INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2022
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2022
- Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2022 [ HERE ]
- CSAT Plan for Insta 75 Days Revision Plan – 2022 [ CLICK HERE ]
- Know about how to follow INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan – 2022 [ CLICK HERE ]
- Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ]
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about Asteroid Impact Deflection Assessment (AIDA).
- It is a joint research mission between NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA) teams.
- The project aims to deflect the orbit of an asteroid plying between Mars and Jupiter.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Asteroid Impact Deflection Assessment (AIDA) is a joint research mission between NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA) teams.
It aims to study the viability of diverting an asteroid by crashing a spacecraft into its surface.
The project aims to deflect the orbit of one of the two Didymos asteroids between Earth and Mars, with an observer craft gauging the effect of the impact more effectively than ground based observers could manage.
Q Source: Awareness of space related issues
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Asteroid Impact Deflection Assessment (AIDA) is a joint research mission between NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA) teams.
It aims to study the viability of diverting an asteroid by crashing a spacecraft into its surface.
The project aims to deflect the orbit of one of the two Didymos asteroids between Earth and Mars, with an observer craft gauging the effect of the impact more effectively than ground based observers could manage.
Q Source: Awareness of space related issues
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements Bose-Einstein condensate, that was seen in news sometime before at the International Space Station.
- A Bose-Einstein condensate is a group of atoms cooled close to absolute zero temperature.
- Once atoms reach the state of BE condensate, the group starts behaving as if it were a single atom.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: Of the five states matter can be in, the Bose-Einstein condensate is perhaps the most mysterious. Gases, liquids, solids and plasmas were all well studied for decades, if not centuries; Bose-Einstein condensates weren’t created in the laboratory until the 1990s.
A Bose-Einstein condensate is a group of atoms cooled to within a hair of absolute zero. When they reach that temperature the atoms are hardly moving relative to each other; they have almost no free energy to do so. At that point, the atoms begin to clump together, and enter the same energy states. They become identical, from a physical point of view, and the whole group starts behaving as though it were a single atom.
To make a Bose-Einstein condensate, you start with a cloud of diffuse gas. Many experiments start with atoms of rubidium. Then you cool it with lasers, using the beams to take energy away from the atoms. After that, to cool them further, scientists use evaporative cooling. “With a [Bose-Einstein condensate], you start from a disordered state, where kinetic energy is greater than potential energy,” said Xuedong Hu, a professor of physics at the University at Buffalo. “You cool it down, but it doesn’t form a lattice like a solid.”
Instead, the atoms fall into the same quantum states, and can’t be distinguished from one another. At that point the atoms start obeying what are called Bose-Einstein statistics, which are usually applied to particles you can’t tell apart, such as photons.
Q Source: Important topics
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: Of the five states matter can be in, the Bose-Einstein condensate is perhaps the most mysterious. Gases, liquids, solids and plasmas were all well studied for decades, if not centuries; Bose-Einstein condensates weren’t created in the laboratory until the 1990s.
A Bose-Einstein condensate is a group of atoms cooled to within a hair of absolute zero. When they reach that temperature the atoms are hardly moving relative to each other; they have almost no free energy to do so. At that point, the atoms begin to clump together, and enter the same energy states. They become identical, from a physical point of view, and the whole group starts behaving as though it were a single atom.
To make a Bose-Einstein condensate, you start with a cloud of diffuse gas. Many experiments start with atoms of rubidium. Then you cool it with lasers, using the beams to take energy away from the atoms. After that, to cool them further, scientists use evaporative cooling. “With a [Bose-Einstein condensate], you start from a disordered state, where kinetic energy is greater than potential energy,” said Xuedong Hu, a professor of physics at the University at Buffalo. “You cool it down, but it doesn’t form a lattice like a solid.”
Instead, the atoms fall into the same quantum states, and can’t be distinguished from one another. At that point the atoms start obeying what are called Bose-Einstein statistics, which are usually applied to particles you can’t tell apart, such as photons.
Q Source: Important topics
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsTechnologies that are widely employed in genetic engineering/genome analysis include
- Mass-Cytometry
- Chromatin remodelling
- RNA Interference (RNAi) and TALENS
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Genome Manipulation, Editing and Interference by CRISPER, TALENS and RNAi are well known and we have covered them in various capacities elsewhere.
Chromatin remodelling involves a dynamic interchange between open (transcriptionally active) and closed (transcriptionally repressed or silenced) chromatin structures and is controlled by enzymatic modification of the DNA and/or histone proteins, such as DNA methylation and histone acetylation, respectively.
Chromatin is a substance within a chromosome consisting of DNA and protein. The DNA carries the cell’s genetic instructions. The major proteins in chromatin are histones, which help package the DNA in a compact form that fits in the cell nucleus.
Mass cytometry, also called cytometry by time-of-flight, is an emerging powerful single-cell proteomic analysis technique which utilizes rare metal isotopes instead of fluorophores in genome analysis. More details may not be relevant here.
Q Source: DBT website
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Genome Manipulation, Editing and Interference by CRISPER, TALENS and RNAi are well known and we have covered them in various capacities elsewhere.
Chromatin remodelling involves a dynamic interchange between open (transcriptionally active) and closed (transcriptionally repressed or silenced) chromatin structures and is controlled by enzymatic modification of the DNA and/or histone proteins, such as DNA methylation and histone acetylation, respectively.
Chromatin is a substance within a chromosome consisting of DNA and protein. The DNA carries the cell’s genetic instructions. The major proteins in chromatin are histones, which help package the DNA in a compact form that fits in the cell nucleus.
Mass cytometry, also called cytometry by time-of-flight, is an emerging powerful single-cell proteomic analysis technique which utilizes rare metal isotopes instead of fluorophores in genome analysis. More details may not be relevant here.
Q Source: DBT website
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsArianespace, frequently seen in news, is a
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: It is the world’s first commercial launch service provider and since the launch of India’s APPLE experimental satellite on Ariane Flight L03 in 1981, Arianespace has orbited 24 satellites, including Gsat-30, for the Indian space agency.
Arianespace SA is a multinational company founded in 1980 as the world’s first commercial launch service provider. It undertakes the operation and marketing of the Ariane programme. The company offers a number of different launch vehicles: the heavy-lift Ariane 5 for dual launches to geostationary transfer orbit, the Soyuz-2 as a medium-lift alternative, and the solid-fueled Vega for lighter payloads.
Q Source: Awareness of space related issues
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: It is the world’s first commercial launch service provider and since the launch of India’s APPLE experimental satellite on Ariane Flight L03 in 1981, Arianespace has orbited 24 satellites, including Gsat-30, for the Indian space agency.
