INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following event led to the termination of Non-Cooperation Movement by Mahatma Gandhi?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: What is Chauri Chaura incident?
- The incident (4th February, 1922) occurred at Chauri Chaura in the Gorakhpur district of the United Province, (modern Uttar Pradesh) in British India.
- During this incident, a large group of protesters, participating in the Non-cooperation movement, clashed with police, who opened fire.
- The demonstrators attacked and set fire to a police station in retaliation, killing all of its occupants.
- In response to this, Mahatma Gandhi, who was strictly against violence, halted the Non-cooperation Movement on the national level on 12 February 1922, as a direct result of this incident.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/100-years-for-chauri-chaura-incident/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: What is Chauri Chaura incident?
- The incident (4th February, 1922) occurred at Chauri Chaura in the Gorakhpur district of the United Province, (modern Uttar Pradesh) in British India.
- During this incident, a large group of protesters, participating in the Non-cooperation movement, clashed with police, who opened fire.
- The demonstrators attacked and set fire to a police station in retaliation, killing all of its occupants.
- In response to this, Mahatma Gandhi, who was strictly against violence, halted the Non-cooperation Movement on the national level on 12 February 1922, as a direct result of this incident.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/100-years-for-chauri-chaura-incident/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following were the causes behind the launch of ‘Non-cooperation movement’?
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- Khilafat wrong
- “Punjab wrongs” of 1919
- Resentment with Rowlatt Act
Select the correct answer code:
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- In 1919 Gandhiji gave a call for a satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act that the British had just passed. The Act curbed fundamental rights such as the freedom of expression and strengthened police powers.
- In April 1919 there were a number of demonstrations and hartals in the country and the government used brutal measures to suppress them. The Jallianwala Bagh atrocities, inflicted by General Dyer in Amritsar on Baisakhi day were a part of this repression.
- The Khilafat issue was another such cause. In 1920 the British imposed a harsh treaty on the Turkish Sultan or Khalifa. People were furious about this as they had been about the Jallianwala massacre. Also, Indian Muslims were keen that the Khalifa be allowed to retain control over Muslim sacred places in the erstwhile Ottoman Empire.
- The leaders of the Khilafat agitation, Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali, wished to initiate a full-fledged Non-Cooperation Movement. Gandhiji supported their call and urged the Congress to campaign against “Punjab wrongs” (Jallianwala massacre), the Khilafat wrong and demand swaraj
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/100-years-for-chauri-chaura-incident/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- In 1919 Gandhiji gave a call for a satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act that the British had just passed. The Act curbed fundamental rights such as the freedom of expression and strengthened police powers.
- In April 1919 there were a number of demonstrations and hartals in the country and the government used brutal measures to suppress them. The Jallianwala Bagh atrocities, inflicted by General Dyer in Amritsar on Baisakhi day were a part of this repression.
- The Khilafat issue was another such cause. In 1920 the British imposed a harsh treaty on the Turkish Sultan or Khalifa. People were furious about this as they had been about the Jallianwala massacre. Also, Indian Muslims were keen that the Khalifa be allowed to retain control over Muslim sacred places in the erstwhile Ottoman Empire.
- The leaders of the Khilafat agitation, Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali, wished to initiate a full-fledged Non-Cooperation Movement. Gandhiji supported their call and urged the Congress to campaign against “Punjab wrongs” (Jallianwala massacre), the Khilafat wrong and demand swaraj
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/100-years-for-chauri-chaura-incident/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The power of Judicial Review comes from the Constitution of India itself.
- The power of judicial review is evoked to protect and enforce the fundamental rights guaranteed in Part III of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation: What is Judicial Review?
- Judicial review is the power of Judiciary to review any act or order of Legislative and Executive wings and to pronounce upon the constitutional validity when challenged by the affected person.
- Judicial review present in India:
- The power of Judicial Review comes from the Constitution of India itself (Articles 13, 32, 136, 142 and 147 of the Constitution).
- The power of judicial review is evoked to protect and enforce the fundamental rights guaranteed in Part III of the Constitution.
- Article 13 of the Constitution prohibits the Parliament and the state legislatures from making laws that “may take away or abridge the fundamental rights” guaranteed to the citizens of the country.
- The provisions of Article 13 ensure the protection of the fundamental rights and consider any law “inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights” as void.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/sc-to-weigh-between-national-security-judicial-scrutiny/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation: What is Judicial Review?
- Judicial review is the power of Judiciary to review any act or order of Legislative and Executive wings and to pronounce upon the constitutional validity when challenged by the affected person.
- Judicial review present in India:
- The power of Judicial Review comes from the Constitution of India itself (Articles 13, 32, 136, 142 and 147 of the Constitution).
