INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2022
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2022
- Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2022 [ HERE ]
- CSAT Plan for Insta 75 Days Revision Plan – 2022 [ CLICK HERE ]
- Know about how to follow INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan – 2022 [ CLICK HERE ]
- Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ]
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsSeveral international bodies, instruments and initiatives are of relevance to indigenous or traditional knowledge. These include
- Agenda 21
- The World Intellectual Property Organization
- The International Labour Organization’s Convention on Indigenous and Tribal Peoples
- United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: b
Justification: In addition to the CBD, a number of international bodies, instruments and initiatives are of particular relevance to traditional knowledge. They include but are not limited to the following:
- Agenda 21: Principle 22 of the main document that came out of the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro recognizes that indigenous peoples have a vital role to play in environmental management and development because of their traditional knowledge and practices;
- The International Labour Organization’s Convention 169 on Indigenous and Tribal Peoples : This Convention calls for action to protect the rights of indigenous peoples;
- The Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples;
- The Inter-American Development Bank and its Strategy and Policy on Indigenous Peoples, approved by the IDB in 2006;
- The Inter-American Draft Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples ;
- The United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues;
- The World Intellectual Property Organization, wherein a patents or related rights based on TK have been addressed;
- The United Nations Education, Scientific and cultural Organization;
- The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development , the Asian Development Bank and the African Development Bank: These Banks are committed to ensuring that the development process promotes indigenous peoples’ participation;
- United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the World Bank : Both organizations have launched programmes to promote indigenous peoples’ development and to ensure that the development process fosters the full respect for the dignity, human rights and uniqueness of indigenous peoples;
- United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD): Protecting and Promoting Traditional Knowledge: Systems, National Experiences and International Dimensions.
Incorrect
Solution: b
Justification: In addition to the CBD, a number of international bodies, instruments and initiatives are of particular relevance to traditional knowledge. They include but are not limited to the following:
- Agenda 21: Principle 22 of the main document that came out of the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro recognizes that indigenous peoples have a vital role to play in environmental management and development because of their traditional knowledge and practices;
- The International Labour Organization’s Convention 169 on Indigenous and Tribal Peoples : This Convention calls for action to protect the rights of indigenous peoples;
- The Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples;
- The Inter-American Development Bank and its Strategy and Policy on Indigenous Peoples, approved by the IDB in 2006;
- The Inter-American Draft Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples ;
- The United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues;
- The World Intellectual Property Organization, wherein a patents or related rights based on TK have been addressed;
- The United Nations Education, Scientific and cultural Organization;
- The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development , the Asian Development Bank and the African Development Bank: These Banks are committed to ensuring that the development process promotes indigenous peoples’ participation;
- United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the World Bank : Both organizations have launched programmes to promote indigenous peoples’ development and to ensure that the development process fosters the full respect for the dignity, human rights and uniqueness of indigenous peoples;
- United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD): Protecting and Promoting Traditional Knowledge: Systems, National Experiences and International Dimensions.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsAOSIS or Alliance of Small Island States are particularly vulnerable to and raising international concerns primarily with which of the following?
Correct
Solution: c
Justification: AOSIS is a coalition of 44 small island and low-lying coastal developing states, including five observers. It is an ad hoc coalition of nations that are particularly vulnerable to rising sea levels and share common positions on climate change.
Some of the members and observers are American Samoa, Antigua and Barbuda, Bahamas, Barbados, Belize, Cape Verde, Comoros, Cook Islands, Cuba, Dominica, Dominican Republic, Federated States of Micronesia, Fiji, Netherlands Antilles, Tonga, Trinidad and Tobago, Tuvalu, US Virgin Islands, and Vanuatu.
To achieve its goals, AOSIS often draws on partnerships, including with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the European Commission, to bolster its capacity to effectively influence climate negotiations, some of the most complex and difficult in the world. AOSIS also makes vital contributions by helping its members to pool their resources and amplify their collective voice in climate talks. This goes beyond just speaking up to securing ambitious agreements with tangible benefits for vulnerable communities.
Q Source: https://unfccc.int/process-and-meetings/the-convention/glossary-of-climate-change-acronyms-and-terms
Incorrect
Solution: c
Justification: AOSIS is a coalition of 44 small island and low-lying coastal developing states, including five observers. It is an ad hoc coalition of nations that are particularly vulnerable to rising sea levels and share common positions on climate change.
Some of the members and observers are American Samoa, Antigua and Barbuda, Bahamas, Barbados, Belize, Cape Verde, Comoros, Cook Islands, Cuba, Dominica, Dominican Republic, Federated States of Micronesia, Fiji, Netherlands Antilles, Tonga, Trinidad and Tobago, Tuvalu, US Virgin Islands, and Vanuatu.
To achieve its goals, AOSIS often draws on partnerships, including with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the European Commission, to bolster its capacity to effectively influence climate negotiations, some of the most complex and difficult in the world. AOSIS also makes vital contributions by helping its members to pool their resources and amplify their collective voice in climate talks. This goes beyond just speaking up to securing ambitious agreements with tangible benefits for vulnerable communities.
Q Source: https://unfccc.int/process-and-meetings/the-convention/glossary-of-climate-change-acronyms-and-terms
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsClimate Neutral Now is an initiative launched by
Correct
Solution: b
Justification: Climate Neutral Now is an initiative launched by UN Climate Change in 2015 to encourage everyone in society to take action to help achieve a climate neutral world by mid-century, as enshrined in the Paris Agreement.
