INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2022
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2022
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following provided for establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta?
Correct
Solution: A
Regulating Act of 1773
This act was of great constitutional importance as (a) it was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India; (b) it recognized, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company; and (c) it laid the foundations of central administration in India.
The features of this Act were as follows:
- It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor- General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. The first such Governor General was Lord Warren Hastings.
- It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the governor-general of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another.
- It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) comprising one chief justice and three other judges.
- It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the ‘natives.
- It strengthened the control of the British Government over the Company by requiring the Court of Directors (governing body of the Company) to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India.
Government of India Act of 1935
Federal court
- A federal court was established at Delhi for the resolution of disputes between provinces and also between the centre and the provinces.
- It was to have 1 Chief Justice and not more than 6 judges.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Regulating Act of 1773
This act was of great constitutional importance as (a) it was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India; (b) it recognized, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company; and (c) it laid the foundations of central administration in India.
The features of this Act were as follows:
- It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor- General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. The first such Governor General was Lord Warren Hastings.
- It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the governor-general of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another.
- It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) comprising one chief justice and three other judges.
- It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the ‘natives.
- It strengthened the control of the British Government over the Company by requiring the Court of Directors (governing body of the Company) to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India.
Government of India Act of 1935
Federal court
- A federal court was established at Delhi for the resolution of disputes between provinces and also between the centre and the provinces.
- It was to have 1 Chief Justice and not more than 6 judges.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are features of Charter Act of 1813?
- It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body.
- It provided for the spread of western education among the inhabitants of the British territories in India.
- It authorized the Local Governments in India to impose taxes on persons.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Charter Act of 1813
The features of this Act were as follows:
- It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India i.e., the Indian trade was thrown open to all British merchants. However, it continued the monopoly of the company over trade in tea and trade with China.
- It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company’s territories in India.
- It allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people.
- It provided for the spread of western education among the inhabitants of the British territories in India.
- It authorised the Local Governments in India to impose taxes on persons. They could also punish the persons for not paying taxes.
Charter Act of 1833
It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body.
It provided that the Company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Charter Act of 1813
The features of this Act were as follows:
- It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India i.e., the Indian trade was thrown open to all British merchants. However, it continued the monopoly of the company over trade in tea and trade with China.
- It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company’s territories in India.
- It allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people.
- It provided for the spread of western education among the inhabitants of the British territories in India.
- It authorised the Local Governments in India to impose taxes on persons. They could also punish the persons for not paying taxes.
Charter Act of 1833
It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body.
It provided that the Company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsOriginally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to an authoritative text of the Constitution in the Hindi language. Later, a provision in this regard was made by which of the following amendment?
Correct
Solution: D
Hindi text of the constitution
Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to an authoritative text of the Constitution in the Hindi language. Later, a provision in this regard was made by the 58th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1987.
This amendment inserted a new Article 394-A in the last part of the Constitution i.e., Part XXII. This article contains the following provisions:
- The President shall cause to be published under his authority:
(i) The translation of the Constitution in Hindi language. The modifications which are necessary to bring it in conformity with the language, style and terminology adopted in the authoritative texts of the Central Acts in Hindi can be made in it. All the amendments of the Constitution made before such publication should be incorporated in it.
(ii) The translation in Hindi of every amendment of the constitution made in English.
- The translation of the Constitution and its every amendment published shall be construed to have the same meaning as the original text in English. If any difficulty arises in this matter, the President shall cause the Hindi text to be revised suitably.
3. The translation of the Constitution and its every amendment published shall be deemed to be, for all purposes, its authoritative text in Hindi.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Hindi text of the constitution
Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to an authoritative text of the Constitution in the Hindi language. Later, a provision in this regard was made by the 58th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1987.
This amendment inserted a new Article 394-A in the last part of the Constitution i.e., Part XXII. This article contains the following provisions:
- The President shall cause to be published under his authority:
(i) The translation of the Constitution in Hindi language. The modifications which are necessary to bring it in conformity with the language, style and terminology adopted in the authoritative texts of the Central Acts in Hindi can be made in it. All the amendments of the Constitution made before such publication should be incorporated in it.
(ii) The translation in Hindi of every amendment of the constitution made in English.
- The translation of the Constitution and its every amendment published shall be construed to have the same meaning as the original text in English. If any difficulty arises in this matter, the President shall cause the Hindi text to be revised suitably.
