INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2022
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2022
- Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2022 [ HERE ]
- CSAT Plan for Insta 75 Days Revision Plan – 2022 [ CLICK HERE ]
- Know about how to follow INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan – 2022 [ CLICK HERE ]
- Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ]
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsReserve Bank of India (the Bank) has the powers to impose penalties on Regulated Entities (REs) under various statutes including the
- Banking Regulation Act, 1949
- Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
- Payments and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
- National Housing Bank Act, 1987
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Reserve Bank of India (the Bank) has the powers to impose penalties on Regulated Entities (REs) under various statutes including the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Payments and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, the earlier Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, the Factoring Regulation Act, 2011, the National Housing Bank Act, 1987 and the Credit Information Companies (Regulation) Act, 2005.
Enforcement Department was set up in April 2017 with a view to separate enforcement action from supervisory process and to put in place a structured, rule-based approach to identify and process the violations by the Regulated Entities of the applicable statutes and the rules, regulations and orders made, directions issued, and conditions imposed thereunder (hereinafter collectively referred to as “laws”) by the Bank and enforce the same consistently across the Bank.
Q Source: https://rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_Overview.aspx?fn=2766
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Reserve Bank of India (the Bank) has the powers to impose penalties on Regulated Entities (REs) under various statutes including the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Payments and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, the earlier Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, the Factoring Regulation Act, 2011, the National Housing Bank Act, 1987 and the Credit Information Companies (Regulation) Act, 2005.
Enforcement Department was set up in April 2017 with a view to separate enforcement action from supervisory process and to put in place a structured, rule-based approach to identify and process the violations by the Regulated Entities of the applicable statutes and the rules, regulations and orders made, directions issued, and conditions imposed thereunder (hereinafter collectively referred to as “laws”) by the Bank and enforce the same consistently across the Bank.
Q Source: https://rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_Overview.aspx?fn=2766
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsThe Public Distribution System (PDS) is operated under the joint responsibility of the Central and State Governments. Consider the following about it.
- The Central Government takes the responsibility for procurement, storage, transportation and bulk allocation of foodgrains, at subsidised prices.
- The responsibility of distribution to consumers including target groups through a network of fair price shops (FPSs) rests with the State Governments.
- The concept of a buffer stock was first introduced during the first Five Year Plan.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: S1 and S2: PDS is operated under the joint responsibility of the Central and State Governments. The Central Government takes the responsibility for procurement, storage, transportation and bulk allocation of foodgrains, at subsidised prices. The responsibility of distribution to consumers including target groups through a network of various fair price shops (FPSs) rests with the State Governments.
S3: Maintaining a buffer stock is an important constituent of the Governments food policy, as agriculture in India still remains dependent on the vagaries of nature. The buffer stock provides the basic and most flexible instrument for moderating short-term effects of supply or production shortfalls. The concept of a buffer stock was first introduced during the 4th Five Year Plan (1969-74) and a buffer stock of 5 million tonnes of foodgrains was envisaged. The buffer stock figures are normally reviewed after every 5 years.
Q Source: Basics: Buffer stock
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: S1 and S2: PDS is operated under the joint responsibility of the Central and State Governments. The Central Government takes the responsibility for procurement, storage, transportation and bulk allocation of foodgrains, at subsidised prices. The responsibility of distribution to consumers including target groups through a network of various fair price shops (FPSs) rests with the State Governments.
S3: Maintaining a buffer stock is an important constituent of the Governments food policy, as agriculture in India still remains dependent on the vagaries of nature. The buffer stock provides the basic and most flexible instrument for moderating short-term effects of supply or production shortfalls. The concept of a buffer stock was first introduced during the 4th Five Year Plan (1969-74) and a buffer stock of 5 million tonnes of foodgrains was envisaged. The buffer stock figures are normally reviewed after every 5 years.
Q Source: Basics: Buffer stock
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following requirements/provisions apply to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)?
- Debenture Redemption Reserve (DRR)
- Liquidity Management Framework of the RBI
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: S1: DRR is a provision stating that any Indian corporation that issues debentures must create a debenture redemption service in an effort to protect investors from the possibility of a company defaulting. This provision was tacked onto the Indian Companies Act of 1956, in an amendment introduced in the year 2000.
Government removes Debenture Redemption Reserve requirement for Listed Companies, NBFCs and HFCs by amending the Companies (Share Capital & Debentures) Rules.
Significance: The measure has been taken by the Government with a view to reducing the cost of the capital raised by companies through issue of debentures and is expected to significantly deepen the Bond Market.
S2: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced ‘liquidity management framework’ for Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs). The guidelines are applicable to all non deposit-taking NBFCs with an asset size of ₹100 crore and above, systemically important Core Investment Companies and all deposit-taking NBFCs irrespective of their asset size.
This has come following liquidity crunch among some NBFCs in meeting their recent repayment obligations after the collapse of the Infrastructure Leasing and Financial Services (IL&FS) group.
This was necessary to strengthen their asset-liability management following the liquidity crisis faced by these firms in the past year.
What’s changed?
Specific cap on negative asset liability mismatches for particular liquidity buckets.
