INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2022
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- Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of these factors leads to the winter rainfall in Northern India in Punjab and Haryana?
CorrectSolution : a
Justification & Learning: Option A: A Western Disturbance is an extra-tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region that brings sudden winter rain to the north-western parts of the Indian subcontinent. It is a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the westerlies. The moisture in these storms usually originates over the Mediterranean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean
Western Disturbances are important for the development of the Rabi crop, which includes the locally important staple wheat.
Option B: During October and November, northeast monsoon while crossing over the Bay of Bengal, picks up moisture and causes torrential rainfall over the Tamil Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh, southeast Karnataka and southeast Kerala. But, this is NOT the case in Northern India.
Option C: Winter monsoons do not generally cause rainfall in India as they move from land to the sea. It is because firstly, they have little humidity; and secondly, due to anti cyclonic circulation on land, the possibility of rainfall from them reduces. Western cyclonic disturbances are ‘cyclonic’ and not ‘anti-cyclonic’. So, C is incorrect.
Q Source: Page 45: 11th NCERT: India Physical Geography
IncorrectSolution : a
Justification & Learning: Option A: A Western Disturbance is an extra-tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region that brings sudden winter rain to the north-western parts of the Indian subcontinent. It is a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the westerlies. The moisture in these storms usually originates over the Mediterranean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean
Western Disturbances are important for the development of the Rabi crop, which includes the locally important staple wheat.
Option B: During October and November, northeast monsoon while crossing over the Bay of Bengal, picks up moisture and causes torrential rainfall over the Tamil Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh, southeast Karnataka and southeast Kerala. But, this is NOT the case in Northern India.
Option C: Winter monsoons do not generally cause rainfall in India as they move from land to the sea. It is because firstly, they have little humidity; and secondly, due to anti cyclonic circulation on land, the possibility of rainfall from them reduces. Western cyclonic disturbances are ‘cyclonic’ and not ‘anti-cyclonic’. So, C is incorrect.
Q Source: Page 45: 11th NCERT: India Physical Geography
- Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsFloods occur frequently in the Brahmaputra River basin because of which of these factors?
- The tributaries of Brahmaputra are large and bring large water and sediment volume.
- The Brahmaputra often witnesses heavy rainfall in its catchment area.
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution : c
Justification: The Brahmaputra Valley is said to be one of the most hazard-prone regions of the country — according to the National Flood Commission of India, about 32 lakh hectares or over 40 per cent of the Assam’s land is flood-prone due to this.
An important reason apart from the ones mentioned in the question is the ageing of embankments. Though embankments don’t have specific life-spans, the ones in Assam are designed on the basis of flood data of 15 to 20 years and are supposed to remain fit for 25 to 30 years.
The filling of embankments with sediment, wear and tear and unscientific distribution across the river valley is one of the major reasons cited by officials for the flood devastation.
Q Source: Page 26: 11th NCERT: India Physical Geography
IncorrectSolution : c
Justification: The Brahmaputra Valley is said to be one of the most hazard-prone regions of the country — according to the National Flood Commission of India, about 32 lakh hectares or over 40 per cent of the Assam’s land is flood-prone due to this.
An important reason apart from the ones mentioned in the question is the ageing of embankments. Though embankments don’t have specific life-spans, the ones in Assam are designed on the basis of flood data of 15 to 20 years and are supposed to remain fit for 25 to 30 years.
The filling of embankments with sediment, wear and tear and unscientific distribution across the river valley is one of the major reasons cited by officials for the flood devastation.
Q Source: Page 26: 11th NCERT: India Physical Geography
- Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about the Delhi Ridge.
- It is a northern extension of the Aravalli Range.
- It protects Delhi from the hot winds of the deserts of Rajasthan.
- It forms a crucial “water divide” in Northern India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution : d
Justification: The Delhi Ridge is said to be the green lungs for the city and protects Delhi from the hot winds of the deserts of Rajasthan to the west. The ridge consists of quartzite rocks covering a distance of approximately 35 km.
- It is also responsible for earning Delhi the tag of the world’s second most bird-rich capital city, after Kenya’s Nairobi.
- It is believed that the dismemberment of the Himalayan river system was probably due to the Pleistocene upheaval in the western Himalayas, including the uplift of the Potwar Plateau (Delhi Ridge), which acted as the water divide between the Indus and Ganga drainage systems. It continues to be a major water divide.
IncorrectSolution : d
Justification: The Delhi Ridge is said to be the green lungs for the city and protects Delhi from the hot winds of the deserts of Rajasthan to the west. The ridge consists of quartzite rocks covering a distance of approximately 35 km.
- It is also responsible for earning Delhi the tag of the world’s second most bird-rich capital city, after Kenya’s Nairobi.
- It is believed that the dismemberment of the Himalayan river system was probably due to the Pleistocene upheaval in the western Himalayas, including the uplift of the Potwar Plateau (Delhi Ridge), which acted as the water divide between the Indus and Ganga drainage systems. It continues to be a major water divide.
- Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsThe Kashmir Himalayas are also famous for Karewa formations – they are useful for the cultivation of
CorrectSolution : a
Learning: The Karewa sequence, occupying an area of about 2,500 sq km, rests over the folded Paleozoic-Mesozoic rocks of the Kashmir Basin in the Kashmir Valley floor, above the river alluvium.
Karewa formations are lake-laid clays and shales. These are lacustine deposits and appear like flat mounds on the margin of high mountains.
Most of the cultivated fields in the Kashmir Valley are situated on the Karewa sediments.