Climate Neutral Now invites organizations, governments and citizens to work towards global climate neutrality by addressing their own climate footprint through a 3-step method:
- Measure their greenhouse gas emissions. also called the carbon footprint;
- Reduce them as much as possible through their own actions; and
- Compensate those which cannot be currently avoided by using UN certified emission reductions (CERs), a type of carbon credit.
CERs are carbon credits generated by climate-friendly projects vetted by the UNFCCC following rules approved at intergovernmental level and with international oversight, providing a high level of credibility. By buying credits to compensate one’s unavoidable emissions, one:
- Rewards these projects located in developing countries and encourages the development of new ones;
- Helps bring sustainable development benefits to communities, such as improved air and water quality, improved income, improved health, reduced energy consumption and much more;
- Contributes to the achievement of the UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs);
To avoid the worst effects of climate change, science tells us that we must limit global temperature rise to 1.5 degrees Celsius, or a maximum of 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels, which is also the central goal of the Paris Agreement. To achieve this objective, relying solely on governmental action will not be sufficient. We all have a role to play.
We have already reached 1.1 degrees Celsius of global warming. We could reach 1.5 by 2030.
Q Source: https://unfccc.int/climate-action/climate-neutral-now
Incorrect
Solution: b
Justification: Climate Neutral Now is an initiative launched by UN Climate Change in 2015 to encourage everyone in society to take action to help achieve a climate neutral world by mid-century, as enshrined in the Paris Agreement.
Climate Neutral Now invites organizations, governments and citizens to work towards global climate neutrality by addressing their own climate footprint through a 3-step method:
- Measure their greenhouse gas emissions. also called the carbon footprint;
- Reduce them as much as possible through their own actions; and
- Compensate those which cannot be currently avoided by using UN certified emission reductions (CERs), a type of carbon credit.
CERs are carbon credits generated by climate-friendly projects vetted by the UNFCCC following rules approved at intergovernmental level and with international oversight, providing a high level of credibility. By buying credits to compensate one’s unavoidable emissions, one:
- Rewards these projects located in developing countries and encourages the development of new ones;
- Helps bring sustainable development benefits to communities, such as improved air and water quality, improved income, improved health, reduced energy consumption and much more;
- Contributes to the achievement of the UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs);
To avoid the worst effects of climate change, science tells us that we must limit global temperature rise to 1.5 degrees Celsius, or a maximum of 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels, which is also the central goal of the Paris Agreement. To achieve this objective, relying solely on governmental action will not be sufficient. We all have a role to play.
We have already reached 1.1 degrees Celsius of global warming. We could reach 1.5 by 2030.
Q Source: https://unfccc.int/climate-action/climate-neutral-now
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsThe United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) publishes which of these flagship scientific publications?
- Global Environment Outlook
- Global Chemicals Outlook
- Emissions Gap Report
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: d
Justification: UNEP’s flagship scientific publications such as the Global Environment Outlook, the Global Chemicals Outlook and the Emissions Gap Report are made possible by the Environment Fund. It then translates the best available scientific knowledge into information relevant for decision makers, who then can turn policy into action.
The Environment Fund is UNEP’s core source of flexible funds, provided by its Member States. The Fund provides the bedrock for its work worldwide, as it supports countries to deliver on the environmental dimensions of the 2030 Agenda.
The Environment Fund is also used for (as quoted by UNEP):
- Implementation of our seven thematic sub-programmes;
- Identification of new emerging environmental issues (such as through our Frontiers-series);
- Our work on several science-policy platforms that bring together scientists, governments, industrial and international organizations, and civil society;
- Innovation for addressing environmental challenges;
- Advocacy and awareness raising on environmental issues;
- Capacity building and transfer of technological innovations;
- Results-based planning and management;
- Bringing together governments, the private sector and civil society in advancing the global environmental agenda, for example through the UN Environment Assembly;
- Robust oversight.
Of the Fund, 85 per cent is used for the seven thematic sub-programmes. The rest supports strategic direction, management and programme support, which are critical for implementing the organisation’s vision and ensuring robust oversight and delivery.
Incorrect
Solution: d
Justification: UNEP’s flagship scientific publications such as the Global Environment Outlook, the Global Chemicals Outlook and the Emissions Gap Report are made possible by the Environment Fund. It then translates the best available scientific knowledge into information relevant for decision makers, who then can turn policy into action.
The Environment Fund is UNEP’s core source of flexible funds, provided by its Member States. The Fund provides the bedrock for its work worldwide, as it supports countries to deliver on the environmental dimensions of the 2030 Agenda.
The Environment Fund is also used for (as quoted by UNEP):
- Implementation of our seven thematic sub-programmes;
- Identification of new emerging environmental issues (such as through our Frontiers-series);
- Our work on several science-policy platforms that bring together scientists, governments, industrial and international organizations, and civil society;
- Innovation for addressing environmental challenges;
- Advocacy and awareness raising on environmental issues;
- Capacity building and transfer of technological innovations;
- Results-based planning and management;
- Bringing together governments, the private sector and civil society in advancing the global environmental agenda, for example through the UN Environment Assembly;
- Robust oversight.
Of the Fund, 85 per cent is used for the seven thematic sub-programmes. The rest supports strategic direction, management and programme support, which are critical for implementing the organisation’s vision and ensuring robust oversight and delivery.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsMatch the following funds correctly with the agreement that they were setup under:
- Green Climate Fund: Kyoto Protocol
- Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF): Paris Agreement
- Global Environment Facility (GEF): UNFCCC
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: a
Justification: To facilitate the provision of climate finance, the Convention (UNFCCC) established a financial mechanism to provide financial resources to developing country Parties. The financial mechanism also serves the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement.