NBFCs are mandated to maintain liquidity coverage ratios (LCR). LCR refers to the proportion of highly liquid assets held by companies to ensure their ongoing ability to meet short-term obligations.
LCR will promote resilience of NBFCs to potential liquidity disruptions by ensuring that they have sufficient High Quality Liquid Assets (HQLA) to survive any acute liquidity stress scenario lasting for 30 days.
Q Source: NBFCs
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: S1: DRR is a provision stating that any Indian corporation that issues debentures must create a debenture redemption service in an effort to protect investors from the possibility of a company defaulting. This provision was tacked onto the Indian Companies Act of 1956, in an amendment introduced in the year 2000.
Government removes Debenture Redemption Reserve requirement for Listed Companies, NBFCs and HFCs by amending the Companies (Share Capital & Debentures) Rules.
Significance: The measure has been taken by the Government with a view to reducing the cost of the capital raised by companies through issue of debentures and is expected to significantly deepen the Bond Market.
S2: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced ‘liquidity management framework’ for Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs). The guidelines are applicable to all non deposit-taking NBFCs with an asset size of ₹100 crore and above, systemically important Core Investment Companies and all deposit-taking NBFCs irrespective of their asset size.
This has come following liquidity crunch among some NBFCs in meeting their recent repayment obligations after the collapse of the Infrastructure Leasing and Financial Services (IL&FS) group.
This was necessary to strengthen their asset-liability management following the liquidity crisis faced by these firms in the past year.
What’s changed?
Specific cap on negative asset liability mismatches for particular liquidity buckets.
NBFCs are mandated to maintain liquidity coverage ratios (LCR). LCR refers to the proportion of highly liquid assets held by companies to ensure their ongoing ability to meet short-term obligations.
LCR will promote resilience of NBFCs to potential liquidity disruptions by ensuring that they have sufficient High Quality Liquid Assets (HQLA) to survive any acute liquidity stress scenario lasting for 30 days.
Q Source: NBFCs
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsAlong with the Government of India, the Reserve Bank of India is responsible for the design, production and overall management of the nation’s currency, with the goal of ensuring an adequate supply of clean and genuine notes. The legal framework that supports this goal includes?
- Indian Coinage Act, 2011
- Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (as also amended from time to time)
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: The Government of India is the issuing authority of coins and supplies coins to the Reserve Bank on demand. The Reserve Bank puts the coins into circulation on behalf of the Central Government.
In consultation with the Government of India, RBI works towards maintaining confidence in the currency by constantly endeavouring to enhance integrity of banknotes through new design and security features. The legal framework is the RBI Act and the Indian coinage act.
See more here https://rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_Overview.aspx?fn=2753
Q Source: https://rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_Overview.aspx?fn=2753
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: The Government of India is the issuing authority of coins and supplies coins to the Reserve Bank on demand. The Reserve Bank puts the coins into circulation on behalf of the Central Government.
In consultation with the Government of India, RBI works towards maintaining confidence in the currency by constantly endeavouring to enhance integrity of banknotes through new design and security features. The legal framework is the RBI Act and the Indian coinage act.
See more here https://rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_Overview.aspx?fn=2753
Q Source: https://rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_Overview.aspx?fn=2753
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsGovernment fixes Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) of over twenty mandated crops. These include
- Oilseeds
- Cotton
- Raw Jute
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: MSP is an integral component of Agriculture Price Policy and it targets to ensure support price to farmers and affordable prices to the consumer. Based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), the Government of India declares MSP after considering the views of State Governments and Central Ministries/Departments concerned or agricultural crops such as Cereal, Pulses, Oilseeds and commercial crops every year at the beginning of the sowing season. MSP is announced for the Kharif crops of Paddy, Jowar, Bajara, Ragi, Maize, Arhar, Moong, Urad, Cotton, Groundnut, Sunflower Seed, Soyabean, Sesamum. The Rabi crops for which MSP is announced are Wheat, Barley, Gram, Masur, Rapeseeds& Mustard, Safflower and Toria. Apart from this, MSP is announced for Copra, De-husked Coconut, Jute and Fair Remunerative Prices (FRP) is announced for Sugarcane.
CACP submits its recommendations to the government in the form of Price Policy Reports every year, separately for five groups of commodities namely Kharif crops, Rabi crops, Sugarcane, Raw Jute and Copra. Before preparing aforesaid five pricing policy reports, the Commission draws a comprehensive questionnaire, and sends it to all the state governments and concerned National organizations and Ministries to seek their views.
Q Source: Basics: MSP
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: MSP is an integral component of Agriculture Price Policy and it targets to ensure support price to farmers and affordable prices to the consumer. Based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), the Government of India declares MSP after considering the views of State Governments and Central Ministries/Departments concerned or agricultural crops such as Cereal, Pulses, Oilseeds and commercial crops every year at the beginning of the sowing season. MSP is announced for the Kharif crops of Paddy, Jowar, Bajara, Ragi, Maize, Arhar, Moong, Urad, Cotton, Groundnut, Sunflower Seed, Soyabean, Sesamum. The Rabi crops for which MSP is announced are Wheat, Barley, Gram, Masur, Rapeseeds& Mustard, Safflower and Toria. Apart from this, MSP is announced for Copra, De-husked Coconut, Jute and Fair Remunerative Prices (FRP) is announced for Sugarcane.
