbes, mainly Haloarchae.
Finding related to flamingos:
During the investigation, researchers also came across an interesting incidental finding related to flamingos that visit the lake.
- The plumage of the bird is pink or reddish in colour because of ingestion of carotenoids-rich food.
- This bacteria, which produces a pink pigment, is ingested by these birds and they get carotenoid-rich food, because of that their plumage is pink in colour.
Insta Facts:
- Lonar crater lake was identified as a unique geographical site by a British officer named CJE Alexander in 1823.
- It is an ancient circular lake created by a meteorite strike in Maharashtra.
- Lonar crater became a geo-heritage site in 1979.
- Lonar Lake lies within the only known extraterrestrial impact crater found within the great Deccan Traps, a huge basaltic formation in India (Source:Wikipedia).
Incorrect
Solution: B
Why Lonar Lake turned pink?
Context:
Maharashtra’s Lonar Lake had turned Pink in June this year. Lakhs of people including the scientists were curious about this colour-change. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
What’s the reason behind colour change?
- It was due to a salt-loving bacteria (red-coloured archaeal strains classified as halophilic archaea or haloarchaea). It is associated with high salinity and alkalinity (pH).
- Pink colour of the water was not permanent- Once the biomass of the microbes settled at the bottom, the water became transparent during one such experiment at the labs.
These findings are based on a report by Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) in Pune, an autonomous body under the Department of Science and Technology.
Other Factors:
Absence of rain, less human interference and high temperature resulted in the evaporation of water which increased its salinity and pH.
The increased salinity and pH facilitated the growth of halophilic microbes, mainly Haloarchae.
Finding related to flamingos:
During the investigation, researchers also came across an interesting incidental finding related to flamingos that visit the lake.
- The plumage of the bird is pink or reddish in colour because of ingestion of carotenoids-rich food.
- This bacteria, which produces a pink pigment, is ingested by these birds and they get carotenoid-rich food, because of that their plumage is pink in colour.
Insta Facts:
- Lonar crater lake was identified as a unique geographical site by a British officer named CJE Alexander in 1823.
- It is an ancient circular lake created by a meteorite strike in Maharashtra.
- Lonar crater became a geo-heritage site in 1979.
- Lonar Lake lies within the only known extraterrestrial impact crater found within the great Deccan Traps, a huge basaltic formation in India (Source:Wikipedia).
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsIn India, FDI is prohibited in which of the following:
- All kinds of lotteries.
- Manufacturing of Cigar.
- Chit funds.
- Nidhi Company
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution : D
Solution:
Incorrect
Solution : D
Solution:
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsSTARS project ,supported by World bank in India is related to
Correct
Solution: B
Solution:
The Union Cabinet approved the STARS project partially funded by the World Bank under the new National Education Policy (NEP) to support states in strengthening the school education system.
- It would be implemented as a new Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education (MOE).
- It seeks to support the states in developing, implementing, evaluating and improving interventions with direct linkages to improved education outcomes and school to work transition strategies for improved labour market outcomes.
- The overall focus and components of the STARS project are aligned with the objectives of National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 of Quality Based Learning Outcomes.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Solution:
The Union Cabinet approved the STARS project partially funded by the World Bank under the new National Education Policy (NEP) to support states in strengthening the school education system.
- It would be implemented as a new Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education (MOE).
- It seeks to support the states in developing, implementing, evaluating and improving interventions with direct linkages to improved education outcomes and school to work transition strategies for improved labour market outcomes.
- The overall focus and components of the STARS project are aligned with the objectives of National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 of Quality Based Learning Outcomes.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsIn the context of GM Crops, consider the following statements:
- Rules governing the handling of GMOs and products thereof were notified under Genetically modified Crops(Regulation and protection) Act,2006.
- The Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) and the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) are responsible for implementation of the regulations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Solution:
- Rules governing the handling of GMOs and products thereof were notified in 1989 under Environment Protection Act 1986 (EPA) and guidelines issued later.
- The Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) and the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) are responsible for implementation of the regulations.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Solution:
- Rules governing the handling of GMOs and products thereof were notified in 1989 under Environment Protection Act 1986 (EPA) and guidelines issued later.
- The Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) and the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) are responsible for implementation of the regulations.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the reasons for increased Urban Flooding in recent times:
- Encroachment of water bodies.
- Urban heat island effect.
- Changing Climate.
- Construction of Big dams.