The Convention states that the operation of the financial mechanism can be entrusted to one or more existing international entities. The Global Environment Facility (GEF- see link for details) has served as an operating entity of the financial mechanism since the Convention’s entry into force in 1994. At COP 16, in 2010, Parties established the Green Climate Fund (GCF- see link for details) and in 2011 also designated it as an operating entity of the financial mechanism. The financial mechanism is accountable to the COP, which decides on its policies, programme priorities and eligibility criteria for funding.
In addition to providing guidance to the GEF and the GCF, Parties have established two special funds—the Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) and the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF), both managed by the GEF—and the Adaptation Fund (AF) established under the Kyoto Protocol in 2001.
At the Paris Climate Change Conference in 2015, the Parties agreed that the operating entities of the financial mechanism – GCD and GEF – as well as the SCCF and the LDCF shall serve the Paris Agreement.
Global Environment Facility (GEF)
The GEF is an independent financial organization that provides grants to developing countries for projects that benefit the global environment and promote sustainable livelihoods in local communities. The Parties to the Convention assigned operation of the financial mechanism to the GEF on an on-going basis, subject to review every four years. The financial mechanism is accountable to the COP.Green Climate Fund (GCF)
At COP 16 in Cancun in 2010, Governments established a Green Climate Fund as an operating entity of the financial mechanism of the Convention under Article 11. The GCF will support projects, programmes, policies and other activities in developing country Parties. The Fund will be governed by the GCF Board.Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF)
The SCCF was established to finance projects relating to adaptation; technology transfer and capacity building; energy, transport, industry, agriculture, forestry and waste management; and economic diversification. This fund should complement other funding mechanisms for the implementation of the Convention. The Global Environment Facility (GEF), as the entity that operates the financial mechanism of the Convention, has been entrusted to operate this fund.Q Source: https://unfccc.int/topics/climate-finance/the-big-picture/introduction-to-climate-finance
Incorrect
Solution: a
Justification: To facilitate the provision of climate finance, the Convention (UNFCCC) established a financial mechanism to provide financial resources to developing country Parties. The financial mechanism also serves the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement.
The Convention states that the operation of the financial mechanism can be entrusted to one or more existing international entities. The Global Environment Facility (GEF- see link for details) has served as an operating entity of the financial mechanism since the Convention’s entry into force in 1994. At COP 16, in 2010, Parties established the Green Climate Fund (GCF- see link for details) and in 2011 also designated it as an operating entity of the financial mechanism. The financial mechanism is accountable to the COP, which decides on its policies, programme priorities and eligibility criteria for funding.
In addition to providing guidance to the GEF and the GCF, Parties have established two special funds—the Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) and the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF), both managed by the GEF—and the Adaptation Fund (AF) established under the Kyoto Protocol in 2001.
At the Paris Climate Change Conference in 2015, the Parties agreed that the operating entities of the financial mechanism – GCD and GEF – as well as the SCCF and the LDCF shall serve the Paris Agreement.
Global Environment Facility (GEF)
The GEF is an independent financial organization that provides grants to developing countries for projects that benefit the global environment and promote sustainable livelihoods in local communities. The Parties to the Convention assigned operation of the financial mechanism to the GEF on an on-going basis, subject to review every four years. The financial mechanism is accountable to the COP.Green Climate Fund (GCF)
At COP 16 in Cancun in 2010, Governments established a Green Climate Fund as an operating entity of the financial mechanism of the Convention under Article 11. The GCF will support projects, programmes, policies and other activities in developing country Parties. The Fund will be governed by the GCF Board.Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF)
The SCCF was established to finance projects relating to adaptation; technology transfer and capacity building; energy, transport, industry, agriculture, forestry and waste management; and economic diversification. This fund should complement other funding mechanisms for the implementation of the Convention. The Global Environment Facility (GEF), as the entity that operates the financial mechanism of the Convention, has been entrusted to operate this fund.Q Source: https://unfccc.int/topics/climate-finance/the-big-picture/introduction-to-climate-finance
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Project elephant
- Project elephant was launched by the Government of India in the year 1992 as a Central Sector Scheme.
- Asian Elephant is listed as endangered under IUCN red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Project Elephant was launched by the Government of India in the year 1992 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with following objectives:
1. To protect elephants, their habitat & corridors
2. To address issues of man-animal conflict
3. Welfare of captive elephantsThe Project is being mainly implemented in 16 States / UTs , viz. Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Orissa, Tamil Nadu, Tripura, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal.
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change provides the financial and technical support to major elephant range states in the country through Project Elephant.
Asian Elephant is listed as endangered under IUCN redlist.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Project Elephant was launched by the Government of India in the year 1992 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with following objectives:
1. To protect elephants, their habitat & corridors
2. To address issues of man-animal conflict
3. Welfare of captive elephantsThe Project is being mainly implemented in 16 States / UTs , viz. Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Orissa, Tamil Nadu, Tripura, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal.
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change provides the financial and technical support to major elephant range states in the country through Project Elephant.
Asian Elephant is listed as endangered under IUCN redlist.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are criteria to qualify as a biodiversity hotspot?
- It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics.
- It must have 70% or less of its original natural vegetation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a
Why are biodiversity hotspots important?
There are places on Earth that are both biologically rich — and deeply threatened. For our own sake, we must work to protect them.
Species are the building blocks of Earth’s life-support systems. We all depend on them.
But our planet’s “biodiversity,” the vast array of life on Earth, faces a crisis of historic proportions. Development, urbanization, pollution, disease — they’re all wreaking havoc on the tree of life. Today, species are going extinct at the fastest rate since the mass extinction of the dinosaurs.