CACP submits its recommendations to the government in the form of Price Policy Reports every year, separately for five groups of commodities namely Kharif crops, Rabi crops, Sugarcane, Raw Jute and Copra. Before preparing aforesaid five pricing policy reports, the Commission draws a comprehensive questionnaire, and sends it to all the state governments and concerned National organizations and Ministries to seek their views.
Q Source: Basics: MSP
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following regarding FATF
- FATF was established at G7 summit of 1989 in Paris
- Its Secretariat is located at the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris
- The FATF currently has 39 members including two regional organisations – the European Commission and Gulf Cooperation Council. India is a member of the FATF.
- Currently, Iran and Pakistan are under black list
Which of the above are correct
Correct
Solution : b
Iran and North korea are in Black list
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 on the initiative of the G7.
It is a “policy-making body” which works to generate the necessary political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in various areas.
The FATF Secretariat is housed at the OECD headquarters in Paris.
What is a blacklist and grey list?
Black List: Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put in the blacklist. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
Grey List: Countries that are considered safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put in the FATF grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.
Incorrect
Solution : b
Iran and North Korea are in Black list
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 on the initiative of the G7.
It is a “policy-making body” which works to generate the necessary political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in various areas.
The FATF Secretariat is housed at the OECD headquarters in Paris.
What is a blacklist and grey list?
Black List: Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put in the blacklist. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
Grey List: Countries that are considered safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put in the FATF grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about Experiential Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST)
- It is a nuclear fusion reactor facility, designed and developed by China
- The EAST project is part of the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) facility, which will become the world’s largest nuclear fusion reactor when it becomes operational
Which of the above are incorrect
Correct
Solution : d
What is EAST?
The mission mimics the energy generation process of the sun.
The reactor consists of an advanced nuclear fusion experimental research device located in Hefei, China.
It is one of three major domestic tokamaks that are presently being operated across the country.
The EAST project is part of the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) facility, which will become the world’s largest nuclear fusion reactor when it becomes operational in 2035.
Incorrect
Solution : d
What is EAST?
The mission mimics the energy generation process of the sun.
The reactor consists of an advanced nuclear fusion experimental research device located in Hefei, China.
It is one of three major domestic tokamaks that are presently being operated across the country.
The EAST project is part of the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) facility, which will become the world’s largest nuclear fusion reactor when it becomes operational in 2035.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following with respect to Rare Earth Minerals
- Rare earth materials are utilised in a wide range of critical products enabling many emerging green energy technologies, high tech applications and defence systems
- India holds 2nd largest reserves after CHINA
- They are called ‘rare earth’ because earlier it was difficult to extract them from their oxides forms technologically.
Which of the above are correct
Correct
Solution : d
The rare earth minerals (REM) are a set of seventeen metallic elements. These include the fifteen lanthanides on the periodic table in addition to scandium and yttrium that show similar physical and chemical properties to the lanthanides.
In 2019, US imported 80% of its rare earth minerals from China
European Union (EU) gets 98% of its supply from China
India Has the world’s fifth-largest reserves of rare earth elements, nearly twice as much as Australia, but it imports most of its rare earth needs in finished form from its geopolitical rival, China
Incorrect
Solution : d
The rare earth minerals (REM) are a set of seventeen metallic elements. These include the fifteen lanthanides on the periodic table in addition to scandium and yttrium that show similar physical and chemical properties to the lanthanides.
In 2019, US imported 80% of its rare earth minerals from China
European Union (EU) gets 98% of its supply from China
India Has the world’s fifth-largest reserves of rare earth elements, nearly twice as much as Australia, but it imports most of its rare earth needs in finished form from its geopolitical rival, China
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to 5G mobile network, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- India is the first country to adopt the 5G network
- 5G technology is meant to deliver higher multi-Gbps peak data speeds, ultra-high latency, more reliability and massive network capacity
- Uses much higher radio frequencies of 28 GHz.
Correct
Solution : c
5G is the next generation of mobile broadband that will eventually replace, or at least augment 4G LTE connection.
Features and benefits of the 5G technology:
- Operate in the millimeter wave spectrum (30-300 GHz) which have the advantage of sending large amounts of data at very high speeds.
- Operates in 3 bands, namely low, mid and high frequency spectrum.
- Reduced latency will support new applications that leverage the power of 5G, the Internet of Things (IoT), and artificial intelligence.
- Increased capacity on 5G networks can minimize the impact of load spikes, like those that take place during sporting events and news events.
Incorrect
Solution : c
5G is the next generation of mobile broadband that will eventually replace, or at least augment 4G LTE connection.
Features and benefits of the 5G technology:
- Operate in the millimeter wave spectrum (30-300 GHz) which have the advantage of sending large amounts of data at very high speeds.