3. The translation of the Constitution and its every amendment published shall be deemed to be, for all purposes, its authoritative text in Hindi.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsThe provision for appointment of state governors by the Centre was borrowed from
Correct
Solution: B
Sources Features Borrowed British Constitution Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, legislative procedure, single citizenship, cabinet system, prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges and bicameralism. Canadian Constitution Federation with a strong Centre, vesting of residuary powers in the Centre, appointment of state governors by the Centre, and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Australian Constitution Concurrent List, freedom of trade, commerce and inter-course, and joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament. US Constitution Fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the president, removal of Supreme Court and high court judges and post of vice-president. Irish Constitution Directive Principles of State Policy, nomination of members to Rajya Sabha and method of election of president. Incorrect
Solution: B
Sources Features Borrowed British Constitution Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, legislative procedure, single citizenship, cabinet system, prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges and bicameralism. Canadian Constitution Federation with a strong Centre, vesting of residuary powers in the Centre, appointment of state governors by the Centre, and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Australian Constitution Concurrent List, freedom of trade, commerce and inter-course, and joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament. US Constitution Fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the president, removal of Supreme Court and high court judges and post of vice-president. Irish Constitution Directive Principles of State Policy, nomination of members to Rajya Sabha and method of election of president. -
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following provisions impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application?
Correct
Solution: C
Directive Principles of State Policy
According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the Directive Principles of State Policy is a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution. They are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution. They can be classified into three broad categories–socialistic, Gandhian and liberal intellectual.
The Directive Principles are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy. They seek to establish a ‘welfare state’ in India. However, unlike the Fundamental Rights, the directives are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation. Yet, the Constitution itself declares that ‘these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws’. Hence, they impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application. But, the real force (sanction) behind them is political, that is, public opinion.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Directive Principles of State Policy
According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the Directive Principles of State Policy is a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution. They are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution. They can be classified into three broad categories–socialistic, Gandhian and liberal intellectual.
The Directive Principles are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy. They seek to establish a ‘welfare state’ in India. However, unlike the Fundamental Rights, the directives are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation. Yet, the Constitution itself declares that ‘these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws’. Hence, they impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application. But, the real force (sanction) behind them is political, that is, public opinion.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Govind Ballabh Pant
- Pant was appointed by the Congress party to initially represent Ramprasad Bismill, Ashfaqulla Khan.
- Pant took over as the Chief Minister of the United Provinces from 1937 to 1939.
- He organised a massive salt movement in the United Provinces
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Govind Ballabh Pant (10 September 1887 – 7 March 1961) was an Indian freedom fighter and one of the architects of modern India.
Alongside Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru and Vallabh Bhai Patel, Pant was a key figure in the movement for India’s Independence and later a pivotal figure in the Indian Government.
He was one of the foremost political leaders of Uttarakhand (then known as United Provinces) and a key player in the unsuccessful movement to establish Hindi as the national language of Indian Union.
Pant took over as the Chief Minister of the United Provinces from 1937 to 1939.
In 1945, the British Labour government ordered new elections to the Provincial legislatures.
The Congress won a majority in the 1946 elections in the United Provinces and Pant was again the Premier, continuing even after India’s independence in 1947.
Pant was appointed by the Congress party to initially represent Ramprasad Bismill, Ashfaqulla Khan and other revolutionaries involved in the Kakori case in the mid 1920s.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Govind Ballabh Pant (10 September 1887 – 7 March 1961) was an Indian freedom fighter and one of the architects of modern India.
Alongside Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru and Vallabh Bhai Patel, Pant was a key figure in the movement for India’s Independence and later a pivotal figure in the Indian Government.
He was one of the foremost political leaders of Uttarakhand (then known as United Provinces) and a key player in the unsuccessful movement to establish Hindi as the national language of Indian Union.
Pant took over as the Chief Minister of the United Provinces from 1937 to 1939.
In 1945, the British Labour government ordered new elections to the Provincial legislatures.
The Congress won a majority in the 1946 elections in the United Provinces and Pant was again the Premier, continuing even after India’s independence in 1947.
Pant was appointed by the Congress party to initially represent Ramprasad Bismill, Ashfaqulla Khan and other revolutionaries involved in the Kakori case in the mid 1920s.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following schedule provides for division of powers between the Union and the States?
Correct
Solution: C
Seventh Schedule
Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of
List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List). Presently, the Union List contains 98 subjects (originally 97), the State List contains 59 subjects (originally 66) and the Concurrent List contains 52 subjects (originally 47).
Eighth Schedule
Languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages.