Arianespace SA is a multinational company founded in 1980 as the world’s first commercial launch service provider. It undertakes the operation and marketing of the Ariane programme. The company offers a number of different launch vehicles: the heavy-lift Ariane 5 for dual launches to geostationary transfer orbit, the Soyuz-2 as a medium-lift alternative, and the solid-fueled Vega for lighter payloads.
Q Source: Awareness of space related issues
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about NASA’s Dragonfly programme, which is a part of its New Frontiers Programme.
- It aims to search for signs of microbial alien life on Saturn.
- The mission will succeed NASA’s Cassini probe.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: NASA plans to launch an unmanned nuclear-powered drone, Dragonfly as early as 2026 to search for life on Saturn’s largest moon, Titan, while navigating its earth- like gravity and aerodynamics in the process.
The mission will succeed NASA’s Cassini probe, which ended its 13-year mission orbiting Saturn in September 2017 by diving into Saturn’s atmosphere.
Dragonfly mission is a part of NASA’s New Frontiers program, which includes a series of space exploration missions, which are being conducted with the purpose of researching several of the Solar System bodies, including the dwarf planet Pluto.
The New Frontiers programme also includes Pluto probe New Horizons, Jupiter probe Juno and OSIRIS-Rex asteroid mission.
The Dragonfly mission replaces a previously discontinued concept project called Titan Saturn System Mission (TSSM), which required a balloon probe to circumnavigate Titan.
Q Source: Awareness of space related issues
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: NASA plans to launch an unmanned nuclear-powered drone, Dragonfly as early as 2026 to search for life on Saturn’s largest moon, Titan, while navigating its earth- like gravity and aerodynamics in the process.
The mission will succeed NASA’s Cassini probe, which ended its 13-year mission orbiting Saturn in September 2017 by diving into Saturn’s atmosphere.
Dragonfly mission is a part of NASA’s New Frontiers program, which includes a series of space exploration missions, which are being conducted with the purpose of researching several of the Solar System bodies, including the dwarf planet Pluto.
The New Frontiers programme also includes Pluto probe New Horizons, Jupiter probe Juno and OSIRIS-Rex asteroid mission.
The Dragonfly mission replaces a previously discontinued concept project called Titan Saturn System Mission (TSSM), which required a balloon probe to circumnavigate Titan.
Q Source: Awareness of space related issues
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Global Influenza Surveillance and Response System (GISRS)
- The GISAID platform was launched by World Health Assembly in 2018.
- Federal Republic of Germany is the official host of the GISAID platform.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b
WHO Global Influenza Surveillance and Response System (GISRS).
The GISAID platform was launched on the occasion of the Sixty-first World Health Assembly in May 2008. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Created as an alternative to the public domain sharing model, GISAID’s sharing mechanism took into account the concerns of Member States by providing a publicly accessible database designed by scientist for scientist, to improve the sharing of influenza data.
Since its launch GISAID plays an essential role in the sharing of data among the WHO Collaborating Centers and National Influenza Centers for the bi-annual influenza vaccine virus recommendations by the WHO Global Influenza Surveillance and Response System (GISRS).
In 2010 the Federal Republic of Germany became the official host of the GISAID platform and EpiFlu™ database providing sustainability of the platform and stability through its public-private-partnership with the GISAID Initiative to this day.
Incorrect
Solution: b
WHO Global Influenza Surveillance and Response System (GISRS).
The GISAID platform was launched on the occasion of the Sixty-first World Health Assembly in May 2008. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Created as an alternative to the public domain sharing model, GISAID’s sharing mechanism took into account the concerns of Member States by providing a publicly accessible database designed by scientist for scientist, to improve the sharing of influenza data.
Since its launch GISAID plays an essential role in the sharing of data among the WHO Collaborating Centers and National Influenza Centers for the bi-annual influenza vaccine virus recommendations by the WHO Global Influenza Surveillance and Response System (GISRS).
In 2010 the Federal Republic of Germany became the official host of the GISAID platform and EpiFlu™ database providing sustainability of the platform and stability through its public-private-partnership with the GISAID Initiative to this day.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are main types of vaccine technology can be used to prepare COVID-19 vaccine?
- Whole virus
- Protein subunit
- Viral vector
- Nucleic acid (RNA and DNA)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: d
All the above statements are correct.
The four main types of COVID-19 vaccine
There are four categories of vaccines in clinical trials: whole virus, protein subunit, viral vector and nucleic acid (RNA and DNA).
Whole virus
Many conventional vaccines use whole viruses to trigger an immune response. There are two main approaches. Live attenuated vaccines use a weakened form of the virus that can still replicate without causing illness. Inactivated vaccines use viruses whose genetic material has been destroyed so they cannot replicate, but can still trigger an immune response. Both types use well-established technology and pathways for regulatory approval, but live attenuated ones may risk causing disease in people with weak immune systems and often require careful cold storage, making their use more challenging in low-resource countries. Inactivated virus vaccines can be given to people with compromised immune systems but might also need cold storage.
Protein subunit
Subunit vaccines use pieces of the pathogen – often fragments of protein – to trigger an immune response. Doing so minimises the risk of side effects, but it also means the immune response may be weaker. This is why they often require adjuvants, to help boost the immune response. An example of an existing subunit vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine.
Nucleic acid
Nucleic acid vaccines use genetic material – either RNA or DNA – to provide cells with the instructions to make the antigen. In the case of COVID-19, this is usually the viral spike protein. Once this genetic material gets into human cells, it uses our cells’ protein factories to make the antigen that will trigger an immune response. The advantages of such vaccines are that they are easy to make, and cheap. Since the antigen is produced inside our own cells and in large quantities, the immune reaction should be strong. A downside, however, is that so far, no DNA or RNA vaccines have been licensed for human use, which may cause more hurdles with regulatory approval. In addition, RNA vaccines need to be kept at ultra-cold temperatures, -70C or lower, which could prove challenging for countries that don’t have specialised cold storage equipment, particularly low- and middle-income countries.
Viral vector
Viral vector vaccines also work by giving cells genetic instructions to produce antigens. But they differ from nucleic acid vaccines in that they use a harmless virus, different from the one the vaccine is targeting, to deliver these instructions into the cell. One type of virus that has often been used as a vector is adenovirus, which causes the common cold. As with nucleic acid vaccines, our own cellular machinery is hijacked to produce the antigen from those instructions, in order to trigger an immune response. Viral vector vaccines can mimic natural viral infection and should therefore trigger a strong immune response. However, since there is a chance that many people may have already been exposed to the viruses being used as vectors, some may be immune to it, making the vaccine less effective.