- Operates in 3 bands, namely low, mid and high frequency spectrum.
- Reduced latency will support new applications that leverage the power of 5G, the Internet of Things (IoT), and artificial intelligence.
- Increased capacity on 5G networks can minimize the impact of load spikes, like those that take place during sporting events and news events.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about National Commission for Protection of Child
Rights (NCPCR)
- The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory body established in 2007 under an act of Parliament, the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005.
- The Commission is also mandated with responsibilities under two other acts, namely: Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 Right to Education Act, 2009
- It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
Which of the above are correct
Correct
Solution : d
About NCPCR:
Set up in March 2007 under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005.
It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
The Commission’s Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
The Commission shall perform all or any of the following functions, namely:
- Examine and review the safeguards provided by or under any law for the time being in force for the protection of child rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation.
- Present to be central government, annually and at such other intervals, as the commission may deem fit, reports upon working of those safeguards;
- Inquire into violation of child rights and recommend initiation of proceedings in such cases;
- Examine all factors that inhibit the enjoyment of rights of children affected by terrorism, communal violence, riots, natural disaster, domestic violence, HIV/AIDS, trafficking, maltreatment, torture and exploitation, pornography and prostitution and recommend appropriate remedial measures;
Incorrect
Solution : d
About NCPCR:
Set up in March 2007 under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005.
It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
The Commission’s Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
The Commission shall perform all or any of the following functions, namely:
- Examine and review the safeguards provided by or under any law for the time being in force for the protection of child rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation.
- Present to be central government, annually and at such other intervals, as the commission may deem fit, reports upon working of those safeguards;
- Inquire into violation of child rights and recommend initiation of proceedings in such cases;
- Examine all factors that inhibit the enjoyment of rights of children affected by terrorism, communal violence, riots, natural disaster, domestic violence, HIV/AIDS, trafficking, maltreatment, torture and exploitation, pornography and prostitution and recommend appropriate remedial measures;
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following
- According to the latest Tiger Census of 2018-19 conducted in 20 states across India, 2967 Tiger live in India. The population of Tiger is decreasing compared with the tiger census of 2006
- Largest Tiger Reserve in India– Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (Andhra Pradesh, Telangana)
- Tigers are the critically Endangered species
- Madhya pradesh with 6 tiger reserves has now maximum tiger reserves in India and there are total 40 tiger reserves in India
Correct
Solution : c
There are a total of 53 Tiger reserves in India with the latest addition of Guru Ghasidas National Park of Chhattisgarh.
Incorrect
Solution : c
There are a total of 53 Tiger reserves in India with the latest addition of Guru Ghasidas National Park of Chhattisgarh.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsWith reference to National Security Act, which of the following are correct
- NSA empowers the Centre or a State government to detain a person so that he does not act in any manner prejudicial to national security
- An individual can be detained without a charge for up to 36 months
- No Basic Rights to People Detained under the NSA, including the right to be informed of the reason for the arrest
Correct
Solution : b
Can be detained upto 12 months
As per the National Security Act, the grounds for preventive detention of a person include: o acting in any manner prejudicial to the defence of India, the relations of India with foreign powers, or the security of India.
2) regulating the continued presence of any foreigner in India or with a view to making arrangements for his expulsion from India.
3)preventing them from acting in any manner prejudicial to the security of the State or from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of public order or from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community it is necessary so to do.
Incorrect
Solution : b
Can be detained upto 12 months
As per the National Security Act, the grounds for preventive detention of a person include: o acting in any manner prejudicial to the defence of India, the relations of India with foreign powers, or the security of India.
2) regulating the continued presence of any foreigner in India or with a view to making arrangements for his expulsion from India.
3)preventing them from acting in any manner prejudicial to the security of the State or from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of public order or from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community it is necessary so to do.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about UAPA Act
- Under UAPA, both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged
- It is applicable even if the offence is committed outside India.
- Approval of Director- General for seizure of property if the investigation is conducted by an officer of the National Investigation Agency (NIA)
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Solution : d
Under UAPA, both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged.
It will be applicable to the offenders in the same manner, even if crime is committed on a foreign land, outside India.
Under the UAPA, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in maximum 180 days after the arrests and the duration can be extended further after intimating the court.
As per amendments of 2019:
The Act empowers the Director General of National Investigation Agency (NIA) to grant approval of seizure or attachment of property when the case is investigated by the said agency.
The Act empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to investigate cases of terrorism in addition to those conducted by the DSP or ACP or above rank officer in the state.
It also included the provision of designating an individual as a terrorist.
Incorrect
Solution : d
Under UAPA, both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged.
It will be applicable to the offenders in the same manner, even if crime is committed on a foreign land, outside India.
Under the UAPA, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in maximum 180 days after the arrests and the duration can be extended further after intimating the court.
As per amendments of 2019:
The Act empowers the Director General of National Investigation Agency (NIA) to grant approval of seizure or attachment of property when the case is investigated by the said agency.
The Act empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to investigate cases of terrorism in addition to those conducted by the DSP or ACP or above rank officer in the state.