Fourth Schedule
Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
Fifth Schedule
Provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Seventh Schedule
Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of
List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List). Presently, the Union List contains 98 subjects (originally 97), the State List contains 59 subjects (originally 66) and the Concurrent List contains 52 subjects (originally 47).
Eighth Schedule
Languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages.
Fourth Schedule
Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
Fifth Schedule
Provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsThe term ‘liberty’ means
- Absence of restraints on the activities of individuals
- Providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Liberty
The term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities.
The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship, through their Fundamental Rights, enforceable in court of law, in case of violation.
Liberty as elaborated in the Preamble is very essential for the successful functioning of the Indian democratic system. However, liberty does not mean ‘license’ to do what one likes, and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution itself. In brief, the liberty conceived by the Preamble or Fundamental Rights is not absolute but qualified.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Liberty
The term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities.
The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship, through their Fundamental Rights, enforceable in court of law, in case of violation.
Liberty as elaborated in the Preamble is very essential for the successful functioning of the Indian democratic system. However, liberty does not mean ‘license’ to do what one likes, and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution itself. In brief, the liberty conceived by the Preamble or Fundamental Rights is not absolute but qualified.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are provisions amended under Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978?
- Omitted the reference to the British House of Commons in the provisions pertaining to the parliamentary privileges.
- Deleted the provision which made the satisfaction of the president, governor and administrators final in issuing ordinances.
- Empowered the president to send back once the advice of cabinet for reconsideration.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978
- Restored the original term of the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies (i.e., 5 years).”
- Restored the provisions with regard to quorum in the Parliament and state legislatures.
- Omitted the reference to the British House of Commons in the provisions pertaining to the parliamentary privileges.
- Gave constitutional protection to publication in newspaper of true reports of the proceedings of the Parliament and the state legislatures.
- Empowered the president to send back once the advice of cabinet for reconsideration. But, the reconsidered advice is to be binding on the president.
- Deleted the provision which made the satisfaction of the president, governor and administrators final in issuing ordinances.
- Restored some of the powers of the Supreme Court and high courts.
- Replaced the term “internal disturbance” by “armed rebellion” in respect of national emergency.
- Made the President to declare a national emergency only on the written recommendation of the cabinet.
- Made certain procedural safeguards with respect to national emergency and President’s rule.
- Deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it only a legal right.
- Provided that the fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency.
13. Omitted the provisions which took away the power of the court to decide the election disputes of the president, the vice-president, the prime minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978
- Restored the original term of the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies (i.e., 5 years).”
- Restored the provisions with regard to quorum in the Parliament and state legislatures.
- Omitted the reference to the British House of Commons in the provisions pertaining to the parliamentary privileges.
- Gave constitutional protection to publication in newspaper of true reports of the proceedings of the Parliament and the state legislatures.
- Empowered the president to send back once the advice of cabinet for reconsideration. But, the reconsidered advice is to be binding on the president.
- Deleted the provision which made the satisfaction of the president, governor and administrators final in issuing ordinances.
- Restored some of the powers of the Supreme Court and high courts.
- Replaced the term “internal disturbance” by “armed rebellion” in respect of national emergency.
- Made the President to declare a national emergency only on the written recommendation of the cabinet.
- Made certain procedural safeguards with respect to national emergency and President’s rule.
- Deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it only a legal right.
- Provided that the fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency.
13. Omitted the provisions which took away the power of the court to decide the election disputes of the president, the vice-president, the prime minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian sovereignty
- India can acquire foreign territories according to the modes recognized by international law.
- India not acquired foreign territories since the commencement of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories according to the modes recognised by international law, i.e., cession (following treaty, purchase, gift, lease or plebiscite), occupation (hitherto unoccupied by a recognised ruler), conquest or subjugation. For example, India acquired several foreign territories such as Dadra and Nagar Haveli; Goa, Daman and Diu; Puducherry; and Sikkim since the commencement of the Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories according to the modes recognised by international law, i.e., cession (following treaty, purchase, gift, lease or plebiscite), occupation (hitherto unoccupied by a recognised ruler), conquest or subjugation. For example, India acquired several foreign territories such as Dadra and Nagar Haveli; Goa, Daman and Diu; Puducherry; and Sikkim since the commencement of the Constitution.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following countries:
- Russia
- Azerbaijan
- Uzbekistan
- Georgia
- Iran
Which of the following countries has /have shared borders with the Caspian Sea?