To stem this crisis, we must protect the places where biodiversity lives. But species aren’t evenly distributed around the planet. Certain areas have large numbers of endemic species — those found nowhere else. Many of these are heavily threatened by habitat loss and other human activities. These areas are the biodiversity hotspots, 36 regions where success in conserving species can have an enormous impact in securing our global biodiversity.
The forests and other remnant habitats in hotspots represent just 2.4% of Earth’s land surface. But you’d be hard-pressed to find another 2.4% of the planet that’s more important.
To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria:
- It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics — which is to say, it must have a high percentage of plant life found nowhere else on the planet. A hotspot, in other words, is irreplaceable.
- It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation. In other words, it must be threatened.
https://www.conservation.org/priorities/biodiversity-hotspots
Incorrect
Solution: a
Why are biodiversity hotspots important?
There are places on Earth that are both biologically rich — and deeply threatened. For our own sake, we must work to protect them.
Species are the building blocks of Earth’s life-support systems. We all depend on them.
But our planet’s “biodiversity,” the vast array of life on Earth, faces a crisis of historic proportions. Development, urbanization, pollution, disease — they’re all wreaking havoc on the tree of life. Today, species are going extinct at the fastest rate since the mass extinction of the dinosaurs.
To stem this crisis, we must protect the places where biodiversity lives. But species aren’t evenly distributed around the planet. Certain areas have large numbers of endemic species — those found nowhere else. Many of these are heavily threatened by habitat loss and other human activities. These areas are the biodiversity hotspots, 36 regions where success in conserving species can have an enormous impact in securing our global biodiversity.
The forests and other remnant habitats in hotspots represent just 2.4% of Earth’s land surface. But you’d be hard-pressed to find another 2.4% of the planet that’s more important.
To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria:
- It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics — which is to say, it must have a high percentage of plant life found nowhere else on the planet. A hotspot, in other words, is irreplaceable.
- It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation. In other words, it must be threatened.
https://www.conservation.org/priorities/biodiversity-hotspots
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Microplastics
- Microplastics are tiny plastic particles with an upper size limit of 5mm in diameter.
- Microplastics contribute to over 80% of the ocean debris.
- The examples of primary microplastics include microbeads, plastic pellets, and plastic fibres.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: d
The world’s sea floor is littered with an estimated 14 million tonnes of microplastics, according to Australia’s national science agency CSIRO.
Microplastics are tiny plastic particles with an upper size limit of 5mm in diameter. The term ‘microplastics’ was introduced in the mid-2000s. They occur in the environment as a consequence of plastic pollution.
Every year, several million tonnes of plastic litter course through rivers and out to the oceans, where they are gradually broken down into smaller fragments through the motion of waves and the ultraviolet light of the sun.
Marine organisms such as fish, crabs and prawns consume these microplastics by misidentification as food. Humans consume this seafood which leads to several health complications.
Microplastics are divided into two categories:
Primary microplastics
Primary microplastics which enter the environment directly, are tiny particles designed for commercial use, as well as microfibers shed from clothing and other textiles, such as fishing nets.
Examples of primary microplastics include microbeads found in personal care products, plastic pellets used in industrial manufacturing, and plastic fibres used in synthetic textiles.
Secondary microplastics
Secondary microplastics form from the breakdown of larger plastics such as water bottles.
This typically happens when larger plastics undergo weathering, through exposure to conditions like wave action, wind abrasion, and ultraviolet radiation from sunlight.
Microplastics contribute to over 80% of the ocean debris. In the last four decades, concentrations of these particles appear to have increased significantly in the surface waters of the ocean, according to the UN Environment Programme.
Although a global problem, only 43% of the countries are actively involved in studies on microplastics.
About half the global population lives within 100 km of a coastline, and population growth is greatest in that zone. This means the amount of plastic debris entering the ocean from land-based sources is likely to increase unless significant changes are made to waste management practices on land.
Incorrect
Solution: d
The world’s sea floor is littered with an estimated 14 million tonnes of microplastics, according to Australia’s national science agency CSIRO.
Microplastics are tiny plastic particles with an upper size limit of 5mm in diameter. The term ‘microplastics’ was introduced in the mid-2000s. They occur in the environment as a consequence of plastic pollution.
Every year, several million tonnes of plastic litter course through rivers and out to the oceans, where they are gradually broken down into smaller fragments through the motion of waves and the ultraviolet light of the sun.
Marine organisms such as fish, crabs and prawns consume these microplastics by misidentification as food. Humans consume this seafood which leads to several health complications.
Microplastics are divided into two categories:
Primary microplastics
Primary microplastics which enter the environment directly, are tiny particles designed for commercial use, as well as microfibers shed from clothing and other textiles, such as fishing nets.
Examples of primary microplastics include microbeads found in personal care products, plastic pellets used in industrial manufacturing, and plastic fibres used in synthetic textiles.
Secondary microplastics
Secondary microplastics form from the breakdown of larger plastics such as water bottles.
This typically happens when larger plastics undergo weathering, through exposure to conditions like wave action, wind abrasion, and ultraviolet radiation from sunlight.
Microplastics contribute to over 80% of the ocean debris. In the last four decades, concentrations of these particles appear to have increased significantly in the surface waters of the ocean, according to the UN Environment Programme.
Although a global problem, only 43% of the countries are actively involved in studies on microplastics.
About half the global population lives within 100 km of a coastline, and population growth is greatest in that zone. This means the amount of plastic debris entering the ocean from land-based sources is likely to increase unless significant changes are made to waste management practices on land.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following pollutants are measured under National Ambient Air Quality Standards?