It also included the provision of designating an individual as a terrorist.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about FAO(Food and Agriculture Organization)
- FAO is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger
- Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) was started by the FAO to safeguard and support the world’s agricultural heritage systems and India doesn’t have any recognised site of GIAHS
- FAO and the World Health Organization created the Codex Alimentarius Commission to develop food standards, guidelines and texts
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Solution : a
Three recognised GIAHS sites in India:
Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System of Kerala.
Koraput Traditional Agriculture of Odisha.
Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir.
Incorrect
Solution : a
Three recognised GIAHS sites in India:
Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System of Kerala.
Koraput Traditional Agriculture of Odisha.
Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about Global Minimum Tax Deal
- Government’s are now bound to set minimum of 15% corporate tax rate
- India refused to sign the deal by stating It impinges on the right of the sovereign to decide a nation’s tax policy
Which of the above are correct
Correct
Solution : d
The global minimum tax rate would apply to overseas profits of multinational firms with 750 million euros ($868 million) in sales globally. Governments could still set whatever local corporate tax rate they want, but if companies pay lower rates in a particular country, their home governments could “top up” their taxes to the 15% minimum, eliminating the advantage of shifting profits
Incorrect
Solution : d
The global minimum tax rate would apply to overseas profits of multinational firms with 750 million euros ($868 million) in sales globally. Governments could still set whatever local corporate tax rate they want, but if companies pay lower rates in a particular country, their home governments could “top up” their taxes to the 15% minimum, eliminating the advantage of shifting profits
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about National population Register and National Register of citizenship
- The NPR is a list of usual residents of the country and It is compulsory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR
- NRC is an official, verified and valid record of all Indian citizens,It includes demographic information about all those individuals who qualify as citizens of India
- The Citizenship Act empowers the government to compulsorily register every citizen and maintain a National Register of Indian Citizens
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Solution : d
About NRC:
At its core, the NRC is an official record of those who are legal Indian citizens. It includes demographic information about all those individuals who qualify as citizens of India as per the Citizenship Act, 1955.
The register was first prepared after the 1951 Census of India and since then it has not been updated until recently.
NPR
The National Population Register (NPR) is a comprehensive identity database maintained by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under Ministry of Home Affairs.
It is a Register of “usual residents of the country” and will be prepared at the local, sub-district, district, state and national level.
The NPR is being prepared under provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. It is mandatory for every “usual resident of India” to register in the NPR.
Incorrect
Solution : d
About NRC:
At its core, the NRC is an official record of those who are legal Indian citizens. It includes demographic information about all those individuals who qualify as citizens of India as per the Citizenship Act, 1955.
The register was first prepared after the 1951 Census of India and since then it has not been updated until recently.
NPR
The National Population Register (NPR) is a comprehensive identity database maintained by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under Ministry of Home Affairs.
It is a Register of “usual residents of the country” and will be prepared at the local, sub-district, district, state and national level.
The NPR is being prepared under provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. It is mandatory for every “usual resident of India” to register in the NPR.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the SAGE Project, consider the following statement:
Correct
Solution : c
The Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, launched the SAGE (Seniorcare Aging Growth Engine) initiative and SAGE portal to support India’s elderly persons.
The portal will be a “one-stop access” of elderly care products and services by credible start-ups.
The start-ups selected under SAGE will be those which will provide new innovative products and services to elderly persons in various areas like health, travel, finance, legal ,housing, food among others.
The Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment will act as a facilitator for this scheme.
A fund of uptoRs.1 crore as one-time equity will be granted to each selected start-up.
Incorrect
Solution : c
The Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, launched the SAGE (Seniorcare Aging Growth Engine) initiative and SAGE portal to support India’s elderly persons.
The portal will be a “one-stop access” of elderly care products and services by credible start-ups.
The start-ups selected under SAGE will be those which will provide new innovative products and services to elderly persons in various areas like health, travel, finance, legal ,housing, food among others.
The Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment will act as a facilitator for this scheme.
A fund of uptoRs.1 crore as one-time equity will be granted to each selected start-up.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsWith reference to UN Global Compact initiative, consider the following statements:
- It is a non-binding United Nations pact to encourage businesses and firms worldwide to adopt sustainable and socially responsible policies
- (IDDI)Industrial Deep Decarbonization Initiative is initiative adopted under this compact
Which of the above are correct
Correct
Solution : a
What is UN Global Compact initiative?
It is a non-binding United Nations pact to encourage businesses and firms worldwide to adopt sustainable and socially responsible policies, and to report on their implementation.
Launched in 2000.
It is a principle-based framework for businesses, stating ten principles in the areas of human rights, labor, the environment and anti-corruption.
IDDI is an initiative of CEM(Clean Energy Ministerial).
It is a global coalition of public and private organisations who are working to stimulate demand for low carbon industrial materials.
Incorrect
Solution : a
What is UN Global Compact initiative?
It is a non-binding United Nations pact to encourage businesses and firms worldwide to adopt sustainable and socially responsible policies, and to report on their implementation.
Launched in 2000.
It is a principle-based framework for businesses, stating ten principles in the areas of human rights, labor, the environment and anti-corruption.