Correct
Solution: C
Incorrect
Solution: C
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 points“Kherson region” sometimes seen in the news is located in:
Correct
Solution: D
Ukraine
Incorrect
Solution: D
Ukraine
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsWith reference to “IAEA(International Atomic Energy Agency)”, which was seen in the news recently, consider the following statements:
- The IAEA was established as an autonomous organisation in 1957.
- It is established independently of UnitedNations.
- It doesn’t report to the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?:
Correct
Solution: A
- The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is an international organization that seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons.
- The IAEA was established as an autonomous organisation on 29 July 1957.
- Though established independently of the United Nations through its own international treaty, the IAEA Statute, the IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is an international organization that seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons.
- The IAEA was established as an autonomous organisation on 29 July 1957.
- Though established independently of the United Nations through its own international treaty, the IAEA Statute, the IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the new criteria selected by 15th Finance commission to decide horizontal devolution :
-
- Demographic Performance
- Tax efficiency
- Forest cover
Which of the criteria given above is/are correct ?:
Correct
Solution: D
Incorrect
Solution: D
-
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsWhat is the approximate debt-to-gdp ratio and tax-to-gdp ratio of India?
Correct
Solution: B
Debt-to-gdp ratio: 87-90 %
Tax-to-gdp ratio: 10 %
Incorrect
Solution: B
Debt-to-gdp ratio: 87-90 %
Tax-to-gdp ratio: 10 %
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsThe Constitution confers which of the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India but denies the same to aliens?
- Right against exploitation
- Right to freedom of speech and expression
- Right to elementary education
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: These rights are not available to the foreigners (friendly aliens).
- Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
- Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (Article 16).
- Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession (Article 19).
- Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29 and 30).
- Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly.
- Right to contest for the membership of the Parliament and the state legislature.
- Eligibility to hold certain public offices, that is, President of India, Vice-President of India, judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts, governor of states, attorney general of India and advocate general of states.
Q Source: Chapter 7: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: These rights are not available to the foreigners (friendly aliens).
- Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
- Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (Article 16).
- Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession (Article 19).
- Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29 and 30).
- Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly.
- Right to contest for the membership of the Parliament and the state legislature.
- Eligibility to hold certain public offices, that is, President of India, Vice-President of India, judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts, governor of states, attorney general of India and advocate general of states.
Q Source: Chapter 7: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWith regards to the powers of the Parliament to create new states or alter the geographical boundaries of existing states, consider the following statements.
- Parliament is not bound by the views of the concerned state legislature and may either accept or reject them.
- The constitution must be amended under Article 368 to accommodate new states, for which states do not play any decisive role.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: Article 3 authorises the Parliament to form a new state or change area of an existing state.
However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President; and two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
But, the President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time.
Statement 2: Creation of new states does not require constitutional amendment as such amendments are not to be deemed as “amendments” under A368. So, 2 is wrong.
Q Source: Chapter 5: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: Article 3 authorises the Parliament to form a new state or change area of an existing state.
However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President; and two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
But, the President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time.
Statement 2: Creation of new states does not require constitutional amendment as such amendments are not to be deemed as “amendments” under A368. So, 2 is wrong.
Q Source: Chapter 5: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about the Charter Act of 1833 which was an important step towards centralisation and administrative reforms in British India.
- It deprived the Governor-General of India of his legislative powers and vested it in a nominated assembly.
- It provided for reservation of Indians in the covenanted civil services.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.
It thus deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.
Statement 2: The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants, and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company. However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors.
Learning: It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.
It thus deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.
Statement 2: The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants, and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company. However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors.
Learning: It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsThe system of ‘dyarchy’ under the the Government of India Act of 1919 meant that
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: The 1919 Act relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects.
- The central and provincial legislatures were authorised to make laws on their respective list of subjects. However, the structure of government continued to be centralised and unitary.
- It further divided the provincial subjects into two parts—transferred and reserved. The transferred subjects were to be administered by the governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the legislative Council.
- The reserved subjects, on the other hand, were to be administered by the governor and his executive council without being responsible to the legislative Council.
- This dual scheme of governance was known as ‘dyarchy’—a term derived from the Greek word di-arche which means double rule. However, this experiment was largely unsuccessful.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: The 1919 Act relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects.
- The central and provincial legislatures were authorised to make laws on their respective list of subjects. However, the structure of government continued to be centralised and unitary.
- It further divided the provincial subjects into two parts—transferred and reserved. The transferred subjects were to be administered by the governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the legislative Council.
- The reserved subjects, on the other hand, were to be administered by the governor and his executive council without being responsible to the legislative Council.