Incorrect
Solution: d
All the above statements are correct.
The four main types of COVID-19 vaccine
There are four categories of vaccines in clinical trials: whole virus, protein subunit, viral vector and nucleic acid (RNA and DNA).
Whole virus
Many conventional vaccines use whole viruses to trigger an immune response. There are two main approaches. Live attenuated vaccines use a weakened form of the virus that can still replicate without causing illness. Inactivated vaccines use viruses whose genetic material has been destroyed so they cannot replicate, but can still trigger an immune response. Both types use well-established technology and pathways for regulatory approval, but live attenuated ones may risk causing disease in people with weak immune systems and often require careful cold storage, making their use more challenging in low-resource countries. Inactivated virus vaccines can be given to people with compromised immune systems but might also need cold storage.
Protein subunit
Subunit vaccines use pieces of the pathogen – often fragments of protein – to trigger an immune response. Doing so minimises the risk of side effects, but it also means the immune response may be weaker. This is why they often require adjuvants, to help boost the immune response. An example of an existing subunit vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine.
Nucleic acid
Nucleic acid vaccines use genetic material – either RNA or DNA – to provide cells with the instructions to make the antigen. In the case of COVID-19, this is usually the viral spike protein. Once this genetic material gets into human cells, it uses our cells’ protein factories to make the antigen that will trigger an immune response. The advantages of such vaccines are that they are easy to make, and cheap. Since the antigen is produced inside our own cells and in large quantities, the immune reaction should be strong. A downside, however, is that so far, no DNA or RNA vaccines have been licensed for human use, which may cause more hurdles with regulatory approval. In addition, RNA vaccines need to be kept at ultra-cold temperatures, -70C or lower, which could prove challenging for countries that don’t have specialised cold storage equipment, particularly low- and middle-income countries.
Viral vector
Viral vector vaccines also work by giving cells genetic instructions to produce antigens. But they differ from nucleic acid vaccines in that they use a harmless virus, different from the one the vaccine is targeting, to deliver these instructions into the cell. One type of virus that has often been used as a vector is adenovirus, which causes the common cold. As with nucleic acid vaccines, our own cellular machinery is hijacked to produce the antigen from those instructions, in order to trigger an immune response. Viral vector vaccines can mimic natural viral infection and should therefore trigger a strong immune response. However, since there is a chance that many people may have already been exposed to the viruses being used as vectors, some may be immune to it, making the vaccine less effective.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding CRISPR-Cas9
- Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats of genetic information is used in some bacterial species as part of an antiviral system.
- Guide RNA (gRNA) binds to Cas9 and specifies the location at which Cas9 will cut DNA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c
All the above statements are correct.
What is CRISPR-Cas9?
CRISPR-Cas9 is a genome editing tool that is creating a buzz in the science world. It is faster, cheaper and more accurate than previous techniques of editing DNA and has a wide range of potential applications.
What is CRISPR-Cas9?
- CRISPR-Cas9 is a unique technology that enables geneticists and medical researchers to edit parts of the genome by removing, adding or altering sections of the DNA sequence.
CRISPR Lexicon
-
- CRISPR: Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats of genetic information that some bacterial species use as part of an antiviral system. A group of scientists, including our co-founder Dr. Emmanuelle Charpentier, discovered how to use this system as a gene-editing tool (Jinek, et al. Science 2012)
- Cas9: a CRISPR-associated (Cas) endonuclease, or enzyme, that acts as “molecular scissors” to cut DNA at a location specified by a guide RNA
- Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA): the molecule that most organisms use to store genetic information, which contains the “instructions for life”
- Ribonucleic acid (RNA): a molecule related to DNA that living things use for a number of purposes, including transporting and reading the DNA “instructions”
- Guide RNA (gRNA): a type of RNA molecule that binds to Cas9 and specifies, based on the sequence of the gRNA, the location at which Cas9 will cut DNA.
Incorrect
Solution: c
All the above statements are correct.
What is CRISPR-Cas9?
CRISPR-Cas9 is a genome editing tool that is creating a buzz in the science world. It is faster, cheaper and more accurate than previous techniques of editing DNA and has a wide range of potential applications.
What is CRISPR-Cas9?
- CRISPR-Cas9 is a unique technology that enables geneticists and medical researchers to edit parts of the genome by removing, adding or altering sections of the DNA sequence.
CRISPR Lexicon
-
- CRISPR: Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats of genetic information that some bacterial species use as part of an antiviral system. A group of scientists, including our co-founder Dr. Emmanuelle Charpentier, discovered how to use this system as a gene-editing tool (Jinek, et al. Science 2012)
- Cas9: a CRISPR-associated (Cas) endonuclease, or enzyme, that acts as “molecular scissors” to cut DNA at a location specified by a guide RNA
- Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA): the molecule that most organisms use to store genetic information, which contains the “instructions for life”
- Ribonucleic acid (RNA): a molecule related to DNA that living things use for a number of purposes, including transporting and reading the DNA “instructions”
- Guide RNA (gRNA): a type of RNA molecule that binds to Cas9 and specifies, based on the sequence of the gRNA, the location at which Cas9 will cut DNA.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Stem Cells
- Pluripotent Stem Cells can transform into all kinds of cells in the human body.
- Totipotent Stem Cells can transform themselves into any type of cell in the human body except those kinds that are required to support and develop a fetus in the womb.
- Adult Stem Cells are the cells that can multiply when there is a need to repair adult organs and tissues.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c
Classification based on Stem Cells formation at different times of human lives
There are 3 types under this classification
- Embryonic stem cells
- Adult stem cells
- Induced pluripotent stem cells or iPSC’s
What are Embryonic Stem cells?
These are the Stem cells that exist only during the earliest stage of development.
What are Adult Stem Cells?
- These are the cells that can multiply when there is a need to repair adult organs and tissues.
- These cells are present in almost all organs of the human body.
- They are multipotent i.e. they can give rise to a limited number of mature cell types, usually corresponding to the tissues in which they reside. A most well-known example is the blood-forming (hematopoietic) stem cells from bone marrow that give rise to different blood cells in our body.
- Some tissue-specific stem cells can only give rise to one or two mature cell types and are called unipotent and bipotent, respectively. Stem cells found in the skin produce new skin cells and are an example of unipotent stem cells.
What are induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSC’s)?