IDDI is an initiative of CEM(Clean Energy Ministerial).
It is a global coalition of public and private organisations who are working to stimulate demand for low carbon industrial materials.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about Juvenile Justice Act
- The Act streamlined adoption procedures for orphans, abandoned and surrendered children and the existing Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) has been given the status of a statutory body to enable it to perform its function more effectively
- As per the new amendments to JJ Act 2015, no new children’s home can be opened
without the sanction of the district magistrates
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Solution : c
What is the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015?
- The Act was introduced and passed in Parliament in 2015 to replace the Juvenile Delinquency Law and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act) 2000.
- It allowed the trial of juveniles in conflict with law in the age group of 16-18 years as adults, in cases where the crimes were to be determined.
- The nature of the crime, and whether the juvenile should be tried as a minor or a child, was to be determined by a Juvenile Justice Board.
- It received impetus after the 2012 Delhi gangrape in which one of the accused was just short of 18 years, and was therefore tried as a juvenile.
- The Act streamlined adoption procedures for orphans, abandoned and surrendered children and the existing Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) has been given the status of a statutory body to enable it to perform its function more effectively.
As per the amendments:
- The District Magistrates have been further empowered under the Act to ensure its smooth implementation, as well as garner synergized efforts in favour of children in distress conditions.
- It means that DMs and ADMs will monitor the functioning of various agencies under the JJ Act in every district- including the Child Welfare Committees, the Juvenile Justice Boards, the District Child Protection Units and the Special Juvenile Protection Units.
- The DM will also carry out background checks of CWC members, who are usually social welfare activists, including educational qualifications, as there is no such provision currently.
- The DMs are also to check possible criminal backgrounds to ensure that no cases of child abuse or child sexual abuse are found against any member before they are appointed.
- The CWCs are also to report regularly to the DMs on their activities in the districts.
Incorrect
Solution : c
What is the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015?
- The Act was introduced and passed in Parliament in 2015 to replace the Juvenile Delinquency Law and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act) 2000.
- It allowed the trial of juveniles in conflict with law in the age group of 16-18 years as adults, in cases where the crimes were to be determined.
- The nature of the crime, and whether the juvenile should be tried as a minor or a child, was to be determined by a Juvenile Justice Board.
- It received impetus after the 2012 Delhi gangrape in which one of the accused was just short of 18 years, and was therefore tried as a juvenile.
- The Act streamlined adoption procedures for orphans, abandoned and surrendered children and the existing Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) has been given the status of a statutory body to enable it to perform its function more effectively.
As per the amendments:
- The District Magistrates have been further empowered under the Act to ensure its smooth implementation, as well as garner synergized efforts in favour of children in distress conditions.
- It means that DMs and ADMs will monitor the functioning of various agencies under the JJ Act in every district- including the Child Welfare Committees, the Juvenile Justice Boards, the District Child Protection Units and the Special Juvenile Protection Units.
- The DM will also carry out background checks of CWC members, who are usually social welfare activists, including educational qualifications, as there is no such provision currently.
- The DMs are also to check possible criminal backgrounds to ensure that no cases of child abuse or child sexual abuse are found against any member before they are appointed.
- The CWCs are also to report regularly to the DMs on their activities in the districts.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about NARCL
- PSBs and Public Financial Institutes (FIs) will hold a maximum of 49% stake,The remaining 51% stake will be with private-sector lenders
- It will pay 15% of the agreed price in cash and the remaining 85% will be in the form of “Security Receipts” without Government guarantee
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
Solution : d
What is NARCL?
- Setting up of NARCL, the proposed bad bank for taking over stressed assets of lenders, was announced in the Budget for 2021-22.
- The plan is to create a bad bank to house bad loans of ₹500 crore and above, in a structure that will contain an asset reconstruction company (ARC) and an asset management company (AMC) to manage and recover dud assets.
- The government-backed ARC will have deep pockets to buy out big accounts and thus free up banks from carrying these accounts on their books.
The NARCL will first purchase bad loans from banks.
It will pay 15% of the agreed price in cash and the remaining 85% will be in the form of “Security Receipts”.
When the assets are sold, with the help of IDRCL, the commercial banks will be paid back the rest.
If the bad bank is unable to sell the bad loan, or has to sell it at a loss, then the government guarantee will be invoked
Incorrect
Solution : d
What is NARCL?
- Setting up of NARCL, the proposed bad bank for taking over stressed assets of lenders, was announced in the Budget for 2021-22.
- The plan is to create a bad bank to house bad loans of ₹500 crore and above, in a structure that will contain an asset reconstruction company (ARC) and an asset management company (AMC) to manage and recover dud assets.
- The government-backed ARC will have deep pockets to buy out big accounts and thus free up banks from carrying these accounts on their books.
The NARCL will first purchase bad loans from banks.
It will pay 15% of the agreed price in cash and the remaining 85% will be in the form of “Security Receipts”.
When the assets are sold, with the help of IDRCL, the commercial banks will be paid back the rest.