- Encroachment of drainage lines.
- Poor solid waste management.
- Unplanned urbanisation.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Solution:
- Construction of big dams is not connected to urban floods.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Solution:
- Construction of big dams is not connected to urban floods.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsIn the context of Jal Jeevan Mission, consider the following statements:
- It was launched in the year 2014.
- It aims at providing supply of 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household (Har Ghar Nal Se Jal) through Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) by 2024
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Solution:
Jal Jeevan Mission:
- JJM was launched in 2019, Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Jal Shakti Mantralaya.
- It aims at providing supply of 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household (Har Ghar Nal Se Jal) through Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) by 2024
Incorrect
Solution: B
Solution:
Jal Jeevan Mission:
- JJM was launched in 2019, Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Jal Shakti Mantralaya.
- It aims at providing supply of 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household (Har Ghar Nal Se Jal) through Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) by 2024
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the theory of the three Sangams and pick out the correct one:
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: The Sangam period extended from roughly 400 BC to 200 AD (early Chola period before the interregnum), when the earliest extant works of Tamil literature were written.
The traditional accounts of Iraiyanar Ahapporul mention that there were three Sangams (I, II and III) held, which flourished for 9990 years at frequent intervals.
These were attended by over 8598 scholars. Sage Agastyar was the founding father. The Ahapporul commentary also mentions about their successive order and the deluges occurring during the intervals between them.
These Sangams or academies were patronized by 197 Pandyan kings. According to the tradition, of the three successive Sangams the first two belong to prehistory. All the three were held in the capital of the Pandyas.
As the capital was shifted from time to time, old Madurai was the headquarters of the first Sangam, and the second academy was held at Kapatapuram. Both these centres were washed away by the sea during successive deluges. The third Sangam was located in modern Madurai.
Q Source: 11th TN History textbook
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: The Sangam period extended from roughly 400 BC to 200 AD (early Chola period before the interregnum), when the earliest extant works of Tamil literature were written.
The traditional accounts of Iraiyanar Ahapporul mention that there were three Sangams (I, II and III) held, which flourished for 9990 years at frequent intervals.
These were attended by over 8598 scholars. Sage Agastyar was the founding father. The Ahapporul commentary also mentions about their successive order and the deluges occurring during the intervals between them.
These Sangams or academies were patronized by 197 Pandyan kings. According to the tradition, of the three successive Sangams the first two belong to prehistory. All the three were held in the capital of the Pandyas.
As the capital was shifted from time to time, old Madurai was the headquarters of the first Sangam, and the second academy was held at Kapatapuram. Both these centres were washed away by the sea during successive deluges. The third Sangam was located in modern Madurai.
Q Source: 11th TN History textbook
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsThe ruling monarchs of these three chiefdoms were together called as muventars:
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: The ruling monarchs of three chiefdoms of the Cheras, Cholas and Pandyas together were called muventars.
The Cholas ruled over the fertile Kaveri basin with Uraiyur as its capital and the important port was Puhar or Kaveripattinam. The most important ruler of this kingdom was Karikal.
The Pandyas ruled over the pastoral and littoral parts with Madurai as capital and Korkai as important port. Nedunjeliyan was the most famous king.
The Cheras controlled the hilly region in the west with Vanji or Karur as its capital and Muciris as the well known port.
The important ruler of the kingdom was Udeyinjiral. The king was called the ventan, and this was not only the time of great kings but also great chieftains who were subordinates of the kings. These chieftains were divided into two—velir and non-velir. There were three kinds of chiefdoms in Tamilakam— Velir or bigger chiefs, Vedar or the biggest chiefs and Kizar who were headman of a small village (ur) bound the kingship.
Ashokan edicts also mention the muventars.
Q Source: 11th TN History textbook
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: The ruling monarchs of three chiefdoms of the Cheras, Cholas and Pandyas together were called muventars.
The Cholas ruled over the fertile Kaveri basin with Uraiyur as its capital and the important port was Puhar or Kaveripattinam. The most important ruler of this kingdom was Karikal.
The Pandyas ruled over the pastoral and littoral parts with Madurai as capital and Korkai as important port. Nedunjeliyan was the most famous king.
The Cheras controlled the hilly region in the west with Vanji or Karur as its capital and Muciris as the well known port.