Q Source: Page 11: 11th NCERT: India Physical Geography
IncorrectSolution : a
Learning: The Karewa sequence, occupying an area of about 2,500 sq km, rests over the folded Paleozoic-Mesozoic rocks of the Kashmir Basin in the Kashmir Valley floor, above the river alluvium.
Karewa formations are lake-laid clays and shales. These are lacustine deposits and appear like flat mounds on the margin of high mountains.
Most of the cultivated fields in the Kashmir Valley are situated on the Karewa sediments.
Q Source: Page 11: 11th NCERT: India Physical Geography
- Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsPeninsular rivers carry very little silt compared to the Himalayan rivers because
- the peninsular rivers flow at a much slower rate than the Himalayan rivers.
- the peninsular block is characterized by hard rocky terrain.
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution : b
Justification: Statement 1: Any rivers that flow at a considerable speed can erode both lateral banks as well as river bed. Peninsular rivers generally flow at much faster rate than their Himalayan counterparts. So, 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: Erosion by a river can take place only when the bank is soft or river bed is made of erodible soft rocks. Since, peninsular blocks are hard, rocky, old and consolidated, little silt is accumulated by these rivers.
Q Source: Page 27: 11th NCERT: India Physical Geography
IncorrectSolution : b
Justification: Statement 1: Any rivers that flow at a considerable speed can erode both lateral banks as well as river bed. Peninsular rivers generally flow at much faster rate than their Himalayan counterparts. So, 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: Erosion by a river can take place only when the bank is soft or river bed is made of erodible soft rocks. Since, peninsular blocks are hard, rocky, old and consolidated, little silt is accumulated by these rivers.
Q Source: Page 27: 11th NCERT: India Physical Geography
- Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Western Ghats are more continuous when compared to the Eastern Ghats as the latter is eroded by several east flowing rivers.
- The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution : c
Western Ghats are locally known by different names such as Sahyadri in Maharashtra, Nilgiri hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Anaimalai hills and
Cardamom hills in Kerala. Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the Eastern Ghats.
Eastern Ghats comprising the discontinuous and low hills are highly eroded
by the rivers such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, the Kaveri, etc. Some of the important ranges include the Javadi hills, the Palconda range, the Nallamala hills, the Mahendragiri hills, etc. The Eastern and the
Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills. Hence, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
IncorrectSolution : c
Western Ghats are locally known by different names such as Sahyadri in Maharashtra, Nilgiri hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Anaimalai hills and
Cardamom hills in Kerala. Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the Eastern Ghats.
Eastern Ghats comprising the discontinuous and low hills are highly eroded
by the rivers such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, the Kaveri, etc. Some of the important ranges include the Javadi hills, the Palconda range, the Nallamala hills, the Mahendragiri hills, etc. The Eastern and the
Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills. Hence, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
- Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following rivers is not a tributary of River Krishna?
CorrectSolution : d
The Tungabhadra River is a river in India that starts and flows through the state of Karnataka during most of its course, before flowing along the border between Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and ultimately joining the Krishna River.
The Koyna River is a tributary of the Krishna River which originates in Mahableshwar, Satara district, western Maharashtra, India.
Musi River is a tributary of the Krishna River in the Deccan Plateau flowing through Telangana state in India. Hyderabad stands on the banks of Musi river, which divides the historic old city and the new city.
Sabari River is one of the main tributaries of Godavari. It originates from the western slopes of Eastern Ghats in Odisha state from Sinkaram hill ranges at 1370 m MSL. It is also known as Kolab river in Odisha.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
IncorrectSolution : d
The Tungabhadra River is a river in India that starts and flows through the state of Karnataka during most of its course, before flowing along the border between Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and ultimately joining the Krishna River.
The Koyna River is a tributary of the Krishna River which originates in Mahableshwar, Satara district, western Maharashtra, India.
Musi River is a tributary of the Krishna River in the Deccan Plateau flowing through Telangana state in India. Hyderabad stands on the banks of Musi river, which divides the historic old city and the new city.
Sabari River is one of the main tributaries of Godavari. It originates from the western slopes of Eastern Ghats in Odisha state from Sinkaram hill ranges at 1370 m MSL. It is also known as Kolab river in Odisha.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
- Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsSatluj river enters India through which of the following passes?
CorrectSolution : a
Shipki La is a mountain pass and border post on the India-China border. The river Sutlej, which is called Langqên Zangbo in Tibet, enters India near this pass. The road is an offshoot of the ancient Silk Road.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Niti Pass is an international high mountain pass at an elevation of 5.070m (16,633ft) connecting Uttarakhand, a state in the northern part of India and southern Tibet, an autonomous region of the People’s Republic of China.
Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas in East Sikkim district. It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s Tibet Autonomous Region. The pass, at 4,310 m above mean sea level, forms a part of an offshoot of the ancient Silk Road.
Mana Pass is a mountain pass in the Uttarakhand Himalayas on the border between India and Tibet.
IncorrectSolution : a
Shipki La is a mountain pass and border post on the India-China border. The river Sutlej, which is called Langqên Zangbo in Tibet, enters India near this pass. The road is an offshoot of the ancient Silk Road.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Niti Pass is an international high mountain pass at an elevation of 5.070m (16,633ft) connecting Uttarakhand, a state in the northern part of India and southern Tibet, an autonomous region of the People’s Republic of China.
Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas in East Sikkim district. It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s Tibet Autonomous Region. The pass, at 4,310 m above mean sea level, forms a part of an offshoot of the ancient Silk Road.
Mana Pass is a mountain pass in the Uttarakhand Himalayas on the border between India and Tibet.
- Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The ranges of the Eastern Himalayas are more continuous compared to Western Himalayas.
- Duns’ or ‘Doons’ formations are characteristic feature of Arunachal Himalayas.