If the bad bank is unable to sell the bad loan, or has to sell it at a loss, then the government guarantee will be invoked
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsIn relation to ‘ Employees State Insurance’ scheme, consider the following statements:
- The ESI Scheme generally applies to factories and other establishment’s wherein 10 or more persons are employed.
- The rate of contribution is more for employers than employees.
- It is India’s largest social security program covering roughly 50% of India’s population.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution : d
The Employees’ State Insurance Scheme is an integrated measure of Social Insurance embodied in the Employees’ State Insurance Act and it is designed to accomplish the task of protecting ’employees’ as defined in the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 against the impact of incidences of sickness, maternity, disablement and death due to employment injury and to provide medical care to insured persons and their families.
ESIS is India’s largest social security program covering roughly 10% of India’s population.
Incorrect
Solution : d
The Employees’ State Insurance Scheme is an integrated measure of Social Insurance embodied in the Employees’ State Insurance Act and it is designed to accomplish the task of protecting ’employees’ as defined in the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 against the impact of incidences of sickness, maternity, disablement and death due to employment injury and to provide medical care to insured persons and their families.
ESIS is India’s largest social security program covering roughly 10% of India’s population.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements in relation to “Operation Greens” :
- It seeks to stabilize the supply of Tomatoes, Onions, and Potatoes in India.
- It was launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
- It was first launched in the year 2015.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution : d
It is a price fixation scheme that aims to ensure farmers are given the right price for their produce. It aims to promote Farmer Producers Organizations (FPO), Agri-logistics, processing facilities and professional management of agri-produce. It focuses on organized marketing of Tomatoes, Onions and Potatoes (TOP vegetables) by connecting farmers with consumers. Operation Green was originally launched in 2018 by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI)
Incorrect
Solution : d
It is a price fixation scheme that aims to ensure farmers are given the right price for their produce. It aims to promote Farmer Producers Organizations (FPO), Agri-logistics, processing facilities and professional management of agri-produce. It focuses on organized marketing of Tomatoes, Onions and Potatoes (TOP vegetables) by connecting farmers with consumers. Operation Green was originally launched in 2018 by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI)
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to the ‘Ease of Living Index (EoLI) 2020’,
- Hyderabad emerged as the top performer in the Million+ category cities.
- In the Less than Million category, Shimla was ranked the highest in ease of living.
- It takes into consideration the observations of the Citizen Perception Index (CPI).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution : b
The Ease of Living Index (EoLI) is an assessment tool that evaluates the quality of life and the impact of various initiatives for urban development. It provides a comprehensive understanding of participating cities across India based on quality of life, economic- ability of a city, and its sustainability and resilience. The assessment incorporates the residents’ view on the services provided by city administration through a Citizen Perception Survey.
Bengaluru emerged as the top performer in the Million+ category, followed by Pune, Ahmedabad, Chennai, Surat, Navi Mumbai, Coimbatore, Vadodara, Indore, and Greater Mumbai.
In the Less than Million category, Shimla was ranked the highest in ease of living, followed by Bhubaneshwar, Silvassa, Kakinada, Salem, Vellore.
Incorrect
Solution : b
The Ease of Living Index (EoLI) is an assessment tool that evaluates the quality of life and the impact of various initiatives for urban development. It provides a comprehensive understanding of participating cities across India based on quality of life, economic- ability of a city, and its sustainability and resilience. The assessment incorporates the residents’ view on the services provided by city administration through a Citizen Perception Survey.
Bengaluru emerged as the top performer in the Million+ category, followed by Pune, Ahmedabad, Chennai, Surat, Navi Mumbai, Coimbatore, Vadodara, Indore, and Greater Mumbai.
In the Less than Million category, Shimla was ranked the highest in ease of living, followed by Bhubaneshwar, Silvassa, Kakinada, Salem, Vellore.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsThe International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) lists caracals as a species of ‘least concern’ and in India, now they are critically endangered species.In this context .
- Photographic evidence of the endangered caracal has been reported from Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary.
- It is the country’s third wildcat species facing the threat of extinction.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution : a
The elusive cat has been reported from the region of Kumbhalgarh-Todgarh-Raoli in Udaipur. As we have planted only native species of trees and grasses, the place appears to be like a forest. Luckily, we spotted the caracal at our resort.
In Rajasthan, other than Ranthambore and contiguous areas, including Dholpur, the cat has been seen in the region of Udaipur as well as an isolated population in Chittorgarh-Pratapgarh area
It is the country’s second wildcat species facing the threat of extinction after cheetahs.
Incorrect
Solution : a
The elusive cat has been reported from the region of Kumbhalgarh-Todgarh-Raoli in Udaipur. As we have planted only native species of trees and grasses, the place appears to be like a forest. Luckily, we spotted the caracal at our resort.
In Rajasthan, other than Ranthambore and contiguous areas, including Dholpur, the cat has been seen in the region of Udaipur as well as an isolated population in Chittorgarh-Pratapgarh area
It is the country’s second wildcat species facing the threat of extinction after cheetahs.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements in reference to the Himalayan Serow, recently seen in the news
- These can be widely found in the state of Jammu and Kashmir and Trans Himalayan areas.