The important ruler of the kingdom was Udeyinjiral. The king was called the ventan, and this was not only the time of great kings but also great chieftains who were subordinates of the kings. These chieftains were divided into two—velir and non-velir. There were three kinds of chiefdoms in Tamilakam— Velir or bigger chiefs, Vedar or the biggest chiefs and Kizar who were headman of a small village (ur) bound the kingship.
Ashokan edicts also mention the muventars.
Q Source: 11th TN History textbook
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsMahabalipuram was a 7th Century port city of South Indian dynasty of
Correct
Solution: a)
Learning: By the 7th century Mahabalipuram was a port city of South Indian dynasty of the Pallavas.
It has a group of sanctuaries, which was carved out of rock along the Coromandel coast in the 7th and 8th centuries : rathas (temples in the form of chariots), mandapas (cave sanctuaries), giant open-air rock reliefs such as the famous Descent of the Ganges, and the Shore Temple, with thousands of sculptures to the glory of Shiva.
The Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram has been classified as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Q Source: Chapter 4: 12th NCERT: Themes in Indian History – I
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Learning: By the 7th century Mahabalipuram was a port city of South Indian dynasty of the Pallavas.
It has a group of sanctuaries, which was carved out of rock along the Coromandel coast in the 7th and 8th centuries : rathas (temples in the form of chariots), mandapas (cave sanctuaries), giant open-air rock reliefs such as the famous Descent of the Ganges, and the Shore Temple, with thousands of sculptures to the glory of Shiva.
The Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram has been classified as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Q Source: Chapter 4: 12th NCERT: Themes in Indian History – I
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- Silappatikaram is a poetic rendition with details of Tamil culture and its varied religions.
- Manimekalai, a Tamil epic, is a sequel to the Silappatikaram.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Learning: These are two of the five epics of Tamil Literature that are considered in high regard by the Tamil community.
The Silappatikaram is a poetic rendition with details of Tamil culture; its varied religions; its town plans and city types; the mingling of different people; and the arts of dance and music. A poet-prince from Kodungallur near Kochi (part of ancient Tamilakam, now in modern Kerala), referred to by the pseudonym Ilango Adigal, is credited with this work.
The epic revolves around Kannagi, who having lost her husband to a miscarriage of justice at the court of the Pandyan Dynasty, wreaks her revenge on his kingdom.
Manimekalai, by the poet Chithalai Chathanar, is a poem in 30 cantos. Its story is a sequel to another of the Five Great Epics, Silappatikaram, and tells the story of the daughter of Kovalan and Madhavi, who became a Buddhist Bikkuni.
Q Source: Regional Literature: Ancient India
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Learning: These are two of the five epics of Tamil Literature that are considered in high regard by the Tamil community.
The Silappatikaram is a poetic rendition with details of Tamil culture; its varied religions; its town plans and city types; the mingling of different people; and the arts of dance and music. A poet-prince from Kodungallur near Kochi (part of ancient Tamilakam, now in modern Kerala), referred to by the pseudonym Ilango Adigal, is credited with this work.
The epic revolves around Kannagi, who having lost her husband to a miscarriage of justice at the court of the Pandyan Dynasty, wreaks her revenge on his kingdom.
Manimekalai, by the poet Chithalai Chathanar, is a poem in 30 cantos. Its story is a sequel to another of the Five Great Epics, Silappatikaram, and tells the story of the daughter of Kovalan and Madhavi, who became a Buddhist Bikkuni.
Q Source: Regional Literature: Ancient India
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- The Yavanas are mentioned in detail in Sangam literature epics such as Pattinappalai.
- The Yavanas engaged in trade with the early Cholas in the Sangam period.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Learning: In Sanskrit sources, the usage of the words “Yona”, “Yauna”, “Yonaka”, “Yavana” or “Javana” appears repeatedly, and particularly in relation to the Greek kingdoms which neighboured or sometimes occupied the Punjab region over a period of several centuries from the 4th century BCE to the first century CE.
Examples are the Seleucid Empire, the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom and the Indo-Greek Kingdom.
The Yavanas are mentioned in detail in Sangam literature epics such as Pattinappalai, describing their brisk trade with the Early Cholas in the Sangam period.
Q Source: Page 174: Themes in Indian History – II: 12th NCERT
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Learning: In Sanskrit sources, the usage of the words “Yona”, “Yauna”, “Yonaka”, “Yavana” or “Javana” appears repeatedly, and particularly in relation to the Greek kingdoms which neighboured or sometimes occupied the Punjab region over a period of several centuries from the 4th century BCE to the first century CE.