- The Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas lies between the river Jhelum in the west and the Kali in the east.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution : d
The ranges of the Western Himalayas are more continuous compared to Eastern Himalayas. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The southernmost part of Northwest Himalayan region or Kashmir Himalayan region consists of longitudinal valleys known as ‘duns’. Jammu dun and Pathankot dun are important examples. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas lies approximately between the Ravi in the west and the Kali (a tributary of Ghaghara) in the east. It is drained by two major river systems of India, i.e. the Indus and the Ganga. Tributaries of the Indus include the river Ravi, the Beas and the Satluj, and the tributaries of Ganga flowing through this region include the Yamuna and the Ghaghara. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
IncorrectSolution : d
The ranges of the Western Himalayas are more continuous compared to Eastern Himalayas. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The southernmost part of Northwest Himalayan region or Kashmir Himalayan region consists of longitudinal valleys known as ‘duns’. Jammu dun and Pathankot dun are important examples. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas lies approximately between the Ravi in the west and the Kali (a tributary of Ghaghara) in the east. It is drained by two major river systems of India, i.e. the Indus and the Ganga. Tributaries of the Indus include the river Ravi, the Beas and the Satluj, and the tributaries of Ganga flowing through this region include the Yamuna and the Ghaghara. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are tributaries of Brahmaputra river?
- Dibang
- Subansiri
- Raidak
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution : d
Dibang River, also known as Sikang in Adi and Talon in Idu, is a tributary river of the Brahmaputra that originates and flows through the Mishmi Hills and northeast India from the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
The Subansiri River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River in the Indian states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China. The Subansiri is the largest tributary of the Brahmaputra.
The Raidāk River, also called Wong Chhu in Bhutan, is a tributary of the River Brahmaputra, and a trans-boundary river. It flows through Bhutan, India and Bangladesh.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
IncorrectSolution : d
Dibang River, also known as Sikang in Adi and Talon in Idu, is a tributary river of the Brahmaputra that originates and flows through the Mishmi Hills and northeast India from the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
The Subansiri River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River in the Indian states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China. The Subansiri is the largest tributary of the Brahmaputra.
The Raidāk River, also called Wong Chhu in Bhutan, is a tributary of the River Brahmaputra, and a trans-boundary river. It flows through Bhutan, India and Bangladesh.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
- Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following rivers do not form ‘deltas’?
- Tapi
- Kaveri
- Narmada
- Krishna
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
CorrectSolution : d
The Narmada and the Tapi are the only long rivers, which flow west and make estuaries. They do not form deltas.
Most of the major rivers of the Peninsula such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri flow eastwards and drain into the Bay of Bengal. These rivers make deltas at their mouths.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
IncorrectSolution : d
The Narmada and the Tapi are the only long rivers, which flow west and make estuaries. They do not form deltas.
Most of the major rivers of the Peninsula such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri flow eastwards and drain into the Bay of Bengal. These rivers make deltas at their mouths.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
- Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Coastal Plains in India
- The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain.
- The western coastal plains are broader in the middle and get narrow towards north and south.
- It provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution : c
The Coastal Plains
On the basis of the location and active geomorphological processes, it can be broadly divided into two: (i) the western coastal plains; (ii) the eastern coastal plains.
The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain. It is believed that the city of Dwaraka which was once a part of the Indian mainland situated along the west coast is submerged under water. Because of this submergence it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours. Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc. are some of the important natural ports located along the west coast. Extending from the Gujarat coast in the north to the Kerala coast in the south, the western coast may be divided into following divisions – the Kachchh and Kathiawar coast in Gujarat, Konkan coast in Maharashtra, Goan coast and Malabar coast in Karnataka and Kerala respectively. The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards north and south. The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta. The Malabar coast has got certain distinguishing features in the form of ‘Kayals’ (backwaters), which are used for fishing, inland navigation and also due to its special attraction for tourists. Every year the famous Nehru Trophy Vallamkali(boat race) is held in Punnamada Kayal in Kerala.
As compared to the western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast. There are well developed deltas here, formed by the rivers flowing eastward in to the Bay of Bengal. These include the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri. Because of its emergent nature, it has less number of ports and harbours. The continental shelf extends up to 500 km into the sea, which makes it difficult for the development of good ports and harbours.
IncorrectSolution : c
The Coastal Plains
On the basis of the location and active geomorphological processes, it can be broadly divided into two: (i) the western coastal plains; (ii) the eastern coastal plains.
The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain. It is believed that the city of Dwaraka which was once a part of the Indian mainland situated along the west coast is submerged under water. Because of this submergence it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours. Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc. are some of the important natural ports located along the west coast. Extending from the Gujarat coast in the north to the Kerala coast in the south, the western coast may be divided into following divisions – the Kachchh and Kathiawar coast in Gujarat, Konkan coast in Maharashtra, Goan coast and Malabar coast in Karnataka and Kerala respectively. The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards north and south. The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta. The Malabar coast has got certain distinguishing features in the form of ‘Kayals’ (backwaters), which are used for fishing, inland navigation and also due to its special attraction for tourists. Every year the famous Nehru Trophy Vallamkali(boat race) is held in Punnamada Kayal in Kerala.
As compared to the western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast. There are well developed deltas here, formed by the rivers flowing eastward in to the Bay of Bengal. These include the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri. Because of its emergent nature, it has less number of ports and harbours. The continental shelf extends up to 500 km into the sea, which makes it difficult for the development of good ports and harbours.
- Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are right bank tributaries of River Indus?
- Kabul
- Zaskar
- Gomal
- Sangar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution : c
The Indus receives a number of Himalayan tributaries such as the Shyok, the Gilgit, the Zaskar, the Hunza, the Nubra, the Shigar, the Gasting and the Dras.