- These cells are not found in the body but made in the laboratory from cells of the body.
- The iPSC cells have properties similar to those of embryonic stem cells.
- Human iPSC’s were generated in 2007.
Classification based on Stem cells ability to develop into different specialized cells
There are 3 types under this classification
- Totipotent stem cells
- Pluripotent stem cells
- Multipotent stem cells
What are Totipotent Stem Cells?
These Stem Cells can transform into all kinds of cells in the human body. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
What are Pluripotent Stem Cells?
These Stem Cells can transform themselves into any type of cell in the human body except those kinds that are required to support and develop a fetus in the womb. ESC’s and iPSC’s are pluripotent stem cells. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
What are Multipotent Stem Cells?
These can give rise to only a few distinct types of cells.
Incorrect
Solution: c
Classification based on Stem Cells formation at different times of human lives
There are 3 types under this classification
- Embryonic stem cells
- Adult stem cells
- Induced pluripotent stem cells or iPSC’s
What are Embryonic Stem cells?
These are the Stem cells that exist only during the earliest stage of development.
What are Adult Stem Cells?
- These are the cells that can multiply when there is a need to repair adult organs and tissues.
- These cells are present in almost all organs of the human body.
- They are multipotent i.e. they can give rise to a limited number of mature cell types, usually corresponding to the tissues in which they reside. A most well-known example is the blood-forming (hematopoietic) stem cells from bone marrow that give rise to different blood cells in our body.
- Some tissue-specific stem cells can only give rise to one or two mature cell types and are called unipotent and bipotent, respectively. Stem cells found in the skin produce new skin cells and are an example of unipotent stem cells.
What are induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSC’s)?
- These cells are not found in the body but made in the laboratory from cells of the body.
- The iPSC cells have properties similar to those of embryonic stem cells.
- Human iPSC’s were generated in 2007.
Classification based on Stem cells ability to develop into different specialized cells
There are 3 types under this classification
- Totipotent stem cells
- Pluripotent stem cells
- Multipotent stem cells
What are Totipotent Stem Cells?
These Stem Cells can transform into all kinds of cells in the human body. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
What are Pluripotent Stem Cells?
These Stem Cells can transform themselves into any type of cell in the human body except those kinds that are required to support and develop a fetus in the womb. ESC’s and iPSC’s are pluripotent stem cells. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
What are Multipotent Stem Cells?
These can give rise to only a few distinct types of cells.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsIn which of the following are the applications of Earth Observation Satellites?
- Urban planning
- Mineral prospecting
- Disaster management
- Ocean resource management
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: d
All the above statements are correct.
Earth Observation Satellites
Starting with IRS-1A in 1988, ISRO has launched many operational remote sensing satellites. Today, India has one of the largest constellations of remote sensing satellites in operation. Currently, *thirteen* operational satellites are in Sun-synchronous orbit – RESOURCESAT-1, 2, 2A CARTOSAT-1, 2, 2A, 2B, RISAT-1 and 2, OCEANSAT-2, Megha-Tropiques, SARAL and SCATSAT-1, and *four* in Geostationary orbit- INSAT-3D, Kalpana & INSAT 3A, INSAT -3DR. Varieties of instruments have been flown onboard these satellites to provide necessary data in a diversified spatial, spectral and temporal resolutions to cater to different user requirements in the country and for global usage. The data from these satellites are used for several applications covering agriculture, water resources, urban planning, rural development, mineral prospecting, environment, forestry, ocean resources and disaster management.
Incorrect
Solution: d
All the above statements are correct.
Earth Observation Satellites
Starting with IRS-1A in 1988, ISRO has launched many operational remote sensing satellites. Today, India has one of the largest constellations of remote sensing satellites in operation. Currently, *thirteen* operational satellites are in Sun-synchronous orbit – RESOURCESAT-1, 2, 2A CARTOSAT-1, 2, 2A, 2B, RISAT-1 and 2, OCEANSAT-2, Megha-Tropiques, SARAL and SCATSAT-1, and *four* in Geostationary orbit- INSAT-3D, Kalpana & INSAT 3A, INSAT -3DR. Varieties of instruments have been flown onboard these satellites to provide necessary data in a diversified spatial, spectral and temporal resolutions to cater to different user requirements in the country and for global usage. The data from these satellites are used for several applications covering agriculture, water resources, urban planning, rural development, mineral prospecting, environment, forestry, ocean resources and disaster management.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mars Orbiter Mission
- Mars Orbiter Mission is ISRO’s first interplanetary mission to planet Mars with an orbiter craft.
- Autonomous fault detection and recovery were critical technology used in this mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c
All the above statements are correct.
Mars Orbiter Mission is ISRO’s first interplanetary mission to planet Mars with an orbiter craft designed to orbit Mars in an elliptical orbit of 372 km by 80,000 km. Mars Orbiter mission can be termed as a challenging technological mission and a science mission considering the critical mission operations and stringent requirements on propulsion, communications and other bus systems of the spacecraft. The primary driving technological objective of the mission is to design and realize a spacecraft with a capability to perform Earth Bound Manoeuvre (EBM), Martian Transfer Trajectory (MTT) and Mars Orbit Insertion (MOI) phases and the related deep space mission planning and communication management at a distance of nearly 400 million Km. Autonomous fault detection and recovery also becomes vital for the mission.
Incorrect
Solution: c
All the above statements are correct.
Mars Orbiter Mission is ISRO’s first interplanetary mission to planet Mars with an orbiter craft designed to orbit Mars in an elliptical orbit of 372 km by 80,000 km. Mars Orbiter mission can be termed as a challenging technological mission and a science mission considering the critical mission operations and stringent requirements on propulsion, communications and other bus systems of the spacecraft. The primary driving technological objective of the mission is to design and realize a spacecraft with a capability to perform Earth Bound Manoeuvre (EBM), Martian Transfer Trajectory (MTT) and Mars Orbit Insertion (MOI) phases and the related deep space mission planning and communication management at a distance of nearly 400 million Km. Autonomous fault detection and recovery also becomes vital for the mission.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Scramjet Engine
- It works based on the technology of Air Breathing Propulsion System.
- The Scramjet engine designed by ISRO uses Hydrogen as fuel and the Oxygen from the atmospheric air as the oxidizer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c
All the above statements are correct.
Scramjet Engine – TD
The first experimental mission of ISRO’s Scramjet Engine towards the realization of an Air Breathing Propulsion System was successfully conducted on August 28, 2016 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR, Sriharikota.