- The power of judicial review is evoked to protect and enforce the fundamental rights guaranteed in Part III of the Constitution.
- Article 13 of the Constitution prohibits the Parliament and the state legislatures from making laws that “may take away or abridge the fundamental rights” guaranteed to the citizens of the country.
- The provisions of Article 13 ensure the protection of the fundamental rights and consider any law “inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights” as void.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/sc-to-weigh-between-national-security-judicial-scrutiny/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Under Article 82 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every Census.
- The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- What is Delimitation?
- Delimitation literally means the process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a state that has a legislative body.
- Who carries out the exercise?
- Delimitation is undertaken by a highly powerful commission. They are formally known as Delimitation Commission or Boundary Commission.
- These bodies are so powerful that its orders have the force of law and they cannot be challenged before any court.
- Composition of the Commission:
- According to the Delimitation Commission Act, 2002, the Delimitation Commission will have three members:a serving or retired judge of the Supreme Court as the chairperson, and the Chief Election Commissioner or Election Commissioner nominated by the CEC and the State Election Commissioner as ex-officio members.
- Constitutional Provisions:
- Under Article 82,the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every Census.
- Under Article 170,States also get divided into territorial constituencies as per Delimitation Act after every Census.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/delimitation-panel-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- What is Delimitation?
- Delimitation literally means the process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a state that has a legislative body.
- Who carries out the exercise?
- Delimitation is undertaken by a highly powerful commission. They are formally known as Delimitation Commission or Boundary Commission.
- These bodies are so powerful that its orders have the force of law and they cannot be challenged before any court.
- Composition of the Commission:
- According to the Delimitation Commission Act, 2002, the Delimitation Commission will have three members:a serving or retired judge of the Supreme Court as the chairperson, and the Chief Election Commissioner or Election Commissioner nominated by the CEC and the State Election Commissioner as ex-officio members.
- Constitutional Provisions:
- Under Article 82,the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every Census.
- Under Article 170,States also get divided into territorial constituencies as per Delimitation Act after every Census.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/delimitation-panel-2/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana:
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- It was launched in 2021 as a flagship maternity benefits programme of the Government of India.
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme being executed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- It is a Maternity Benefit Programme that is implemented in all the districts of the country in accordance with the provision of the National Food Security Act, 2013.
- The direct benefit cash transferis to help expectant mothers meet enhanced nutritional requirements as well as to partially compensate them for wage loss during their pregnancy.
- The scheme was announced on December 31, 2016. It is being implemented in all districts of the country with effect from 1st January, 2017.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/pradhan-mantri-matru-vandana-yojana-4/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- It is a Maternity Benefit Programme that is implemented in all the districts of the country in accordance with the provision of the National Food Security Act, 2013.
- The direct benefit cash transferis to help expectant mothers meet enhanced nutritional requirements as well as to partially compensate them for wage loss during their pregnancy.
- The scheme was announced on December 31, 2016. It is being implemented in all districts of the country with effect from 1st January, 2017.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/pradhan-mantri-matru-vandana-yojana-4/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- A green bond is a fixed-income instrument designed specifically to support specific climate-related or environmental projects.
- The Climate Action Network is the largest green bond issuer in 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation: What Is a Green Bond?
- A green bond is a type of fixed-income instrument that is specifically earmarked to raise money for climate and environmental projects.
- These bonds are typically asset-linked and backed by the issuing entity’s balance sheet, so they usually carry the same credit rating as their issuers’ other debt obligations.
- Green bonds may come with tax incentives to enhance their attractiveness to investors.
- The World Bank is a major issuer of green bonds. It has issued 164 such bonds since 2008, worth a combined $14.4 billion. In 2020, the total issuance of green bonds was worth almost $270 billion, according to the Climate Bond Initiative.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/green-bonds-4/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation: What Is a Green Bond?
- A green bond is a type of fixed-income instrument that is specifically earmarked to raise money for climate and environmental projects.
- These bonds are typically asset-linked and backed by the issuing entity’s balance sheet, so they usually carry the same credit rating as their issuers’ other debt obligations.
- Green bonds may come with tax incentives to enhance their attractiveness to investors.
- The World Bank is a major issuer of green bonds. It has issued 164 such bonds since 2008, worth a combined $14.4 billion. In 2020, the total issuance of green bonds was worth almost $270 billion, according to the Climate Bond Initiative.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/green-bonds-4/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following recently declared as India’s first OECM (other effective area-based conservation measures) site?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- On World Wetlands Day, that is, on February 2, the Aravalli Biodiversity Park (Gurugram) was announced as the first Other Effective Area – based Conservation Measures site, OECM site.