The Zaskar river, Suru river, Soan river, Jhelum river, Chenab river, Ravi river, Beas river, Satluj river, Panjnad river are its major left-bank tributaries.
It finally emerges out of the hills near Attock where it receives the Kabul river on its right bank. The other important tributaries joining the right bank of the Indus are the Khurram, the Tochi, the Gomal, the Viboa and the Sangar. They all originate in the Sulaiman ranges. The river flows southward and receives ‘Panjnad’ a little above Mithankot. The Panjnad is the name given to the five rivers of Punjab, namely the Satluj, the Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab and the Jhelum.
IncorrectSolution : c
The Indus receives a number of Himalayan tributaries such as the Shyok, the Gilgit, the Zaskar, the Hunza, the Nubra, the Shigar, the Gasting and the Dras.
The Zaskar river, Suru river, Soan river, Jhelum river, Chenab river, Ravi river, Beas river, Satluj river, Panjnad river are its major left-bank tributaries.
It finally emerges out of the hills near Attock where it receives the Kabul river on its right bank. The other important tributaries joining the right bank of the Indus are the Khurram, the Tochi, the Gomal, the Viboa and the Sangar. They all originate in the Sulaiman ranges. The river flows southward and receives ‘Panjnad’ a little above Mithankot. The Panjnad is the name given to the five rivers of Punjab, namely the Satluj, the Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab and the Jhelum.
- Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWhat is/are likely reasons for higher frequency of cyclones in Bay of Bengal when compared to Arabian Sea?
- Higher surface temperature of Arabian Sea
- Constant inflow of fresh water from the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers
- Higher Rainfall received in Bay of Bengal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution : b
Both the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea experience cyclonic events. However, when the two are compared, the Bay of Bengal sees approximately five times as many cyclones as its Western counterpart. In addition, cyclones in the Bay are stronger and deadlier. And what’s more, nearly 58% of cyclones formed in the Bay of Bengal reach the coast as compared to only 25% of those formed in the Arabian Sea.
Since sea surface temperatures and humidity both directly correlate with chances of cyclone formation, the Bay of Bengal is a more likely target because it gets higher rainfall, and because the sluggish winds around it keep temperatures relatively high: about 28 degrees around the year. Warm air currents enhance this surface temperature and aid the formation of cyclones. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect whereas statement 3 is correct.
In addition, the Bay receives higher rainfall and constant inflow of fresh water from the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers. This means that the Bay’s surface water keeps getting refreshed, making it impossible for the warm water to mix with the cooler water below, making it ideal for a depression. On the other hand, the Arabian Sea receives stronger winds that help dissipate the heat, and the lack of constant fresh water supply helps the warm water mix with the cool water, reducing the temperature. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
https://weather.com/en-IN/india/science/news/2018-06-20-bay-of-bengal-cyclone
IncorrectSolution : b
Both the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea experience cyclonic events. However, when the two are compared, the Bay of Bengal sees approximately five times as many cyclones as its Western counterpart. In addition, cyclones in the Bay are stronger and deadlier. And what’s more, nearly 58% of cyclones formed in the Bay of Bengal reach the coast as compared to only 25% of those formed in the Arabian Sea.
Since sea surface temperatures and humidity both directly correlate with chances of cyclone formation, the Bay of Bengal is a more likely target because it gets higher rainfall, and because the sluggish winds around it keep temperatures relatively high: about 28 degrees around the year. Warm air currents enhance this surface temperature and aid the formation of cyclones. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect whereas statement 3 is correct.
In addition, the Bay receives higher rainfall and constant inflow of fresh water from the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers. This means that the Bay’s surface water keeps getting refreshed, making it impossible for the warm water to mix with the cooler water below, making it ideal for a depression. On the other hand, the Arabian Sea receives stronger winds that help dissipate the heat, and the lack of constant fresh water supply helps the warm water mix with the cool water, reducing the temperature. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
https://weather.com/en-IN/india/science/news/2018-06-20-bay-of-bengal-cyclone
- Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsWhat is/are the reasons for Tamil Nadu coast to remain dry during the Southwest monsoon?
- It is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon.
- It lies in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west
monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution : c
Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during monsoon season.
There are two factors responsible for it:
(i) The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of
southwest monsoon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
(ii) It lies in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west
monsoon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
IncorrectSolution : c
Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during monsoon season.
There are two factors responsible for it:
(i) The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of
southwest monsoon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
(ii) It lies in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west
monsoon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about International Space Stations
- The International Space Station (ISS) is a space station, or a habitable artificial satellite, in Higher Earth orbit.
- The ISS is backed by the United States, Russia, Europe, Japan and Canada.
- India has its own Space Station in Lower Earth Orbit
Which of the above are correct
CorrectSolution : b
Indian Space Station:
The Indian space station will be much smaller (mass of 20 tonnes) than the International Space Station and will be used for carrying out microgravity experiments (not for space tourism).
Preliminary plan for the space station is to accommodate astronauts for up to 20 days in space, and the project will be an extension of the Gaganyaan mission.
It will orbit Earth at an altitude of around 400km.
ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) is working on a space docking experiment (Spadex), a technology that is crucial for making the space station functional.
The ISS programme is a joint project between five participating space agencies:
NASA (United States),
Roscosmos (Russia),
JAXA (Japan),
ESA (Europe), and
CSA (Canada)
The International Space Station (ISS) is a space station, or a habitable artificial satellite, in low Earth orbit.
Its first component launched into orbit in 1998, and the ISS is now the largest human-made body in low Earth orbit.