- These are protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
Solution : a
The Himalayan serow (Capricornis sumatraensis thar) has been spotted for the first time in Assam.
These are known to be found in the eastern, central, and western Himalayas, but not in the Trans Himalayan region. There are several species of serows, and all of them are found in Asia.
These are protected under the Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. They are listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List and come under the Appendix I of the CITES.
Incorrect
Solution : a
The Himalayan serow (Capricornis sumatraensis thar) has been spotted for the first time in Assam.
These are known to be found in the eastern, central, and western Himalayas, but not in the Trans Himalayan region. There are several species of serows, and all of them are found in Asia.
These are protected under the Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. They are listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List and come under the Appendix I of the CITES.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsIn a row of boys, A is thirteenth from the left and D is seventeenth from the right. If in this row A is eleventh from the right then what is the position of D from the left?
Correct
Solution : b
Clearly, A is 13th from the left and 11th from the right end of the row.
So, number of boys in the row = (12 + 1+10) = 23.
Now, D is 17th from the right.
Number of boys to the left of D = (23 -17) =6.
Hence, D is 7th from the left end of the row.
Incorrect
Solution : b
Clearly, A is 13th from the left and 11th from the right end of the row.
So, number of boys in the row = (12 + 1+10) = 23.
Now, D is 17th from the right.
Number of boys to the left of D = (23 -17) =6.
Hence, D is 7th from the left end of the row.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsRajan is sixth from the left end and Vinay is tenth from the right end in a row of boys. If there are eight boys between Rajan and Vinay, how many boys are there in the row?
Correct
Solution : b
Clearly, number of boys in the row
= (6+ 10 + 8)= 24.
Incorrect
Solution : b
Clearly, number of boys in the row
= (6+ 10 + 8)= 24.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsIn a row of boys, A is fifteenth from the left and B is fourth from the right. There are three boys between A and B. Cis just left of A. What is C’s position from the right?
Correct
Solution : a
Number of boys in the row = (15 + 4+ 3) =22.
Cis just left of A. So, C is 14th from the left end.
Number of boys to the right of C = (22- 14) = 8.
So, C is 9th from the right end of the row.
Incorrect
Solution : a
Number of boys in the row = (15 + 4+ 3) =22.
Cis just left of A. So, C is 14th from the left end.
Number of boys to the right of C = (22- 14) = 8.
So, C is 9th from the right end of the row.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsRohit is seventeenth from the left end of a row of 29 boys and Karan is seventeenth from the right end in the same row. How many boys are there between them in the row?
Correct
Solution : a
Karan is 17th from the right end.
Number of boys to the left of Karan
= (29 – 17) =12.
So, Karan is 13th from the left end. Also, Rohit is 17th from the left end.
Clearly, there are 3 boys between Rohit and Karan.
Incorrect
Solution : a
Karan is 17th from the right end.
Number of boys to the left of Karan
= (29 – 17) =12.
So, Karan is 13th from the left end. Also, Rohit is 17th from the left end.
Clearly, there are 3 boys between Rohit and Karan.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsPassage -3
Air pollution and higher particulate matter 2.5 concentrations in ambient air originating from fossil fuel combustion caused 2.5 million premature deaths in India in 2018, according to a new research. Globally, a total of 10.2 million premature deaths annually is attributable to PM 2.5 generated from combustion of fossil fuels. Regions with higher dependence on fossil fuels — China, India, Eastern United States, Europe and South East Asia — contribute majorly to this number. Even though India has introduced several initiatives to impose control on pollution sources, including the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP), there is no evidence yet of significant reduction in pollution levels across the cities. Most importantly, there has been very little progress on our use of fossil fuels, primarily coal. Researchers have used chemical transport model GEOS-Chem to quantify the number of premature deaths attributable to ambient air pollution from fossil fuel combustion. The GEOS-Chem model processes satellite data and distinguishes between fossil fuel emissions from anthropogenic multiple sectors — that include power generation, industry, ships, aircraft, ground transportation, backup generators, kerosene and gas extraction — and biological processes such as wildfires. All simulations were set up to replicate 2012 pollution levels. For now, as China continues to reverse its fossil fuel usage, we are on the way towards achieving the number one spot of maximum number of lives lost, prematurely, due to our toxic air.
Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference derived from the passage?
Correct
Solution : c
Passage is talking about India’s continuously increasing pollution levels as we are on the way to achieve number one spot of maximum number of lives lost due to our toxic air.
Statement 1 is incorrect as only in china the dependence on fossil fuel is decreasing but not in India.
Statement 2 – Not given in the passage
Statement 3 – As per the passage, Pollution is increasing in India. Hence, this is contradictory statement.
Incorrect
Solution : c
Passage is talking about India’s continuously increasing pollution levels as we are on the way to achieve number one spot of maximum number of lives lost due to our toxic air.
Statement 1 is incorrect as only in china the dependence on fossil fuel is decreasing but not in India.
Statement 2 – Not given in the passage
Statement 3 – As per the passage, Pollution is increasing in India. Hence, this is contradictory statement.
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