After a flight of about 300 seconds, the vehicle touched down in the Bay of Bengal, approximately 320 km from Sriharikota. The vehicle was successfully tracked during its flight from the ground stations at Sriharikota. With this flight, critical technologies such as ignition of air breathing engines at supersonic speed, holding the flame at supersonic speed, air intake mechanism and fuel injection systems have been successfully demonstrated.
The Scramjet engine designed by ISRO uses Hydrogen as fuel and the Oxygen from the atmospheric air as the oxidizer. This test was the maiden short duration experimental test of ISRO’s Scramjet engine with a hypersonic flight at Mach 6. ISRO’s Advanced Technology Vehicle (ATV), which is an advanced sounding rocket, was the solid rocket booster used for the test of Scramjet engines at supersonic conditions. ATV carrying Scramjet engines weighed 3277 kg at lift-off.
Incorrect
Solution: c
All the above statements are correct.
Scramjet Engine – TD
The first experimental mission of ISRO’s Scramjet Engine towards the realization of an Air Breathing Propulsion System was successfully conducted on August 28, 2016 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR, Sriharikota.
After a flight of about 300 seconds, the vehicle touched down in the Bay of Bengal, approximately 320 km from Sriharikota. The vehicle was successfully tracked during its flight from the ground stations at Sriharikota. With this flight, critical technologies such as ignition of air breathing engines at supersonic speed, holding the flame at supersonic speed, air intake mechanism and fuel injection systems have been successfully demonstrated.
The Scramjet engine designed by ISRO uses Hydrogen as fuel and the Oxygen from the atmospheric air as the oxidizer. This test was the maiden short duration experimental test of ISRO’s Scramjet engine with a hypersonic flight at Mach 6. ISRO’s Advanced Technology Vehicle (ATV), which is an advanced sounding rocket, was the solid rocket booster used for the test of Scramjet engines at supersonic conditions. ATV carrying Scramjet engines weighed 3277 kg at lift-off.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding quasar
- The word quasar stands for quasi-stellar radio source.
- The quasars are extremely bright, up to 1,000 times brighter than our Milky Way galaxy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c
All the above statements are correct.
The word quasar stands for quasi-stellar radio source. Quasars got that name because they looked starlike when astronomers first began to notice them in the late 1950s and early 60s. But quasars aren’t stars. They’re now known as young galaxies, located at vast distances from us, with their numbers increasing towards the edge of the visible universe. How can they be so far away and yet still visible? The answer is that quasars are extremely bright, up to 1,000 times brighter than our Milky Way galaxy. We know, therefore, that they’re highly active, emitting staggering amounts of radiation across the entire electromagnetic spectrum.
Because they’re far away, we’re seeing these objects as they were when our universe was young. The oldest quasar, currently, is J0313-1806. Its distance has been measured as 13.03 billion light-years, and therefore we see it as it was just 670 million years after the Big Bang.
As matter in a quasar/black hole’s accretion disk heats up, it generates radio waves, X-rays, ultraviolet and visible light. The quasar becomes so bright that it’s able to outshine entire galaxies. But remember … quasars are very far away. They’re so far from us that we only observe the active nucleus, or core, of the galaxy in which they reside. We see nothing of the galaxy apart from its bright center. It’s like seeing a distant car headlight at night: you have no idea of which type of car you are looking at, as everything apart from the headlight is in darkness.
https://earthsky.org/astronomy-essentials/definition-what-is-a-quasar
Incorrect
Solution: c
All the above statements are correct.
The word quasar stands for quasi-stellar radio source. Quasars got that name because they looked starlike when astronomers first began to notice them in the late 1950s and early 60s. But quasars aren’t stars. They’re now known as young galaxies, located at vast distances from us, with their numbers increasing towards the edge of the visible universe. How can they be so far away and yet still visible? The answer is that quasars are extremely bright, up to 1,000 times brighter than our Milky Way galaxy. We know, therefore, that they’re highly active, emitting staggering amounts of radiation across the entire electromagnetic spectrum.
Because they’re far away, we’re seeing these objects as they were when our universe was young. The oldest quasar, currently, is J0313-1806. Its distance has been measured as 13.03 billion light-years, and therefore we see it as it was just 670 million years after the Big Bang.
As matter in a quasar/black hole’s accretion disk heats up, it generates radio waves, X-rays, ultraviolet and visible light. The quasar becomes so bright that it’s able to outshine entire galaxies. But remember … quasars are very far away. They’re so far from us that we only observe the active nucleus, or core, of the galaxy in which they reside. We see nothing of the galaxy apart from its bright center. It’s like seeing a distant car headlight at night: you have no idea of which type of car you are looking at, as everything apart from the headlight is in darkness.
https://earthsky.org/astronomy-essentials/definition-what-is-a-quasar
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Event Horizon Telescope
- The Event Horizon Telescope is an international collaboration capturing images of black holes using a virtual telescope.
- The technique of linking radio dishes across the globe is used to create an Earth-sized interferometer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c
All the above statements are correct.
Event Horizon Telescope
The Event Horizon Telescope is an international collaboration capturing images of black holes using a virtual Earth-sized telescope.
The EHT is an international collaboration that has formed to continue the steady long-term progress on improving the capability of Very Long Baseline Interferometry (VLBI) at short wavelengths in pursuit of this goal. This technique of linking radio dishes across the globe to create an Earth-sized interferometer, has been used to measure the size of the emission regions of the two supermassive black holes with the largest apparent event horizons: SgrA* at the center of the Milky Way and M87 in the center of the Virgo A galaxy. In both cases, the sizes match that of the predicted silhouette caused by the extreme lensing of light by the black hole. Addition of key millimeter and submillimeter wavelength facilities at high altitude sites has now opened the possibility of imaging such features and sensing the dynamic evolution of black hole accretion. The EHT project includes theoretical and simulation studies that are framing questions rooted at the black hole boundary that may soon be answered through observations.Incorrect
Solution: c
All the above statements are correct.
Event Horizon Telescope
The Event Horizon Telescope is an international collaboration capturing images of black holes using a virtual Earth-sized telescope.
The EHT is an international collaboration that has formed to continue the steady long-term progress on improving the capability of Very Long Baseline Interferometry (VLBI) at short wavelengths in pursuit of this goal. This technique of linking radio dishes across the globe to create an Earth-sized interferometer, has been used to measure the size of the emission regions of the two supermassive black holes with the largest apparent event horizons: SgrA* at the center of the Milky Way and M87 in the center of the Virgo A galaxy. In both cases, the sizes match that of the predicted silhouette caused by the extreme lensing of light by the black hole. Addition of key millimeter and submillimeter wavelength facilities at high altitude sites has now opened the possibility of imaging such features and sensing the dynamic evolution of black hole accretion. The EHT project includes theoretical and simulation studies that are framing questions rooted at the black hole boundary that may soon be answered through observations. -
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Coronal Mass Ejections
- They are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun’s corona.