- Carbon dioxide (CO2)
- Carbon monoxide (CO)
- Ammonia
- Benzopyrene
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: b
National Ambient Air Quality Standards
(NAAQS)
- National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) were notified in the year 1982, duly revised in 1994 based on health criteria and land uses.
- The NAAQS have been revisited and revised in November 2009 for 12 pollutants, which include
- sulphur dioxide (SO2),
- nitrogen dioxide (NO2),
- particulate matter having size less than 10 micron (PM10),
- particulate matter having size less than 2.5 micron (PM2.5),
- ozone,
- lead,
- carbon monoxide (CO),
- arsenic,
- nickel,
- benzene,
- ammonia, and
- benzopyrene.
Incorrect
Solution: b
National Ambient Air Quality Standards
(NAAQS)
- National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) were notified in the year 1982, duly revised in 1994 based on health criteria and land uses.
- The NAAQS have been revisited and revised in November 2009 for 12 pollutants, which include
- sulphur dioxide (SO2),
- nitrogen dioxide (NO2),
- particulate matter having size less than 10 micron (PM10),
- particulate matter having size less than 2.5 micron (PM2.5),
- ozone,
- lead,
- carbon monoxide (CO),
- arsenic,
- nickel,
- benzene,
- ammonia, and
- benzopyrene.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The Motor Vehicles Act states that all hazardous waste is to be properly packaged, labelled, and transported.
- The Atomic Energy Act deals with the radioactive waste.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Acts related to Air as a natural resource
-
- 1948 – The Factories Act and Amendment in 1987 was the first to express concern for the working environment of the workers. The amendment of 1987 has sharpened its environmental focus and expanded its application to hazardous processes.
- 1981 – The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act provides for the control and abatement of air pollution. It entrusts the power of enforcing this act to the CPCB.
- 1982 – The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Rules defines the procedures of the meetings of the Boards and the powers entrusted to them.
- 1982 – The Atomic Energy Act deals with the radioactive waste.
- 1987 – The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act empowers the central and state pollution control boards to meet with grave emergencies of air pollution.
- 1988 – The Motor Vehicles Act states that all hazardous waste is to be properly packaged, labelled, and transported.
https://vikaspedia.in/energy/policy-support/environment-1/air-1/air
Incorrect
Solution: C
Acts related to Air as a natural resource
-
- 1948 – The Factories Act and Amendment in 1987 was the first to express concern for the working environment of the workers. The amendment of 1987 has sharpened its environmental focus and expanded its application to hazardous processes.
- 1981 – The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act provides for the control and abatement of air pollution. It entrusts the power of enforcing this act to the CPCB.
- 1982 – The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Rules defines the procedures of the meetings of the Boards and the powers entrusted to them.
- 1982 – The Atomic Energy Act deals with the radioactive waste.
- 1987 – The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act empowers the central and state pollution control boards to meet with grave emergencies of air pollution.
- 1988 – The Motor Vehicles Act states that all hazardous waste is to be properly packaged, labelled, and transported.
https://vikaspedia.in/energy/policy-support/environment-1/air-1/air
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding biological oxygen demand (BOD)
- BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water.
- BOD is a slightly better mode used to measure pollution load in water than Chemical oxygen demand (COD).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The higher amounts of waste increases the rates of decomposition and O2 consumption, thereby decreases the DO content of water. The demand for O2 is directly related to increasing input of organic wastes and is empressed as biological oxygen demand (BOD) of water.
- Water pollution by organic wastes is measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD). BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water. It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre of water.
- The higher value of BOD indicates low DO content of water. Since BOD is limited to biodegradable materials only. Therefore, it is not a reliable method of measuring pollution load in water.
- Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a slightly better mode used to measure pollution load in water.
It is the measure of oxygen equivalent of the requirement of oxidation of total organic matter (i.e. biodegradable
and non-biodegradable) present in water.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The higher amounts of waste increases the rates of decomposition and O2 consumption, thereby decreases the DO content of water. The demand for O2 is directly related to increasing input of organic wastes and is empressed as biological oxygen demand (BOD) of water.
- Water pollution by organic wastes is measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD). BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water. It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre of water.
- The higher value of BOD indicates low DO content of water. Since BOD is limited to biodegradable materials only. Therefore, it is not a reliable method of measuring pollution load in water.
- Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a slightly better mode used to measure pollution load in water.
It is the measure of oxygen equivalent of the requirement of oxidation of total organic matter (i.e. biodegradable
and non-biodegradable) present in water.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding radiation particles
- Alpha particles can be blocked by a piece of paper and human skin.
- Gamma rays can penetrate easily to human skin and damage cells on its way through.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Radioactivity:
Radioactivity is a property of certain elements (radium, thorium, uranium etc.) to spontaneously emit protons (alpha particles) electrons (beta particles) and gamma rays (short-wave electromagnetic wave) by disintegration of their atomic nuclei (nuclides).
Types of Radiations
- Non-ionising radiations affect only those components which absorb them and have low penetrability.
- Ionising radiations have high penetration power and cause breakage of macro molecules.
Types of radiation particles
- Alpha particles, can be blocked by a piece of paper and human skin.
- Beta particles can penetrate through skin, while can be blocked by some pieces of glass and metal.
- Gamma rays can penetrate easily to human skin and damage cells on its way through, reaching far, and can only be blocked by a very thick, strong, massive piece of concrete.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Radioactivity:
Radioactivity is a property of certain elements (radium, thorium, uranium etc.) to spontaneously emit protons (alpha particles) electrons (beta particles) and gamma rays (short-wave electromagnetic wave) by disintegration of their atomic nuclei (nuclides).
