INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsIf the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State
- (1) If the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclamation
- (a) Assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State; (b) Declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament;
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/article-355/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State
- (1) If the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclamation
- (a) Assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State; (b) Declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament;
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/article-355/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
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- Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
- Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
- Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 2: When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister.
- Statement 1: The President can either suspend or dissolve the Legislative assembly, so 1 is not necessarily the consequence of proclamation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/article-355/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 2: When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister.
- Statement 1: The President can either suspend or dissolve the Legislative assembly, so 1 is not necessarily the consequence of proclamation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/article-355/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.
- The Governor can dismiss Chief Minister in case he loses his majority support.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S2: Theoretically, the Chief Minister holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. However, in actual practice the Chief Minister remains in office so long as he continues to be the leader of the majority in the State Legislative Assembly.
- The Governor can dismiss him in case he loses his majority support.
- The State Legislative Assembly can also remove him by passing a vote of no-confidence against him.
- S1: The Chief Minister is appointed by the governor.
- 164 of the Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at its hand to aid and advise the governor.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/appointment-and-removal-of-chief-minister-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S2: Theoretically, the Chief Minister holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. However, in actual practice the Chief Minister remains in office so long as he continues to be the leader of the majority in the State Legislative Assembly.
- The Governor can dismiss him in case he loses his majority support.
- The State Legislative Assembly can also remove him by passing a vote of no-confidence against him.
- S1: The Chief Minister is appointed by the governor.
- 164 of the Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at its hand to aid and advise the governor.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/appointment-and-removal-of-chief-minister-2/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWho is said to be the chief architect of codifications of criminal laws in India?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The criminal law and criminal procedure are in the concurrent list of the seventh schedule of the constitution.
- Lord Thomas Babington Macaulay is said to be the chief architect of codifications of criminal laws in India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/criminal-justice-reforms-3/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The criminal law and criminal procedure are in the concurrent list of the seventh schedule of the constitution.
- Lord Thomas Babington Macaulay is said to be the chief architect of codifications of criminal laws in India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/criminal-justice-reforms-3/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- All States can now constitute Foreigners Tribunals in India.
- The amended Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019 empowers the State administration to approach the Foreigners Tribunals against a suspect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: Who can set up these tribunals?
- The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has amended the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, and has empowered district magistrates in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals (quasi-judicial bodies) to decide whether a person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not.
- Earlier, the powers to constitute tribunals were vested only with the Centre.
- S2: Who can approach?
- The amended order (Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019) also empowers individuals to approach the Tribunals.
- Earlier, only the State administration could move the Tribunal against a suspect.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/what-are-foreigners-tribunals-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: Who can set up these tribunals?
- The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has amended the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, and has empowered district magistrates in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals (quasi-judicial bodies) to decide whether a person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not.
- Earlier, the powers to constitute tribunals were vested only with the Centre.
- S2: Who can approach?
- The amended order (Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019) also empowers individuals to approach the Tribunals.
- Earlier, only the State administration could move the Tribunal against a suspect.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/what-are-foreigners-tribunals-2/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Mid-Day meal scheme:
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- The scheme comes under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
- The scheme guarantees one meal to all children in government and aided schools and madarsas supported under Samagra Shiksha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The scheme guarantees one meal to all children in government and aided schools and madarsas supported under Samagra Shiksha.
- Students up to Class VIII are guaranteed one nutritional cooked meal at least 200 days in a year.
- The Scheme comes under the Ministry of HRD.
- It was launched in the year 1995 as the National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education (NP – NSPE), a centrally sponsored scheme. In 2004, the scheme was relaunched as the Mid Day Meal Scheme.
- The Scheme is also covered by the National Food Security Act, 2013.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/midday-meal-scheme-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The scheme guarantees one meal to all children in government and aided schools and madarsas supported under Samagra Shiksha.
- Students up to Class VIII are guaranteed one nutritional cooked meal at least 200 days in a year.
- The Scheme comes under the Ministry of HRD.
- It was launched in the year 1995 as the National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education (NP – NSPE), a centrally sponsored scheme. In 2004, the scheme was relaunched as the Mid Day Meal Scheme.
- The Scheme is also covered by the National Food Security Act, 2013.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/midday-meal-scheme-2/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
The Mid-Day Meal Rules, 2015, provide that:
- Every child within the age group of six to fourteen years, who enroll and attend the school, shall be provided hot cooked meal with free of cost every day
- The place of serving meals to the children shall be school only
- Hot cooked meal provided to children shall be evaluated and certified by the Block Education Officer works at the Taluka level
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: Every child within the age group of six to fourteen years studying in classes I to VIII who enroll and attend the school, shall be provided hot cooked meal having nutritional standards of 450 calories and 12 gm of protein for primary and 700 calories and 20 gm protein for upper primary free of charge every day except on school holidays.