- CMEs travel outward from the Sun at speeds ranging from slower than 25,000 kilometers per second (km/s) to as fast as near 30,000 km/s.
- They expand in size as they propagate away from the Sun.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: c
Coronal Mass Ejections
Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun’s corona. They can eject billions of tons of coronal material and carry an embedded magnetic field (frozen in flux) that is stronger than the background solar wind interplanetary magnetic field (IMF) strength. CMEs travel outward from the Sun at speeds ranging from slower than 250 kilometers per second (km/s) to as fast as near 3000 km/s. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The fastest Earth-directed CMEs can reach our planet in as little as 15-18 hours. Slower CMEs can take several days to arrive. They expand in size as they propagate away from the Sun and larger CMEs can reach a size comprising nearly a quarter of the space between Earth and the Sun by the time it reaches our planet.
The more explosive CMEs generally begin when highly twisted magnetic field structures (flux ropes) contained in the Sun’s lower corona become too stressed and realign into a less tense configuration – a process called magnetic reconnection. This can result in the sudden release of electromagnetic energy in the form of a solar flare; which typically accompanies the explosive acceleration of plasma away from the Sun – the CME. These types of CMEs usually take place from areas of the Sun with localized fields of strong and stressed magnetic flux; such as active regions associated with sunspot groups. CMEs can also occur from locations where relatively cool and denser plasma is trapped and suspended by magnetic flux extending up to the inner corona – filaments and prominences. When these flux ropes reconfigure, the denser filament or prominence can collapse back to the solar surface and be quietly reabsorbed, or a CME may result. CMEs travelling faster than the background solar wind speed can generate a shock wave. These shock waves can accelerate charged particles ahead of them – causing increased radiation storm potential or intensity.
Incorrect
Solution: c
Coronal Mass Ejections
Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun’s corona. They can eject billions of tons of coronal material and carry an embedded magnetic field (frozen in flux) that is stronger than the background solar wind interplanetary magnetic field (IMF) strength. CMEs travel outward from the Sun at speeds ranging from slower than 250 kilometers per second (km/s) to as fast as near 3000 km/s. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The fastest Earth-directed CMEs can reach our planet in as little as 15-18 hours. Slower CMEs can take several days to arrive. They expand in size as they propagate away from the Sun and larger CMEs can reach a size comprising nearly a quarter of the space between Earth and the Sun by the time it reaches our planet.
The more explosive CMEs generally begin when highly twisted magnetic field structures (flux ropes) contained in the Sun’s lower corona become too stressed and realign into a less tense configuration – a process called magnetic reconnection. This can result in the sudden release of electromagnetic energy in the form of a solar flare; which typically accompanies the explosive acceleration of plasma away from the Sun – the CME. These types of CMEs usually take place from areas of the Sun with localized fields of strong and stressed magnetic flux; such as active regions associated with sunspot groups. CMEs can also occur from locations where relatively cool and denser plasma is trapped and suspended by magnetic flux extending up to the inner corona – filaments and prominences. When these flux ropes reconfigure, the denser filament or prominence can collapse back to the solar surface and be quietly reabsorbed, or a CME may result. CMEs travelling faster than the background solar wind speed can generate a shock wave. These shock waves can accelerate charged particles ahead of them – causing increased radiation storm potential or intensity.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about Prevention of Sexual Harrassement at Workplact ACT 2013(POSH)
- The PoSH Act, as mandatory compliance, requires every company having more than ten employees to constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) in the prescribed manner
- The POSH Act is gender-neutral.
- It is not compulsory for the aggrieved victim to file a complaint for the ICC to act
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Solution : a
Only women can file a complaint
Technically, it is not compulsory for the aggrieved victim to file a complaint for the ICC to act. The Act says that she “may” do so — and if she cannot, any member of the ICC “shall” render “all reasonable assistance” to her to complain in writing. If the woman cannot complain because of “physical or mental incapacity or death or otherwise”, her legal heir may do so.
Under the Act, the complaint must be made “within three months from the date of the incident”. However, the ICC can “extend the time limit” if “it is satisfied that the circumstances were such which prevented the woman from filing a complaint within the said period”.
The ICC “may”, before inquiry, and “at the request of the aggrieved woman, take steps to settle the matter between her and the respondent through conciliation” — provided that “no monetary settlement shall be made as a basis of conciliation”.
The ICC may either forward the victim’s complaint to the police, or it can start an inquiry that has to be completed within 90 days. The ICC has powers similar to those of a civil court in respect of summoning and examining any person on oath, and requiring the discovery and production of documents.
When the inquiry is completed, the ICC must provide a report of its findings to the employer within 10 days. The report is also made available to both parties.
The identity of the woman, respondent, witness, any information on the inquiry, recommendation and action taken, the Act states, should not be made public.
Incorrect
Solution : a
Only women can file a complaint
Technically, it is not compulsory for the aggrieved victim to file a complaint for the ICC to act. The Act says that she “may” do so — and if she cannot, any member of the ICC “shall” render “all reasonable assistance” to her to complain in writing. If the woman cannot complain because of “physical or mental incapacity or death or otherwise”, her legal heir may do so.
Under the Act, the complaint must be made “within three months from the date of the incident”. However, the ICC can “extend the time limit” if “it is satisfied that the circumstances were such which prevented the woman from filing a complaint within the said period”.
The ICC “may”, before inquiry, and “at the request of the aggrieved woman, take steps to settle the matter between her and the respondent through conciliation” — provided that “no monetary settlement shall be made as a basis of conciliation”.
The ICC may either forward the victim’s complaint to the police, or it can start an inquiry that has to be completed within 90 days. The ICC has powers similar to those of a civil court in respect of summoning and examining any person on oath, and requiring the discovery and production of documents.
When the inquiry is completed, the ICC must provide a report of its findings to the employer within 10 days. The report is also made available to both parties.