- This dual scheme of governance was known as ‘dyarchy’—a term derived from the Greek word di-arche which means double rule. However, this experiment was largely unsuccessful.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWhich of these acts, for the first time, provided for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and introduced the system of communal representation?
Correct
Solution: a)
Learning: This Act is also known as Morley-Minto Reforms (Lord Morley was the then Secretary of State for India and Lord Minto was the then Viceroy of India).
The Indian Councils Act 1909 empowered the Governor General to nominate one Indian member to the Executive Council leading to the appointment of Satyendra Prasanno Sinha as the first Indian member. The Government of India Act 1919 increased the number of Indians in the council to three.
It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Learning: This Act is also known as Morley-Minto Reforms (Lord Morley was the then Secretary of State for India and Lord Minto was the then Viceroy of India).
The Indian Councils Act 1909 empowered the Governor General to nominate one Indian member to the Executive Council leading to the appointment of Satyendra Prasanno Sinha as the first Indian member. The Government of India Act 1919 increased the number of Indians in the council to three.
It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following
1)Participatory Guarantee Scheme is a 3rd party certification for agriculture products under Ministry of Agriculture
2)National Program for Organic Production is a self certification scheme under APEDA
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Answer D
Union Agriculture Ministry’s PGS is a process of certifying organic products, which ensures that their production takes place in accordance with laid-down quality standards.
The certification is in the form of a documented logo or a statement.
The Ministry of Industries & Commerce is implementing the NPOP since 2001 with the following objectives:
To provide the means of evaluation of certification programme for organic agriculture & products.
To accredit certification programmes of Certification Bodies seeking accreditation.
Incorrect
Answer D
Union Agriculture Ministry’s PGS is a process of certifying organic products, which ensures that their production takes place in accordance with laid-down quality standards.
The certification is in the form of a documented logo or a statement.
The Ministry of Industries & Commerce is implementing the NPOP since 2001 with the following objectives:
To provide the means of evaluation of certification programme for organic agriculture & products.
To accredit certification programmes of Certification Bodies seeking accreditation.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsconsider the following about Pm Krishi sinchayee Yojana
1)National Executive Committee (NEC):To be constituted under the Chairmanship of the Vice-Chairman, NITI Aayog
2)Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP) managed by Department of Land Resources (DoLR)
3)The On-Farm Water Management (OFWM) managed by Department of Agriculture and Cooperation (DAC).
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Answer D
Micro Irrigation Fund corpus of Rs. 5000 crore has been created with NABARD.
Incorrect
Answer D
Micro Irrigation Fund corpus of Rs. 5000 crore has been created with NABARD.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following
1)National pharmaceutical pricing Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers for pricing of drugs and to ensure availability and accessibility of medicines at affordable prices.
2)CDSCO is the body responsible for Drug approval under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
Conducting clinical trials,Setting standards for drugs.
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
ANswer B
NPPA was constituted by the Government of India in 1997 as an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP), Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers
CDSCO is statutory body under Drugs and Cosmetics ACT under ministry of Health
Incorrect
ANswer B
NPPA was constituted by the Government of India in 1997 as an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP), Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers
CDSCO is statutory body under Drugs and Cosmetics ACT under ministry of Health
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about Essential Commodities Act
1)Essential Commodities are defined in the Act
2)Essential Commodities are notified by State government
WHich of the above are correct?
Correct
ANswer D
Act gives powers to central government to “control production, supply, distribution, etc, of essential commodities”
There is no specific definition of essential commodities in the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. Section 2(A) states that an “essential commodity” means a commodity specified in the Schedule of the Act
According to the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, which implements the Act, the Schedule at present contains seven commodities — drugs; fertilisers, whether inorganic, organic or mixed; foodstuffs including edible oils; hank yarn made wholly from cotton; petroleum and petroleum products; raw jute and jute textiles; seeds of food-crops and seeds of fruits and vegetables, seeds of cattle fodder, jute seed, cotton seed.
Incorrect
ANswer D
Act gives powers to central government to “control production, supply, distribution, etc, of essential commodities”
There is no specific definition of essential commodities in the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. Section 2(A) states that an “essential commodity” means a commodity specified in the Schedule of the Act
According to the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, which implements the Act, the Schedule at present contains seven commodities — drugs; fertilisers, whether inorganic, organic or mixed; foodstuffs including edible oils; hank yarn made wholly from cotton; petroleum and petroleum products; raw jute and jute textiles; seeds of food-crops and seeds of fruits and vegetables, seeds of cattle fodder, jute seed, cotton seed.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about Soil Health Card Scheme
1)The Soil health Card will contain the status of his soil with respect to 12 parameters which does not include Micro Nutrients
2)The scheme also focuses on enabling employment generation after appropriate skill development.