IncorrectSolution : b
Indian Space Station:
The Indian space station will be much smaller (mass of 20 tonnes) than the International Space Station and will be used for carrying out microgravity experiments (not for space tourism).
Preliminary plan for the space station is to accommodate astronauts for up to 20 days in space, and the project will be an extension of the Gaganyaan mission.
It will orbit Earth at an altitude of around 400km.
ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) is working on a space docking experiment (Spadex), a technology that is crucial for making the space station functional.
The ISS programme is a joint project between five participating space agencies:
NASA (United States),
Roscosmos (Russia),
JAXA (Japan),
ESA (Europe), and
CSA (Canada)
The International Space Station (ISS) is a space station, or a habitable artificial satellite, in low Earth orbit.
Its first component launched into orbit in 1998, and the ISS is now the largest human-made body in low Earth orbit.
- Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about BIMSTEC
- The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional multilateral organisation and its members are
- Nepal and Bhutan are not its members as they do not have connectivity with Bay of Bengal
- This sub-regional organization came into being in 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration.
Which of the above are correct
CorrectSolution : b
In an effort to integrate the region, the grouping was formed in 1997, originally with Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand, and later included Myanmar, Nepal and Bhutan. BIMSTEC, which now includes five countries from South Asia and two from ASEAN, is a bridge between South Asia and Southeast Asia. It includes all the major countries of South Asia, except Maldives, Afghanistan and Pakistan
IncorrectSolution : b
In an effort to integrate the region, the grouping was formed in 1997, originally with Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand, and later included Myanmar, Nepal and Bhutan. BIMSTEC, which now includes five countries from South Asia and two from ASEAN, is a bridge between South Asia and Southeast Asia. It includes all the major countries of South Asia, except Maldives, Afghanistan and Pakistan
- Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about ATAL TINKERING LABS (ATL)and identify wrong statement
CorrectSolution : b
What are ATLs?
With a vision to ‘Cultivate one Million children in India as Neoteric Innovators’, Atal Innovation Mission is establishing Atal Tinkering Laboratories (ATLs) in schools across India.
Objective: The objective of this scheme is to foster curiosity, creativity and imagination in young minds; and inculcate skills such as design mindset, computational thinking, adaptive learning, physical computing etc.
Financial Support: AIM will provide grant-in-aid that includes a one-time establishment cost of Rs. 10 lakh and operational expenses of Rs. 10 lakh for a maximum period of 5 years to each ATL.
Eligibility: Schools (minimum Grade VI – X) managed by Government, local body or private trusts/society can set up ATL.
Significance of ATLs:
Atal Tinkering Labs have evolved as epicenters for imparting these ‘skills of the future’ through practical applications based on self-learning.
Bridging a crucial social divide, Atal Tinkering Labs provide equal opportunity to all children across the spectrum by working at the grassroot level, introducing children to the world of innovation and tinkering.
About AIM:
The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is the Government of India’s flagship initiative to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship in the country.
AIM is mandated to create an umbrella structure to oversee innovation ecosystem of the country and revolutionizing the innovation eco-system – touching upon the entire innovation life cycle through various programs.
IncorrectSolution : b
What are ATLs?
With a vision to ‘Cultivate one Million children in India as Neoteric Innovators’, Atal Innovation Mission is establishing Atal Tinkering Laboratories (ATLs) in schools across India.
Objective: The objective of this scheme is to foster curiosity, creativity and imagination in young minds; and inculcate skills such as design mindset, computational thinking, adaptive learning, physical computing etc.
Financial Support: AIM will provide grant-in-aid that includes a one-time establishment cost of Rs. 10 lakh and operational expenses of Rs. 10 lakh for a maximum period of 5 years to each ATL.
Eligibility: Schools (minimum Grade VI – X) managed by Government, local body or private trusts/society can set up ATL.
Significance of ATLs:
Atal Tinkering Labs have evolved as epicenters for imparting these ‘skills of the future’ through practical applications based on self-learning.
Bridging a crucial social divide, Atal Tinkering Labs provide equal opportunity to all children across the spectrum by working at the grassroot level, introducing children to the world of innovation and tinkering.
About AIM:
The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is the Government of India’s flagship initiative to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship in the country.
AIM is mandated to create an umbrella structure to oversee innovation ecosystem of the country and revolutionizing the innovation eco-system – touching upon the entire innovation life cycle through various programs.
- Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about Protection of Plant Varieties & Farmers’ Rights (PPVFR) Act, 2001
- The act does not allow farmers to plant, grow, exchange & sell patent-protected crops, including seeds, & only bars them from selling it as “branded seed”
- UPOV denied the farmers the freedom to re-use farm-saved seeds & to exchange them with their neighbours.So India did not join the UPOV convention.
Which of the above are correct
CorrectSolution : b
The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001:
- Enacted by India in 2001 adopting sui generis system.
- It is in conformity with International Union for the Protection of New Varieties of Plants (UPOV), 1978.
- The legislation recognizes the contributions of both commercial plant breeders and farmers in plant breeding activity and also provides to implement TRIPs in a way that supports the specific socio-economic interests of all the stakeholders including private, public sectors and research institutions, as well as resource-constrained farmers.
Rights under the Act:
Breeders’ Rights: Breeders will have exclusive rights to produce, sell, market, distribute, import or export the protected variety. Breeder can appoint agent/ licensee and may exercise for civil remedy in case of infringement of rights.
Researchers’ Rights: Researcher can use any of the registered variety under the Act for conducting experiment or research. This includes the use of a variety as an initial source of variety for the purpose of developing another variety but repeated use needs prior permission of the registered breeder.