- The OECM tag is provided by the International Union for Conservation of Nature, IUCN. According to IUCN, the OECM sites are not protected but are rich in biodiversity.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-07-february-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- On World Wetlands Day, that is, on February 2, the Aravalli Biodiversity Park (Gurugram) was announced as the first Other Effective Area – based Conservation Measures site, OECM site.
- The OECM tag is provided by the International Union for Conservation of Nature, IUCN. According to IUCN, the OECM sites are not protected but are rich in biodiversity.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-07-february-2022/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to OECM (other effective area-based conservation measures) site, consider the following statements:
-
- The OECM tag is provided by the Conservation International.
- The OECM areas were defined at the Convention on Biological Diversity that was held in 2018.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The OECM tag is provided by the International Union for Conservation of Nature, IUCN. According to IUCN, the OECM sites are not protected but are rich in biodiversity.
- The OECM areas were defined at the Convention on Biological Diversity that was held in 2018.
- The OECM tag does not bring any legal, financial or management implications, but designates the area as a biodiversity hotspot on the international map.
- ‘Other effective area-based conservation measures’ (OECMS) is a conservation designation for areas that are achieving the effective in-situ conservation of biodiversity outside of protected areas.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-07-february-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The OECM tag is provided by the International Union for Conservation of Nature, IUCN. According to IUCN, the OECM sites are not protected but are rich in biodiversity.
- The OECM areas were defined at the Convention on Biological Diversity that was held in 2018.
- The OECM tag does not bring any legal, financial or management implications, but designates the area as a biodiversity hotspot on the international map.
- ‘Other effective area-based conservation measures’ (OECMS) is a conservation designation for areas that are achieving the effective in-situ conservation of biodiversity outside of protected areas.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/02/07/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-07-february-2022/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Istanbul Convention:
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- The treaty is the world’s first binding instrument to prevent and tackle violence against women.
- The convention was adopted by the Council of Europe Committee of Ministers in 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- It is also called as the Council of Europe Convention on preventing and combating violence against women and domestic violence.
- The treaty is the world’s first binding instrument to prevent and tackle violence against women.
- It is the most comprehensive legal framework that exists to tackle violence against women and girls, covering domestic violence, rape, sexual assault, female genital mutilation (FGM), so-called honour-based violence, and forced marriage.
- When a government ratifies the Convention, they are legally bound to follow it.
- The convention was adopted by the Council of Europe Committee of Ministers on 7 April 2011.
- The Convention sets minimum standards for governments to meet when tackling violence against women.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/22/istanbul-convention-on-violence-against-women-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- It is also called as the Council of Europe Convention on preventing and combating violence against women and domestic violence.
- The treaty is the world’s first binding instrument to prevent and tackle violence against women.
- It is the most comprehensive legal framework that exists to tackle violence against women and girls, covering domestic violence, rape, sexual assault, female genital mutilation (FGM), so-called honour-based violence, and forced marriage.
- When a government ratifies the Convention, they are legally bound to follow it.
- The convention was adopted by the Council of Europe Committee of Ministers on 7 April 2011.
- The Convention sets minimum standards for governments to meet when tackling violence against women.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/22/istanbul-convention-on-violence-against-women-2/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Istanbul Convention:
-
- The treaty is the world’s first binding instrument to prevent and tackle violence against women.
- The convention was adopted by the Council of Europe Committee of Ministers in 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- It is also called as the Council of Europe Convention on preventing and combating violence against women and domestic violence.
- The treaty is the world’s first binding instrument to prevent and tackle violence against women.
- It is the most comprehensive legal framework that exists to tackle violence against women and girls, covering domestic violence, rape, sexual assault, female genital mutilation (FGM), so-called honour-based violence, and forced marriage.
- When a government ratifies the Convention, they are legally bound to follow it.
- The convention was adopted by the Council of Europe Committee of Ministers on 7 April 2011.
- The Convention sets minimum standards for governments to meet when tackling violence against women.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/22/istanbul-convention-on-violence-against-women-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- It is also called as the Council of Europe Convention on preventing and combating violence against women and domestic violence.
- The treaty is the world’s first binding instrument to prevent and tackle violence against women.
- It is the most comprehensive legal framework that exists to tackle violence against women and girls, covering domestic violence, rape, sexual assault, female genital mutilation (FGM), so-called honour-based violence, and forced marriage.
- When a government ratifies the Convention, they are legally bound to follow it.
- The convention was adopted by the Council of Europe Committee of Ministers on 7 April 2011.
- The Convention sets minimum standards for governments to meet when tackling violence against women.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/22/istanbul-convention-on-violence-against-women-2/
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