The identity of the woman, respondent, witness, any information on the inquiry, recommendation and action taken, the Act states, should not be made public.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about Prompt Corrective Action
- The PCA framework enables supervisory intervention of RBI over Banks,including Payment Bank and Small Finance Bank at an appropriate time and ensures effective market discipline
- Capital, Asset Quality and Capital-To-Risk Weighted Assets Ratio(CRAR), NPA ratio, Tier I Leverage Ratio, will be the key areas for monitoring in the revised framework
Which of the above are correct
Correct
Solution : b
Recently SFB and Payment Banks are kept out
The framework will be applicable to all deposit-taking non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), all non-deposit taking NBFCs in the middle, upper and top layers including investment and credit companies, core investment companies, infrastructure debt funds, infrastructure finance companies and microfinance institutions.
However, it has excluded NBFCs not accepting/not intending to accept public funds, primary dealers and housing finance companies along with government-owned ones.
Incorrect
Solution : b
Recently SFB and Payment Banks are kept out
The framework will be applicable to all deposit-taking non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), all non-deposit taking NBFCs in the middle, upper and top layers including investment and credit companies, core investment companies, infrastructure debt funds, infrastructure finance companies and microfinance institutions.
However, it has excluded NBFCs not accepting/not intending to accept public funds, primary dealers and housing finance companies along with government-owned ones.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about Green Energy Corridor
- It aims at synchronizing the electricity produced from renewable resources, such as wind and solar, with the conventional power stations in the grid.
- The whole project in itself is and will generate many employment opportunities for both skilled and unskilled workers.
- It’ll help India meet its target of reducing carbon emissions.
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Solution : d
The Green Energy Corridor(GEC) Project aims at synchronizing electricity produced from renewable sources such as solar and wind with conventional power stations in the grid.
Phase I of the Project:
It is being implemented by eight renewable-rich states of Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
The funding mechanism consists of a 40% Government of India Grant, 20% state equity and a 40% loan from KfW Bank, Germany.
Phase II of the Project:
It is being implemented in seven States namely, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh.
The Centre will provide assistance at 33% of the cost of the project
Incorrect
Solution : d
The Green Energy Corridor(GEC) Project aims at synchronizing electricity produced from renewable sources such as solar and wind with conventional power stations in the grid.
Phase I of the Project:
It is being implemented by eight renewable-rich states of Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
The funding mechanism consists of a 40% Government of India Grant, 20% state equity and a 40% loan from KfW Bank, Germany.
Phase II of the Project:
It is being implemented in seven States namely, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh.
The Centre will provide assistance at 33% of the cost of the project
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following reports are not released by world Bank
Correct
Solution: d
IMF releases World Economic Outlook
Incorrect
Solution: d
IMF releases World Economic Outlook
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about definition of Start Up in India
- A company which was established in India not less than 10 years ago
- Has an annual turnover less than ₹100 crore,
- Can be registered under Company Act Or Partnership Firm Or Limited Liability Act.
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Solution : d
Startup India is a flagship initiative of the Government of India, intended to build a strong eco-system for nurturing innovation and Startups in the country that will drive sustainable economic growth and generate large scale employment opportunities. The Government through this initiative aims to empower Startups to grow through innovation and design.
Other efforts
- Tax exemption on investments above the fair market value.
- Setting up hundred crore rupees fund to fund for start-ups operated by the small industries and development bank of India
- Startup Yatra : Startup Yatra, an initiative by Startup India in 2017 to search for entrepreneurial talent in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities, has been conducted in 207 districts across 23 states, impacting 78,346 aspiring entrepreneurs
Incorrect
Solution : d
Startup India is a flagship initiative of the Government of India, intended to build a strong eco-system for nurturing innovation and Startups in the country that will drive sustainable economic growth and generate large scale employment opportunities. The Government through this initiative aims to empower Startups to grow through innovation and design.
Other efforts
- Tax exemption on investments above the fair market value.
- Setting up hundred crore rupees fund to fund for start-ups operated by the small industries and development bank of India
- Startup Yatra : Startup Yatra, an initiative by Startup India in 2017 to search for entrepreneurial talent in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities, has been conducted in 207 districts across 23 states, impacting 78,346 aspiring entrepreneurs
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsIn the context of Indian Exports, consider the following statements:
- India’s share in world exports has increased from 0.6% in 1991 to 1.7% in 2018.
- India ranked 18th on the list of the top exporting countries worldwide in 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution : c
India’s overall exports (merchandise and services combined) in 2019-20 were US$ 526.6 billion as against US$ 538.1 billion in 2018-19 mainly due to the ongoing global slowdown, which got aggravated due to the current Covid-19 crisis.
- India’s share in world exports has increased from 0.6% in 1991 to 1.7% in 2018 but remains paltry compared with China’s ~13% and US’ ~9%.
India ranked 18th on the list of the top exporting countries worldwide in 2019. • As a percentage of GDP, India’s exports are about 18 percent of GDP.
- India’s services trade has been a major driver of exports as the sector has exhibited high growth and trade surplus.
Incorrect
Solution : c
India’s overall exports (merchandise and services combined) in 2019-20 were US$ 526.6 billion as against US$ 538.1 billion in 2018-19 mainly due to the ongoing global slowdown, which got aggravated due to the current Covid-19 crisis.
- India’s share in world exports has increased from 0.6% in 1991 to 1.7% in 2018 but remains paltry compared with China’s ~13% and US’ ~9%.
India ranked 18th on the list of the top exporting countries worldwide in 2019. • As a percentage of GDP, India’s exports are about 18 percent of GDP.
- India’s services trade has been a major driver of exports as the sector has exhibited high growth and trade surplus.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsIn the context of Renewable energy, consider the following statements:
- Most of Hydrogen is presently being produced from electrolysis of water.
- Mission Innovation is a global initiative to accelerate global clean energy innovation, which includes innovation challenges on renewable and clean hydrogen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution : b
- Most of Hydrogen is presently being produced from fossil fuels — 76% from natural gas and around 23% from coal, with the remaining from electrolysis of water.
- Mission Innovation is a global initiative to accelerate public and private clean energy innovation to address climate change, make clean energy affordable to consumers, and create green jobs and commercial opportunities.
- Mission Innovation: It is a global initiative to accelerate global clean energy innovation, which includes innovation challenges on renewable and clean hydrogen and India is participating in this challenge.
Incorrect
Solution : b
- Most of Hydrogen is presently being produced from fossil fuels — 76% from natural gas and around 23% from coal, with the remaining from electrolysis of water.
- Mission Innovation is a global initiative to accelerate public and private clean energy innovation to address climate change, make clean energy affordable to consumers, and create green jobs and commercial opportunities.
- Mission Innovation: It is a global initiative to accelerate global clean energy innovation, which includes innovation challenges on renewable and clean hydrogen and India is participating in this challenge.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Neutrinos, consider the following statements:
- These massless subatomic particles are the most abundant particles.