Farmers’ Rights:
- A farmer who has evolved or developed a new variety is entitled for registration and protection in like manner as a breeder of a variety;
- Farmers variety can also be registered as an extant variety;
- A farmer can save, use, sow, re-sow, exchange, share or sell his farm produce including seed of a variety protected under the PPV&FR Act, 2001 in the same manner as he was entitled before the coming into force of this Act provided farmer shall not be entitled to sell branded seed of a variety protected under the PPV&FR Act, 2001;
- Farmers are eligible for recognition and rewards for the conservation of Plant Genetic Resources of land races and wild relatives of economic plants;
- There is also a provision for compensation to the farmers for non-performance of variety under Section 39 (2) of the Act, 2001 and
- Farmers shall not be liable to pay any fee in any proceeding before the Authority or Registrar or the Tribunal or the High Court under the Act.
IncorrectSolution : b
The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001:
- Enacted by India in 2001 adopting sui generis system.
- It is in conformity with International Union for the Protection of New Varieties of Plants (UPOV), 1978.
- The legislation recognizes the contributions of both commercial plant breeders and farmers in plant breeding activity and also provides to implement TRIPs in a way that supports the specific socio-economic interests of all the stakeholders including private, public sectors and research institutions, as well as resource-constrained farmers.
Rights under the Act:
Breeders’ Rights: Breeders will have exclusive rights to produce, sell, market, distribute, import or export the protected variety. Breeder can appoint agent/ licensee and may exercise for civil remedy in case of infringement of rights.
Researchers’ Rights: Researcher can use any of the registered variety under the Act for conducting experiment or research. This includes the use of a variety as an initial source of variety for the purpose of developing another variety but repeated use needs prior permission of the registered breeder.
Farmers’ Rights:
- A farmer who has evolved or developed a new variety is entitled for registration and protection in like manner as a breeder of a variety;
- Farmers variety can also be registered as an extant variety;
- A farmer can save, use, sow, re-sow, exchange, share or sell his farm produce including seed of a variety protected under the PPV&FR Act, 2001 in the same manner as he was entitled before the coming into force of this Act provided farmer shall not be entitled to sell branded seed of a variety protected under the PPV&FR Act, 2001;
- Farmers are eligible for recognition and rewards for the conservation of Plant Genetic Resources of land races and wild relatives of economic plants;
- There is also a provision for compensation to the farmers for non-performance of variety under Section 39 (2) of the Act, 2001 and
- Farmers shall not be liable to pay any fee in any proceeding before the Authority or Registrar or the Tribunal or the High Court under the Act.
- Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsFInd the incorrect statement
CorrectSolution : d
HRIDAY is a central sector scheme, where 100% funding will be provided by Government of India.
INR 500 Crores have been allocated to the scheme.
Key facts
- It seeks to promote an integrated, inclusive and sustainable development of heritage sites, focusing not just on maintenance of monuments but on advancement of the entire ecosystem including its citizens, tourists and local businesses.
- Central government will meet the entire expenditure under the scheme.
- But, the states and local urban bodies are requested to supplement their resources for rapid development of heritage cities.
- The project will work through a partnership of Government, Academic Institutions and local community combining affordable technologies.
- The 12 cities selected for the scheme are Ajmer, Amritsar, Amravati, Badami, Dwarka, Gaya, Warangal, Puri, Kanchipuram, Mathura, Varanasi and Velankanni.
PRASAD Scheme:
- Introduced in 2015, the Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Augmentation Drive (PRASAD) is a government scheme that focuses on identifying and developing the pilgrim sites across the country to enrich the religious tourism experience.
- It was launched by Union Ministry of Tourism.
- It aims at integrated development of pilgrimage destinations in planned, prioritized and sustainable manner to provide complete religious tourism experience.
About Swadesh Darshan Scheme:
The Tourism Ministry launched the scheme.
Objective: to develop theme-based tourist circuits in the country. These tourist circuits will be developed on the principles of high tourist value, competitiveness and sustainability in an integrated manner.
IncorrectSolution : d
HRIDAY is a central sector scheme, where 100% funding will be provided by Government of India.
INR 500 Crores have been allocated to the scheme.
Key facts
- It seeks to promote an integrated, inclusive and sustainable development of heritage sites, focusing not just on maintenance of monuments but on advancement of the entire ecosystem including its citizens, tourists and local businesses.
- Central government will meet the entire expenditure under the scheme.
- But, the states and local urban bodies are requested to supplement their resources for rapid development of heritage cities.
- The project will work through a partnership of Government, Academic Institutions and local community combining affordable technologies.
- The 12 cities selected for the scheme are Ajmer, Amritsar, Amravati, Badami, Dwarka, Gaya, Warangal, Puri, Kanchipuram, Mathura, Varanasi and Velankanni.
PRASAD Scheme:
- Introduced in 2015, the Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Augmentation Drive (PRASAD) is a government scheme that focuses on identifying and developing the pilgrim sites across the country to enrich the religious tourism experience.
- It was launched by Union Ministry of Tourism.
- It aims at integrated development of pilgrimage destinations in planned, prioritized and sustainable manner to provide complete religious tourism experience.
About Swadesh Darshan Scheme:
The Tourism Ministry launched the scheme.
Objective: to develop theme-based tourist circuits in the country. These tourist circuits will be developed on the principles of high tourist value, competitiveness and sustainability in an integrated manner.
- Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following have influenced Gandhi’s philosophy of Sarvodaya
- Ruskin’s “Unto the last”
- Tolstoy’s “Bread Labour”
- Karl Marx’s Dialectical Materialism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution : c
The socio-political philosophy of Gandhi may be termed Sarvodaya. It may, however, be noted that Gandhi was not the author of the idea of Sarvodaya. He borrowed the idea as well as the term from Ruskin. Ruskin himself had borrowed it from the Bible. Gandhi first used the word Sarvodaya in a booklet which he published in his native Gujarati after he read John Ruskin. The essay, Unto This Last, was based on a parable from the Gospel according to Matthew 20:1-16 concerning the owner of a plantation and his hiring of labourers to work in his vineyard. In his parable Jesus make the master of the vineyard declare: “I will give unto this last even as I give unto thee.” The emphasis of Ruskin’s essay, as interpreted by Gandhi, is certainly that ideal society is none in which there is concern for the welfare of all. This is the foundation for his Sarvodaya movement. Along with Unto This Last Tolstoy’s Bread Labour also influenced Gandhi. However, the credit of Gandhi lies in the fact that he devoted his entire life to the creation of a new society, a society based on the principles of Sarvodaya.
IncorrectSolution : c
The socio-political philosophy of Gandhi may be termed Sarvodaya. It may, however, be noted that Gandhi was not the author of the idea of Sarvodaya. He borrowed the idea as well as the term from Ruskin. Ruskin himself had borrowed it from the Bible. Gandhi first used the word Sarvodaya in a booklet which he published in his native Gujarati after he read John Ruskin. The essay, Unto This Last, was based on a parable from the Gospel according to Matthew 20:1-16 concerning the owner of a plantation and his hiring of labourers to work in his vineyard. In his parable Jesus make the master of the vineyard declare: “I will give unto this last even as I give unto thee.” The emphasis of Ruskin’s essay, as interpreted by Gandhi, is certainly that ideal society is none in which there is concern for the welfare of all. This is the foundation for his Sarvodaya movement. Along with Unto This Last Tolstoy’s Bread Labour also influenced Gandhi. However, the credit of Gandhi lies in the fact that he devoted his entire life to the creation of a new society, a society based on the principles of Sarvodaya.
- Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsYadadri Temple(1,000 Year Old) , The Abode Of Lord Narasimha, Rebuilt In Magnificent Glory, was recently inaugurated by the Chief Minister of which of the following states:
CorrectSolution : d
Solution: The ancient cave shrine of Lord Lakshmi Narasimha Swamy in Yadagirigutta, about 70 km away from Hyderabad, was recently inaugurated after Telangana Rashtra Samithi (TRS) government has spent nearly Rs 800 crore on its renovation.
Redevelopment of this 1000 year old Vaishnavite temple is a dream project of Telangana Chief Minister (CM) K Chandrashekar Rao (KCR).
IncorrectSolution : d
Solution: The ancient cave shrine of Lord Lakshmi Narasimha Swamy in Yadagirigutta, about 70 km away from Hyderabad, was recently inaugurated after Telangana Rashtra Samithi (TRS) government has spent nearly Rs 800 crore on its renovation.
Redevelopment of this 1000 year old Vaishnavite temple is a dream project of Telangana Chief Minister (CM) K Chandrashekar Rao (KCR).
- Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsStatue of Equality (Samata Murthy), 216-ft statue, recently seen in news is a statue of which of following the saints:
CorrectSolution : d
The Statue of Equality, also referred to as the Ramanuja statue, is a statue of the 11th-century vaishnavite Ramanuja, located on the premises of the Chinna Jeeyar Trust at Muchintal, Hyderabad. It is the second tallest sitting statue in the world. The project of building the statue was conceptualised by the trust to commemorate 1000 years since Ramanuja’s birth Costing an estimated ₹1,000 crore (US$130 million), the project was paid for through the donations of devotees in a major part.
IncorrectSolution : d
The Statue of Equality, also referred to as the Ramanuja statue, is a statue of the 11th-century vaishnavite Ramanuja, located on the premises of the Chinna Jeeyar Trust at Muchintal, Hyderabad. It is the second tallest sitting statue in the world. The project of building the statue was conceptualised by the trust to commemorate 1000 years since Ramanuja’s birth Costing an estimated ₹1,000 crore (US$130 million), the project was paid for through the donations of devotees in a major part.
- Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsIstanbul convention sometimes seen in news is related
CorrectSolution : a
The Council of Europe Convention on preventing and combating violence against women and domestic violence, better known as the Istanbul Convention, is a human rights treaty of the Council of Europe against violence against women and domestic violence which was opened for signature on 11 May 2011, in Istanbul, Turkey. The convention aims at prevention of violence, victim protection and to end the impunity of perpetrators.
IncorrectSolution : a
The Council of Europe Convention on preventing and combating violence against women and domestic violence, better known as the Istanbul Convention, is a human rights treaty of the Council of Europe against violence against women and domestic violence which was opened for signature on 11 May 2011, in Istanbul, Turkey. The convention aims at prevention of violence, victim protection and to end the impunity of perpetrators.
- Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Standard Model in physics, consider the following statements:
- It is a theory of fundamental particles.
- It lays out the rules for behaviour of subatomic particles under the influence of electromagnetic force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution : c
Recently published study of an international experiment called Muon g–2 (g minus two), hints at the possibility of new physics governing the laws of nature.
The Standard Model is the name given in the 1970s to a theory of fundamental particles and how they interact. All particle physics is based on this model.
It is a rigorous theory that predicts the behaviour of the building blocks of the universe. It lays out the rules for how the subatomic particles behave under the influence of electromagnetic force.
IncorrectSolution : c
Recently published study of an international experiment called Muon g–2 (g minus two), hints at the possibility of new physics governing the laws of nature.
The Standard Model is the name given in the 1970s to a theory of fundamental particles and how they interact. All particle physics is based on this model.