Examples are the Seleucid Empire, the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom and the Indo-Greek Kingdom.
The Yavanas are mentioned in detail in Sangam literature epics such as Pattinappalai, describing their brisk trade with the Early Cholas in the Sangam period.
Q Source: Page 174: Themes in Indian History – II: 12th NCERT
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about International Financial Service Authority
1)Currently, there is only one IFSC being developed in India, Gift City, in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
2)They will include the chairperson of the authority, SEBI, the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), and the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA); and two members from the Ministry of Finance but not from RBI
3)Members are appointed by president
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Answer B
About IFSCA:
The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA), headquartered at GIFT City, Gandhinagar Gujarat, has been established under the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019.
It works as a unified authority for the development and regulation of financial products, financial services and financial institutions in the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in India.
The Authority will consist of nine members, appointed by the central government. These posts will have a term of three years, subject to reappointment. Members of the Authority will include:
the Chairperson,
four members to be nominated from the Reserve Bank of India, the Securities Exchange Board of India, the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India, and the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority,
two members from amongst officials of the Ministry of Finance, and
two members to be appointed on the recommendation of a Selection Committee.
Incorrect
Answer B
About IFSCA:
The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA), headquartered at GIFT City, Gandhinagar Gujarat, has been established under the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019.
It works as a unified authority for the development and regulation of financial products, financial services and financial institutions in the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in India.
The Authority will consist of nine members, appointed by the central government. These posts will have a term of three years, subject to reappointment. Members of the Authority will include:
the Chairperson,
four members to be nominated from the Reserve Bank of India, the Securities Exchange Board of India, the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India, and the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority,
two members from amongst officials of the Ministry of Finance, and
two members to be appointed on the recommendation of a Selection Committee.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsIn context of E-commerce rules,which can be treated as unfair trade practice
1)Predatory pricing
2)Exclusive product launches
3)Maintaining Platform neutrality
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Answer B
Incorrect
Answer B
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsIn Terms of economy,the visit by foreignnationals to witness the XIX CommonWealth Game in India amounted to
Correct
Answer A
Internal travel by foreign tourists are, a component of tourism earnings.
Incorrect
Answer A
Internal travel by foreign tourists are, a component of tourism earnings.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found?
- Cambay Basin
- Cauvery Basin
- Krishna-Godavari Basin
4.Assam & Assam Arakan Basin.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer D
The Shale Gas Formations are spread over several sedimentary basins, such as, Gangetic plain, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and other coastal areas in the country including hydrocarbon- bearing ones – Cambay, Assam Arkan & Damodar Basins
Incorrect
Answer D
The Shale Gas Formations are spread over several sedimentary basins, such as, Gangetic plain, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and other coastal areas in the country including hydrocarbon- bearing ones – Cambay, Assam Arkan & Damodar Basins
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider those numbers between 300 and 400 Such that when each number is divided by 6, 9and 12, it leaves 4 as remainder in each case.
What is the sum of the numbers?
Correct
Ans: a
LCM of (6 ,9, 12)= 36
So, number is the form of 36p + 4.
Since, the required number is in between 300 and 400
\P= 9 and 10
\ Required sum = 328+ 364= 692
Incorrect
Ans: a
LCM of (6 ,9, 12)= 36
So, number is the form of 36p + 4.
Since, the required number is in between 300 and 400
\P= 9 and 10
\ Required sum = 328+ 364= 692
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsIf the highest common factor of two positive integers is 24, then their least common multiple can not be
Correct
Ans: C
In the given options, only 372 is not divisible by 24
Therefore, LCM of numbers cannot be 372
Incorrect
Ans: C
In the given options, only 372 is not divisible by 24
Therefore, LCM of numbers cannot be 372
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThe average weight of 6 persons is increased by 2.5 kg when one of them whose weight is 50 kg is replaced by a new man. The weight of the new man is
Correct
The total weight of the six people goes up by 15 kgs (when the average for 6 persons goes up by 2.5 kg). Thus, the new person must be 15 kgs more than the person who he replaces. Hence, the new person’s
weight = 50 + 15 = 65 kg.