Types of Radiations
- Non-ionising radiations affect only those components which absorb them and have low penetrability.
- Ionising radiations have high penetration power and cause breakage of macro molecules.
Types of radiation particles
- Alpha particles, can be blocked by a piece of paper and human skin.
- Beta particles can penetrate through skin, while can be blocked by some pieces of glass and metal.
- Gamma rays can penetrate easily to human skin and damage cells on its way through, reaching far, and can only be blocked by a very thick, strong, massive piece of concrete.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following criteria are used for categorization of industrial sectors based on the Pollution Index?
- Emissions (air pollutants),
- Effluents (water pollutants),
- Hazardous wastes generated
- Consumption of resources
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Categories and criteria for categorisation
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has developed the criteria of categorization of industrial sectors based on the Pollution Index which is a function of the emissions (air pollutants), effluents (water pollutants), hazardous wastes generated and consumption of resources.
For this purpose the references are taken from the the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution ) Cess (Amendment) Act, 2003, Standards so far prescribed for various pollutants under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and Doon Valley Notification, 1989 issued by MoEFCC. The Pollution Index PI of any industrial sector is a number from 0 to 100 and the increasing value of PI denotes the increasing degree of pollution load from the industrial sector. The following are the criteria on ‘Range of Pollution Index’ for the purpose of categorization of industrial sectors.
- Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score of 60 and above – Red category
- Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score of 41 to 59 – Orange category
- Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score of 21 to 40 – Green category
- Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score incl.& upto 20 – White category
Implications of categorisation
- There shall be no necessity of obtaining the Consent to Operate for White category of industries. An intimation to concerned SPCB / PCC shall suffice.
- No Red category of industries shall normally be permitted in the ecologically fragile area / protected area.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Categories and criteria for categorisation
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has developed the criteria of categorization of industrial sectors based on the Pollution Index which is a function of the emissions (air pollutants), effluents (water pollutants), hazardous wastes generated and consumption of resources.
For this purpose the references are taken from the the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution ) Cess (Amendment) Act, 2003, Standards so far prescribed for various pollutants under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and Doon Valley Notification, 1989 issued by MoEFCC. The Pollution Index PI of any industrial sector is a number from 0 to 100 and the increasing value of PI denotes the increasing degree of pollution load from the industrial sector. The following are the criteria on ‘Range of Pollution Index’ for the purpose of categorization of industrial sectors.
- Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score of 60 and above – Red category
- Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score of 41 to 59 – Orange category
- Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score of 21 to 40 – Green category
- Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score incl.& upto 20 – White category
Implications of categorisation
- There shall be no necessity of obtaining the Consent to Operate for White category of industries. An intimation to concerned SPCB / PCC shall suffice.
- No Red category of industries shall normally be permitted in the ecologically fragile area / protected area.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding bioremediation techniques
- Bioventing is the supply of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to stimulate the growth of indigenous bacteria.
- Biosparging is the injection of air under pressure below the water table to increase groundwater oxygen concentrations
- In Bioaugmentation, Microorganisms are imported to a contaminated site to enhance degradation process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
All the above statements are correct.
In situ bioremediation techniques
- It involves treatment of the contaminated material at the site.
- Bioventing – supply of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to stimulate the growth of indigenous bacteria. It is used for simple hydrocarbons and can be used where the contamination is deep under the surface.
- Biosparging – Injection of air under pressure below the water table to increase groundwater oxygen concentrations and enhance the rate of biological degradation of contaminants by naturally occurring bacteria
- Bioaugmentation – Microorganisms are imported to a contaminated site to enhance degradation process.
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the above statements are correct.
In situ bioremediation techniques
- It involves treatment of the contaminated material at the site.
- Bioventing – supply of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to stimulate the growth of indigenous bacteria. It is used for simple hydrocarbons and can be used where the contamination is deep under the surface.
- Biosparging – Injection of air under pressure below the water table to increase groundwater oxygen concentrations and enhance the rate of biological degradation of contaminants by naturally occurring bacteria
- Bioaugmentation – Microorganisms are imported to a contaminated site to enhance degradation process.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Joint Forest Management Committee (JFMC)
- It is an agency formed at a village level or a cluster of villages situated adjacent to Reserved Forests.
- JFMC is responsible for selecting the plant species to be planted in the forest, suggesting physical and financial targets, conducting awareness programs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Joint Forest Management Committee (JFMC) is an agency formed at a village level or a cluster of villages situated adjacent to Reserved Forests (RF) registered with the Territorial Divisional Forest Office.
JFMC is responsible for selecting the plant species to be planted in the forest, suggesting physical and financial targets, conducting awareness programs. The JFMC objectives are to ensure sustainable management of forest resources, to improve forest cover via afforestation, to restore degraded forest land, to promote conservation awareness through environmental education, restore watershed capability in catchment areas and to assure employment opportunities to the tribal communities.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Joint Forest Management Committee (JFMC) is an agency formed at a village level or a cluster of villages situated adjacent to Reserved Forests (RF) registered with the Territorial Divisional Forest Office.
JFMC is responsible for selecting the plant species to be planted in the forest, suggesting physical and financial targets, conducting awareness programs. The JFMC objectives are to ensure sustainable management of forest resources, to improve forest cover via afforestation, to restore degraded forest land, to promote conservation awareness through environmental education, restore watershed capability in catchment areas and to assure employment opportunities to the tribal communities.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsIn the context of State Finances, consider the following statements:
- The share of states in the Centre’s gross tax revenue(GTR) has increased in recent times.