It is a rigorous theory that predicts the behaviour of the building blocks of the universe. It lays out the rules for how the subatomic particles behave under the influence of electromagnetic force.
- Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsWhat is the greatest four-digit number which when divided by 10, 15, 21 and 28 leaves remainders 4, 9, 15 and 22, respectively?
CorrectSolution : a
Sol. LCM of 10, 15, 21 and 28 = 420 , Largest number of 4 – digits = 9999
Now, (9999/420) = 23 × (339/420) ∴ Remainder = 339
∴ Four – digit number divisible by 10, 15, 21 and 28 = 9999 – 339 = 9660
Also, k = 10 – 4 = 15 – 9 = 21 – 15, 28 – 22 = 6
∴ Required number = ( 9660 – k ) = ( 9660 – 6 ) = 9654
IncorrectSolution : a
Sol. LCM of 10, 15, 21 and 28 = 420 , Largest number of 4 – digits = 9999
Now, (9999/420) = 23 × (339/420) ∴ Remainder = 339
∴ Four – digit number divisible by 10, 15, 21 and 28 = 9999 – 339 = 9660
Also, k = 10 – 4 = 15 – 9 = 21 – 15, 28 – 22 = 6
∴ Required number = ( 9660 – k ) = ( 9660 – 6 ) = 9654
- Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThe HCF and LCM of two numbers are 21 and 4641, respectively. If one of the numbers lies between 200 and 300, then find the two numbers.
CorrectSolution : d
Let the numbers be 21 a and 21b, where a and b are coprimes.
Then, 21a x 21 b = (21 X 4641) , ab = 221
Two coprimes with product 221 are 13 and 17.
.: Required number = (21 x 13, 21 x 17) = (273,357)
IncorrectSolution : d
Let the numbers be 21 a and 21b, where a and b are coprimes.
Then, 21a x 21 b = (21 X 4641) , ab = 221
Two coprimes with product 221 are 13 and 17.
.: Required number = (21 x 13, 21 x 17) = (273,357)
- Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsWhich digits should come in place of @ and # if the number 62684@# is divisible by both 8 and 5?
CorrectSolution : a
Sol: Since the given number is divisible by 5, so 0 or 5 must come in place of #. But, a number ending with 5 is never divisible by 8. So, 0 will replace #. Now, the number formed by the last three digits is 4@0, which becomes divisible by 8, if @ is replaced by 4. Hence, digits in place of @ and # are 4 and 0 respectively.
IncorrectSolution : a
Sol: Since the given number is divisible by 5, so 0 or 5 must come in place of #. But, a number ending with 5 is never divisible by 8. So, 0 will replace #. Now, the number formed by the last three digits is 4@0, which becomes divisible by 8, if @ is replaced by 4. Hence, digits in place of @ and # are 4 and 0 respectively.
- Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsHow many natural numbers below 660 are divisible by 5 and 11 but not by 3?
CorrectSolution : a
Sol. If the number is divisible by 5 and 11 it must be divisible by 55. The numbers are less than 660. Hence, dividing 659 by 55 gives the number of multiples of 55 = 11 (ignoring fraction part).The 11 multiples of 55 which are less than 560, but of these 11 multiples some can be multiples of 3. The numbers of such, multiples is the quotient of 11 by 3. Quotient of 113=3113=3. Out of 11 multiples of 55, 3 are multiples of 3. Hence, numbers less than 660 and divisible by 5 and 11 but not by 3=11−3=8
IncorrectSolution : a
Sol. If the number is divisible by 5 and 11 it must be divisible by 55. The numbers are less than 660. Hence, dividing 659 by 55 gives the number of multiples of 55 = 11 (ignoring fraction part).The 11 multiples of 55 which are less than 560, but of these 11 multiples some can be multiples of 3. The numbers of such, multiples is the quotient of 11 by 3. Quotient of 113=3113=3. Out of 11 multiples of 55, 3 are multiples of 3. Hence, numbers less than 660 and divisible by 5 and 11 but not by 3=11−3=8
- Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsPassage
The need for Competition Law becomes more evident when Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is liberalised. The impact of FDI is not always pro- competitive. Very often FDI takes the form of a foreign corporation acquiring a domestic enterprise or establishing a joint venture with one. By making such an acquisition the foreign investor may substantially lessen competition and gain a dominant position in the relevant market, thus charging higher prices. Another scenario is where the affiliates of two separate Multinational Companies (MNCs) have been established in competition with one another in a particular developing economy, following the liberalisation of FDI. Subsequently, the parent companies overseas merge. With the affiliates no longer remaining independent, competition in the host country may be virtually eliminated and the prices of the products may be artificially inflated. Most of these adverse consequences of mergers and acquisitions by MNCs can be avoided if an effective competition law is in place. Also, an economy that has implemented an effective competition law is in a better position to attract FDI than one that has not. This is not just because most MNCs are expected to be accustomed to the operation of such a law in their home countries and known how to deal with such concerns but also that MNCs expect competition authorities to ensure a level playing field between domestic and foreign firms
With reference to the passage, consider the following statements.
- It is desirable that the impact of Foreign Direct Investment should be pro-competitive.
- The entry of foreign investors invariably leads to the inflated prices in domestic markets.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution : a
Statement 2 is not correct as the word ‘may’ is used in the passage as ‘prices of the products ‘may be artificially inflated’. Statement 1 is correct as the passage talks about the need of competition law in the face of liberalised FDI.
IncorrectSolution : a
Statement 2 is not correct as the word ‘may’ is used in the passage as ‘prices of the products ‘may be artificially inflated’. Statement 1 is correct as the passage talks about the need of competition law in the face of liberalised FDI.
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