Incorrect
The total weight of the six people goes up by 15 kgs (when the average for 6 persons goes up by 2.5 kg). Thus, the new person must be 15 kgs more than the person who he replaces. Hence, the new person’s
weight = 50 + 15 = 65 kg.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsThe average age of three boys is 15 years. If their ages are in the ratio 3:5:7, the age of the youngest boy is
Correct
Total age = 3 x 15 = 45. Individual ages being in the ratio 3:5:7 their ages would be 9, 15 and 21 years respectively. The youngest boy would be 9 years.
Incorrect
Total age = 3 x 15 = 45. Individual ages being in the ratio 3:5:7 their ages would be 9, 15 and 21 years respectively. The youngest boy would be 9 years.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsDisappearance of soil cover has had a dramatic impact on the landscape and ecology of the earth, but a key consequence of that transformation has largely been overlooked: a massive loss of soil carbon into the atmosphere. The importance of soil carbon — how it is leached from the earth and how that process can be reversed— is the subject of intensifying scientific investigation, with important implications for the effort to slow the rapid rise of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. The world’s cultivated soils have lost between 50 and 70 percent of their original carbon stock, much of which has oxidized upon exposure to air to become CO2. Now, armed with rapidly expanding knowledge about carbon sequestration in soils, researchers are studying how land restoration programs might help put carbon back into the soil. Absent carbon and critical microbes, soil becomes mere dirt, a process of deterioration that’s been rampant around the globe. Many scientists say that regenerative agricultural practices can turn back the carbon clock, reducing atmospheric CO2 while also boosting soil productivity and increasing resilience to floods and drought. Such regenerative techniques include planting fields year-round in crops or other cover, and agroforestry that combines crops, trees, and animal husbandry. Recognition of the vital role played by soil carbon could mark an important if subtle shift in the discussion about global warming, which has been heavily focused on curbing emissions of fossil fuels. But a look at soil brings a sharper focus on potential carbon sinks. Reducing emissions is crucial, but soil carbon sequestration needs to be part of the picture as well. The top priorities, are restoring degraded and eroded lands, as well as avoiding deforestation and the farming of peatlands, which are a major reservoir of carbon and are easily decomposed upon drainage and cultivation.
Which of the following statements is correct in light of the above passage?
Correct
Answer : D
Passage tells two things:-
- Scientists are supporting land restoration projects to put the carbons back in soil or to preserve the existing soil carbon thus mitigating global warming. So 1 is correct 2. The passage also tells that the carbon that is lost from soil mostly gets oxidized into carbon dioxide thus increasing temperature of the globe. Hence both are correct. Therefore, D is the answer.
Incorrect
Answer : D
Passage tells two things:-
- Scientists are supporting land restoration projects to put the carbons back in soil or to preserve the existing soil carbon thus mitigating global warming. So 1 is correct 2. The passage also tells that the carbon that is lost from soil mostly gets oxidized into carbon dioxide thus increasing temperature of the globe. Hence both are correct. Therefore, D is the answer.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsMSME Act, 2006, the classification of MSMEs is defined in terms of investment in plant and machinery for the manufacturing enterprises and equipment for the services enterprises. However, since 2006, there has been major transitions in the economy. Increasing domestic and global competition, technological obsolescence, change in manufacturing strategies, lack of access to infrastructure and logistic facilities, fund shortages and inadequate linkages to domestic and international markets together with uncertainty are key challenges for MSMEs. This demands a key policy change.
Which of the following is the most logical and crucial corollary that can be made from the above passage?
Correct
Ans-. Correct Answer : C Answer Justification : A common sensical understanding of the passage will lead us to the correct answer. The passage tells classification criteria for MSMEs is done in 2006 but much has changed since then and so we need a policy change. That means, a change in definition is required. Thus C is correct. There is no mention of the concept of cluster development and technology is among others a reason not the main reason for MSME issues. Hence D and B are wrong. A is not the answer because it is too generic and does not inform us the essence of the passage. The essence is about defining criteria for MSMEs. Hence C is the answer.
Incorrect
Ans-. Correct Answer : C Answer Justification : A common sensical understanding of the passage will lead us to the correct answer. The passage tells classification criteria for MSMEs is done in 2006 but much has changed since then and so we need a policy change. That means, a change in definition is required. Thus C is correct. There is no mention of the concept of cluster development and technology is among others a reason not the main reason for MSME issues. Hence D and B are wrong. A is not the answer because it is too generic and does not inform us the essence of the passage. The essence is about defining criteria for MSMEs. Hence C is the answer.
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