- Recently,the Centre has raised borrowing limits for states to 5%of gross state domestic product (GSDP) from 3% .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Lowering Share of States in divisible pool: Due to over-reliance of Centre on Cess and Surcharges, the share of states in the Centre’s gross tax revenue (GTR) fell sharply from 36.6% in FY19 to 32.4% in FY20.
- Raised Borrowing Limits: The Centre has raised borrowing limits for states for the current fiscal to 5%of gross state domestic product (GSDP) from 3% at present, allowing them fiscal headroom of around Rs. 4 trillion, subject to their carrying out specific reforms.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Lowering Share of States in divisible pool: Due to over-reliance of Centre on Cess and Surcharges, the share of states in the Centre’s gross tax revenue (GTR) fell sharply from 36.6% in FY19 to 32.4% in FY20.
- Raised Borrowing Limits: The Centre has raised borrowing limits for states for the current fiscal to 5%of gross state domestic product (GSDP) from 3% at present, allowing them fiscal headroom of around Rs. 4 trillion, subject to their carrying out specific reforms.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsIn the context of CESS and SURCHARGES , sometimes seen in news, consider the following statements :
- CESS is calculated only on the total tax amount, but not on surcharge.
- SURCHARGE is levied only on Rich individuals and not on every tax payer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Incorrect
Solution: B
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConstitution(108th Amendment) Bill , sometimes seen in news is related to
- Cooperative Sector.
- GST
- National Commission for Backward Classes.
- None of the Above.
Correct
Solution : D
- Women Reservation Bill in Indian- 108 th Constitutional Amendment Bill.
- NCBC- 123rd Constitutional Amendment Bill, 102 nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
Incorrect
Solution : D
- Women Reservation Bill in Indian- 108 th Constitutional Amendment Bill.
- NCBC- 123rd Constitutional Amendment Bill, 102 nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements in the context of India based Neutrino Observatory:
- INO will observe neutrinos produced in the atmosphere of the Earth.
- INO also has strategic or defence applications.
- Its operation involves no radioactivity release or toxic emissions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution : A
- INO will observe neutrinos produced in the atmosphere of the Earth. The site identified is in Bodi West Hills, in Theni district, Tamil Nadu.
- INO has no strategic or defence applications.
- Its operation involves no radioactivity release or toxic emissions.
Incorrect
Solution : A
- INO will observe neutrinos produced in the atmosphere of the Earth. The site identified is in Bodi West Hills, in Theni district, Tamil Nadu.
- INO has no strategic or defence applications.
- Its operation involves no radioactivity release or toxic emissions.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsThe Report “State of the world’s indigenous peoples: Rights to Land, territories and resources” is released by
Correct
Solution: D
Recently, the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs released State of the world’s indigenous peoples: Rights to Land, territories and resources report.
Findings in the report
- Report mentions the recognition and protection of land titles and tenure of indigenous people is crucial to attaining SDGs to eradicate poverty and achieve sustainable development by 2030.
- Report calls on the UN to include indigenous peoples and their organizations in the sustainable development framework.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Recently, the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs released State of the world’s indigenous peoples: Rights to Land, territories and resources report.
Findings in the report
- Report mentions the recognition and protection of land titles and tenure of indigenous people is crucial to attaining SDGs to eradicate poverty and achieve sustainable development by 2030.
- Report calls on the UN to include indigenous peoples and their organizations in the sustainable development framework.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about Sugarcane
- India is largest sugarcane producer after Brazil
- Sugarcane is tropical and subtropical crop,predominantly grown in Deccan plateau and Tarai belt
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Answer C
Constraints in sugarcane cultivation
- a) Sub-tropical Region: Long winters, low Sun shine hours, high temperature disparity,
lack of early maturing high sucrose varieties, poor ratoon management, late planting,
water logging, imbalance use of fertilizer, incidence of disease and pests, inadequate
availability of quality seed, etc.
- b) Tropical Region: Lack of irrigation in many states, inadequate availability of quality
seed, incidence of disease and pests, poor ratoon management, etc.
For every sugar season, the Central Government fixes the Fair and Remunerative
Price (FRP) of sugarcane (earlier called Statutory Minimum Price) having regard to
the factors mentioned in clause 3(1) of the Sugarcane (control) Order, 1966, based
on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
(CACP) and after consultations with State Governments and other stake-holders.
The FRP is a benchmark guaranteed price of sugarcane determined by the Central
Government below which no sugar mill can purchase sugarcane from cane growers.
However, the State Governments of States viz. Punjab, Haryana, U.P, Uttarakhand,
and Tamil Nadu announce the State Advised Prices (SAP) which is normally higher
than the FRP.
Fixing of SAP at a price higher than FRP compounds the problem of cane price
Arrears.
Incorrect
Answer C
Constraints in sugarcane cultivation
- a) Sub-tropical Region: Long winters, low Sun shine hours, high temperature disparity,
lack of early maturing high sucrose varieties, poor ratoon management, late planting,
water logging, imbalance use of fertilizer, incidence of disease and pests, inadequate
availability of quality seed, etc.
- b) Tropical Region: Lack of irrigation in many states, inadequate availability of quality
seed, incidence of disease and pests, poor ratoon management, etc.
For every sugar season, the Central Government fixes the Fair and Remunerative
Price (FRP) of sugarcane (earlier called Statutory Minimum Price) having regard to
the factors mentioned in clause 3(1) of the Sugarcane (control) Order, 1966, based
on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
(CACP) and after consultations with State Governments and other stake-holders.