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Answer B
Launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare on December 5, 2015.
Under the scheme, village level Soil Testing Labs will be set up by youth having education in agriculture, Women Self Help Groups, FPOs etc.
The scheme also focuses on enabling employment generation after appropriate skill development.
Incorrect
Answer B
Launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare on December 5, 2015.
Under the scheme, village level Soil Testing Labs will be set up by youth having education in agriculture, Women Self Help Groups, FPOs etc.
The scheme also focuses on enabling employment generation after appropriate skill development.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsThe ratio between the present ages of A and B 1s 4:5. If the ratio between their ages 4 yr hence becomes 14:17, then what is B’s age at present?
Correct
Answer : a
Let the ages of A and B are 4x and 5x yr, respectively
According to the question,
According to the question,
(4x+4)/5x+4) =(14/17)
68x+68 = 70x +56
2x = 12
X=6
Hence, present age of B = 5 ´ 6 = 30 yr
Incorrect
Answer : a
Let the ages of A and B are 4x and 5x yr, respectively
According to the question,
According to the question,
(4x+4)/5x+4) =(14/17)
68x+68 = 70x +56
2x = 12
X=6
Hence, present age of B = 5 ´ 6 = 30 yr
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsIn a family, the average age of father and mother is 35 yr. The average age of the father, mother and their only son is 27 yr. What is the age of the son?
Correct
Answer : b
Because Total age of father and mother = 35´ 2 =70 yr
And total age of father, mother and son = 27 ´ 3 = 81 yr
∴Age of son = 81 – 70 = 11 yr
Incorrect
Answer : b
Because Total age of father and mother = 35´ 2 =70 yr
And total age of father, mother and son = 27 ´ 3 = 81 yr
∴Age of son = 81 – 70 = 11 yr
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsThe ages of Harsh and Sumit are 40 and 60 yr, respectively. How many years before the ratio of their ages was 3:5?
Correct
Answer : d
Let x yr before, the ratio of their ages was 3:5
According to the question,
[(40-x)/(60-x)] = (3/5)
200 – 5x = 180 – 3x
2x = 20
∴x = 10
Incorrect
Answer : d
Let x yr before, the ratio of their ages was 3:5
According to the question,
[(40-x)/(60-x)] = (3/5)
200 – 5x = 180 – 3x
2x = 20
∴x = 10
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThe average age of a man and his son is 27 yr. The ratio of their ages is 8:1 respectively. What will be the son’s age after 6 yr?
Correct
Answer : c
Let ages of man and his son are 8x yr and x yr, respectively.
According to the question,
[(8x+x)/(2 )] = 27
x = [(27´2)/(9)]=6
Hence, age of son after 6 yr = 6+6 = 12yr
Incorrect
Answer : c
Let ages of man and his son are 8x yr and x yr, respectively.
According to the question,
[(8x+x)/(2 )] = 27
x = [(27´2)/(9)]=6
Hence, age of son after 6 yr = 6+6 = 12yr
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsAlthough an eco-friendly process is one of the main ways
to save the environment, recycling is not gaining pace in
the industry. The process of recycling undergoes many
processes. First is collecting and sorting of garbage. This requires a lot of manpower and tools which are
expensive. Another disadvantage of recycling which
makes it unviable is that for the manufacturers
economically, the recycled material is not highly
demanded since its quality is not as good as the original material. So, if the marketing of recycled goods is not worthwhile, then the whole process of recycling cannot be economically efficient. Recycled products face other disadvantages as well, such as short shelf-life, difficulty in de-inking the dyed products and less durability.
. What is the main idea of, the passage?
Correct
Ans. ( a ) The main theme of the passage is inspiration of being eco-friendly process, why recycling is not gaining pace in the industry. Main idea of the passage always belongs to either assumption or conclusion of the author whereas various arguments of the author give the supporting ideas. Option ( b ) contradicts the main idea of the passage , whereas options ( c ) und ( d ) give supporting ideas
Incorrect
Ans. ( a ) The main theme of the passage is inspiration of being eco-friendly process, why recycling is not gaining pace in the industry. Main idea of the passage always belongs to either assumption or conclusion of the author whereas various arguments of the author give the supporting ideas. Option ( b ) contradicts the main idea of the passage , whereas options ( c ) und ( d ) give supporting ideas
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