- They can be detected in water or ice as they leave a flash of light when they interact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution : b
Neutrinos are the smallest particles currently known and about a thousand trillion of them pass through a human body every second. Nearly massless subatomic particles, they are the second most abundant
particles after photons (particles of light)
They can be detected in water or ice as they leave a flash of light or a line of bubbles when they interact. To capture these signs, large detectors and GVD have been designed to detect high-energy neutrinos that may have come from the Earth’s core, or could have been produced during nuclear reactions in the sun.
Incorrect
Solution : b
Neutrinos are the smallest particles currently known and about a thousand trillion of them pass through a human body every second. Nearly massless subatomic particles, they are the second most abundant
particles after photons (particles of light)
They can be detected in water or ice as they leave a flash of light or a line of bubbles when they interact. To capture these signs, large detectors and GVD have been designed to detect high-energy neutrinos that may have come from the Earth’s core, or could have been produced during nuclear reactions in the sun.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following conventions are related to Hazardous Waste
Correct
Solution : c
Solution: Basel Convention on Hazardous Waste to protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects resulting from the generation, management, and disposal of hazardous wastes. o As per WHO, of the total amount of waste generated by health-care activities, about 85% is general, non hazardous waste comparable to domestic waste and remaining 15% is considered hazardous material that may be infectious, chemical or radioactive.
- Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) to protect human health and the environment from POPs (dioxins and furans). Toxic chemicals are formed by medical waste incinerators and other combustion processes.
Incorrect
Solution : c
Solution: Basel Convention on Hazardous Waste to protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects resulting from the generation, management, and disposal of hazardous wastes. o As per WHO, of the total amount of waste generated by health-care activities, about 85% is general, non hazardous waste comparable to domestic waste and remaining 15% is considered hazardous material that may be infectious, chemical or radioactive.
- Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) to protect human health and the environment from POPs (dioxins and furans). Toxic chemicals are formed by medical waste incinerators and other combustion processes.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointseCNY, is a digital currency launched by which of the following countries;
Correct
Solution : d
China’s digital yuan, or eCNY, is a trailblazer in the realm of central bank digital currency, getting off the ground at a much quicker speed than counterparts pursued in the West and Japan. The People’s Bank of China (PBoC), the de facto Chinese equivalent to the Federal Reserve, backs the currency, which can then replace cash in circulation.
- Nigeria became the first country in Africa to launch a CBDC last October. The eNaira is stored in a digital wallet and can be used for contactless in-store payments, as well as for transferring money.
- The Sand Dollar was issued by the Central Bank of the Bahamas in October 2020. It was the first nationwide CBDC in the world.
Incorrect
Solution : d
China’s digital yuan, or eCNY, is a trailblazer in the realm of central bank digital currency, getting off the ground at a much quicker speed than counterparts pursued in the West and Japan. The People’s Bank of China (PBoC), the de facto Chinese equivalent to the Federal Reserve, backs the currency, which can then replace cash in circulation.
- Nigeria became the first country in Africa to launch a CBDC last October. The eNaira is stored in a digital wallet and can be used for contactless in-store payments, as well as for transferring money.
- The Sand Dollar was issued by the Central Bank of the Bahamas in October 2020. It was the first nationwide CBDC in the world.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 points3yr ago, the average age of a family of 5 members was 17 yr. Even after the birth of a child, the average is same today. Find out the age of child.
Correct
Solution : d
Before 3 years, Total age of 5 members of a family = 17 × 5
= 85 years.
Present age of all family members = 85 + 3 × 5
= 85 + 15
= 100 yr.
Average is same after child birth. So let the age of the child = x year
New total family member will be = 6
Average = sumtotal
17 = x+1006
17 × 6 = x + 100
X = 102 – 100
X = 2 year.
Incorrect
Solution : d
Before 3 years, Total age of 5 members of a family = 17 × 5
= 85 years.
Present age of all family members = 85 + 3 × 5
= 85 + 15
= 100 yr.
Average is same after child birth. So let the age of the child = x year
New total family member will be = 6
Average = sumtotal
17 = x+1006
17 × 6 = x + 100
X = 102 – 100
X = 2 year.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsWheat is now being sold at Rs. 27 per kg. During last month, its cost was Rs.24 per kg. Find by how much per cent a family reduces its consumption, so as to keep the expenditure fixed.
Correct
Solution : d
Old price of rice = Rs 24/kg
New price of rice = Rs 27 per/kg
∴ Increases in price of rice =New price – Old price =27 -24 = Rs 3/kg
∴Increased percentage in price = 324 x 100 = 1212 %
Now, reduction in consumption, so as to keep the expenditure fixed.
According to the formula,
( a100+a × 100) %
( 125100+125 × 100) % = 11.1%
Incorrect
Solution : d
Old price of rice = Rs 24/kg
New price of rice = Rs 27 per/kg
∴ Increases in price of rice =New price – Old price =27 -24 = Rs 3/kg
∴Increased percentage in price = 324 x 100 = 1212 %
Now, reduction in consumption, so as to keep the expenditure fixed.
According to the formula,
( a100+a × 100) %
( 125100+125 × 100) % = 11.1%
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsPassage
For fourteen and a half months I lived in my little cell or room in the Dehradun jail, and I began to feel as if I was almost a part of it. I was familiar with every bit of it, I knew every mark and dent on the whitewashed walls and on the uneven floor and the ceiling with its moth-eaten rafters. In the little yard outside I greeted little tufts of grass and odd bits of stone as old friends. I was not alone in my cell, for several colonies of wasp and hornets lived there and many lizards found a home behind the rafters, emerging in the evenings in search of prey
Which of the following explains best the sentence in the passage I was almost a part of it’?
Correct
Solution : d
Option (a) does not capture the essence of the phrase Option (b) is true, but it is not the best explanation. ‘I was almost a part of it indicates a sense of cohesiveness or feeling at home. So, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution : d
Option (a) does not capture the essence of the phrase Option (b) is true, but it is not the best explanation. ‘I was almost a part of it indicates a sense of cohesiveness or feeling at home. So, option (d) is correct.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThe average weight of 60 students in a class was calculated to be 40 kg. Later, it Was found out that the weight of one of the students was calculated as 36 kg, whereas his actual weight of the students in the class?
Correct
Solution : b
Incorrect
Solution : b
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsEight consecutive numbers are given. If the average of the two numbers that appear in the middle is 6, then the sum of the eight given number is –
Correct
Solution : b
Incorrect
Solution : b
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