The FRP is a benchmark guaranteed price of sugarcane determined by the Central
Government below which no sugar mill can purchase sugarcane from cane growers.
However, the State Governments of States viz. Punjab, Haryana, U.P, Uttarakhand,
and Tamil Nadu announce the State Advised Prices (SAP) which is normally higher
than the FRP.
Fixing of SAP at a price higher than FRP compounds the problem of cane price
Arrears.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about cotton
- Cotton can grow below 20 degree celsius temperature
- Maharashtra is leading producer of cotton
- Quality of cotton will be good when during ripening period if conditions are dry
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Answer C
Cotton is semi tolerant to salinity
Gujarat is the leading cotton growing State followed by Maharashtra.
Maharashtra has the largest area under cotton cultivation followed by Gujarat.
India is world’s largest producer of cotton
Black soil is more suitable because it can hold moisture
conditions
Hard-frost is injurious to cotton cultivation and it requires at least 210 frost-free days.
Only light-rainfall (50 to 100 centimetres) is preferred. Cotton can also be cultivated under irrigated conditions.so Egypt is one of the leading state
It requires high temperatures and bright sunshine for its growth.
Incorrect
Answer C
Cotton is semi tolerant to salinity
Gujarat is the leading cotton growing State followed by Maharashtra.
Maharashtra has the largest area under cotton cultivation followed by Gujarat.
India is world’s largest producer of cotton
Black soil is more suitable because it can hold moisture
conditions
Hard-frost is injurious to cotton cultivation and it requires at least 210 frost-free days.
Only light-rainfall (50 to 100 centimetres) is preferred. Cotton can also be cultivated under irrigated conditions.so Egypt is one of the leading state
It requires high temperatures and bright sunshine for its growth.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following, identify incorrect
Correct
Answer D
Incorrect
Answer D
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about Blue Shield Emblem
- Its an intergovernmental body
- The emblem is a protective symbol used during armed conflicts and its use is restricted by law.
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Answer b
The Blue Shield network, often referred to as the cultural equivalent of the Red Cross, was formed in response to the changes in international law and today works globally to protect cultural heritage in emergency situations. We are a non-governmental, non-profit, international organisation committed to the protection of heritage across the world. This includes museums, monuments, archaeological sites, archives, libraries and audio-visual material, and significant natural areas, as well as intangible heritage. We have national committees operating across the world, with more under construction. The national committees are coordinated by an international committee – the Blue Shield International Board.
Incorrect
Answer b
The Blue Shield network, often referred to as the cultural equivalent of the Red Cross, was formed in response to the changes in international law and today works globally to protect cultural heritage in emergency situations. We are a non-governmental, non-profit, international organisation committed to the protection of heritage across the world. This includes museums, monuments, archaeological sites, archives, libraries and audio-visual material, and significant natural areas, as well as intangible heritage. We have national committees operating across the world, with more under construction. The national committees are coordinated by an international committee – the Blue Shield International Board.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)
- The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons is the implementing body of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC)
- It is open to all nations and currently has 193 states-parties.Three states have neither signed nor ratified the convention which includes India
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Answer A
(Egypt, North Korea and South Sudan) are three nations
India is a signatory and party to the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC).
Israel signed and did not ratifyIncorrect
Answer A
(Egypt, North Korea and South Sudan) are three nations
India is a signatory and party to the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC).
Israel signed and did not ratify -
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsThe salary of Amit is 30% more than that of Varun. Find by what percentage is the salary of Vrun less than that of Amit?
Correct
Solution : b
100 → 130 → 100 (A→B→A )
∴Answer = 30/130 = 23.07%Incorrect
Solution : b
100 → 130 → 100 (A→B→A )
∴Answer = 30/130 = 23.07% -
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThe price of sugar is reduced by 25% but inspite of the decrease, Aayush ends up increasing his expenditure on sugar by 20%. What is the percentage change in his monthly consumption of sugar?
Correct
We have assumed initial expenditure to be 100, in the above figure. Then the final expenditure is 120. The percentage change in consumption can be n to be 45/75 x 100= 60%
Incorrect
We have assumed initial expenditure to be 100, in the above figure. Then the final expenditure is 120. The percentage change in consumption can be n to be 45/75 x 100= 60%
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsThe price of rice falls by 20%. How much rice can be bought now with the money that was sufficient to buy 20 kg of rice previously?
Correct
Solution : d
If the price of rice has fallen by 20% the quantity would be increased by 25% (if we keep the expenditure constant.)
This means that 20 kgs would increase by 25% to 25kgs.Incorrect
Solution : d
If the price of rice has fallen by 20% the quantity would be increased by 25% (if we keep the expenditure constant.)
This means that 20 kgs would increase by 25% to 25kgs. -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 points30% of a number when subtracted from 91, gives the number itself. Find the number.
Correct
Solution : c
91 – 0.3N = N → 1.3 N= 91 → N = 70.
Incorrect
Solution : c
91 – 0.3N = N → 1.3 N= 91 → N = 70.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsWhen 60% of a number A is added to another number B, B becomes 175% of its previous value. Then which of the following is true regarding the values of A and B?
Correct
Solution : d
B+ 60% of A = 175% of B → 60% of A = 75% of B.
0.6A = 0.75B
A/B = 5/4
Apparently it seems that A is bigger, but if you consider A and B to be negative the opposite would be true.
Hence, option (d) is correctIncorrect
Solution : d
B+ 60% of A = 175% of B → 60% of A = 75% of B.
0.6A = 0.75B
A/B = 5/4
Apparently it seems that A is bigger, but if you consider A and B to be negative the opposite would be true.
Hence, option (d) is correct
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