- S2: The place of serving meals to the children shall be school only.
- S3: Testing of the meals by Accredited Labs to ensure nutritional standards: Hot cooked meal provided to children shall be evaluated and certified by the Government Food Research Laboratory or any laboratory accredited or recognized by law, so as to ensure that the meal meets with the nutritional standards and quality.
- The Food and Drugs Administration Department of the State may collect samples to ensure the nutritive value and quality of the meals. The samples shall be collected at least once in a month from randomly selected schools or centralised kitchens and sent for examination to the accredited laboratories.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/midday-meal-scheme-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: Every child within the age group of six to fourteen years studying in classes I to VIII who enroll and attend the school, shall be provided hot cooked meal having nutritional standards of 450 calories and 12 gm of protein for primary and 700 calories and 20 gm protein for upper primary free of charge every day except on school holidays.
- S2: The place of serving meals to the children shall be school only.
- S3: Testing of the meals by Accredited Labs to ensure nutritional standards: Hot cooked meal provided to children shall be evaluated and certified by the Government Food Research Laboratory or any laboratory accredited or recognized by law, so as to ensure that the meal meets with the nutritional standards and quality.
- The Food and Drugs Administration Department of the State may collect samples to ensure the nutritive value and quality of the meals. The samples shall be collected at least once in a month from randomly selected schools or centralised kitchens and sent for examination to the accredited laboratories.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/midday-meal-scheme-2/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- World Water Day is celebrated on March 22 every year to highlight the importance of fresh water.
- In 2015, the UN recognized “the right to safe and clean drinking water and sanitation as a human right that is essential for the full enjoyment of life and all human rights.”
- The theme of World Water Day this year is “Groundwater, making the invisible visible”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1&S3: World Water Day is celebrated on March 22 every year to highlight the importance of fresh water.
- Theme of World Water Day 2022: “Groundwater, making the invisible visible” is the theme for this year’s World Water Day.
- S2: Water, a human right:
- In 2010, the UN recognized “the right to safe and clean drinking water and sanitation as a human right that is essential for the full enjoyment of life and all human rights.”
- The human right to water entitles everyone, without discrimination, to sufficient, safe, acceptable, physically accessible and affordable water for personal and domestic use; which includes water for drinking, personal sanitation, washing of clothes, food preparation, and personal and household hygiene.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/world-water-day/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1&S3: World Water Day is celebrated on March 22 every year to highlight the importance of fresh water.
- Theme of World Water Day 2022: “Groundwater, making the invisible visible” is the theme for this year’s World Water Day.
- S2: Water, a human right:
- In 2010, the UN recognized “the right to safe and clean drinking water and sanitation as a human right that is essential for the full enjoyment of life and all human rights.”
- The human right to water entitles everyone, without discrimination, to sufficient, safe, acceptable, physically accessible and affordable water for personal and domestic use; which includes water for drinking, personal sanitation, washing of clothes, food preparation, and personal and household hygiene.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/world-water-day/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsMercury is a naturally occurring element, which can be found in
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- Air
- Water
- Soil
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Mercury is a naturally occurring element that is found in air, water and soil.
- Released into the atmosphere through natural processes such as weathering of rocks, volcanic eruptions, geothermal activities, forest fires, etc. Mercury is also released through human activities.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/mercury-pollution/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Mercury is a naturally occurring element that is found in air, water and soil.
- Released into the atmosphere through natural processes such as weathering of rocks, volcanic eruptions, geothermal activities, forest fires, etc. Mercury is also released through human activities.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/mercury-pollution/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsIn which of the following states is Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary located?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The sanctuary is a component of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (5,520 sq km) and is a vital component of the Elephant Reserve No. 7 of South India.
- It is the only sanctuary of Kerala where sightings of four-horned antelopes have been reported.
- Presence of Egyptian vulture, Himalayan griffon, and Cinereous vultures are also reported in the sanctuary and the two species of vultures, red-headed and white-backed vultures, once common in Kerala, are now restricted to the Wayanad plateau.
- The Nagarhole-Bandipur-Mudumalai-Wayanad forest complex is also one of the most important tiger habitats in the country.
- The forests of the wildlife division form the major catchments for the tributaries of the Kabini river system.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-march-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The sanctuary is a component of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (5,520 sq km) and is a vital component of the Elephant Reserve No. 7 of South India.
- It is the only sanctuary of Kerala where sightings of four-horned antelopes have been reported.
- Presence of Egyptian vulture, Himalayan griffon, and Cinereous vultures are also reported in the sanctuary and the two species of vultures, red-headed and white-backed vultures, once common in Kerala, are now restricted to the Wayanad plateau.
- The Nagarhole-Bandipur-Mudumalai-Wayanad forest complex is also one of the most important tiger habitats in the country.
- The forests of the wildlife division form the major catchments for the tributaries of the Kabini river system.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/24/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-24-march-2022/
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