INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsJoint Sitting of Parliament is summoned by
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The joint sitting is called by the President.
- The Speaker presides over a joint sitting. In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over it, and in his absence, the sitting is presided over by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/disruptions-in-parliament-3/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The joint sitting is called by the President.
- The Speaker presides over a joint sitting. In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over it, and in his absence, the sitting is presided over by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/disruptions-in-parliament-3/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Article 85 of the Constitution of India specify when or for how many days Parliament should meet.
- The maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months.
- A ‘session’ of Parliament is the period between the first sitting of a House and its prorogation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Article 85 requires that there should not be a gap of more than six months between two sessions of Parliament.
- Please note, the Constitution does not specify when or for how many days Parliament should meet.
- The maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months. That means the Parliament should meet at least twice a year.
- A ‘session’ of Parliament is the period between the first sitting of a House and its prorogation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/disruptions-in-parliament-3/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Article 85 requires that there should not be a gap of more than six months between two sessions of Parliament.
- Please note, the Constitution does not specify when or for how many days Parliament should meet.
- The maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months. That means the Parliament should meet at least twice a year.
- A ‘session’ of Parliament is the period between the first sitting of a House and its prorogation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/disruptions-in-parliament-3/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a Member.
- While the Speaker is empowered to place a member under suspension, the authority for revocation of this order is not vested in her.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S2: While the Speaker is empowered to place a member under suspension, the authority for revocation of this order is not vested in her. It is for the House, if it so desires, to resolve on a motion to revoke the suspension.
- S1: Unlike the Speaker, however, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a Member.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/sc-quashes-indefinite-suspension-of-12-bjp-mlas/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S2: While the Speaker is empowered to place a member under suspension, the authority for revocation of this order is not vested in her. It is for the House, if it so desires, to resolve on a motion to revoke the suspension.
- S1: Unlike the Speaker, however, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a Member.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/sc-quashes-indefinite-suspension-of-12-bjp-mlas/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
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- In Indra Sawhney case the Supreme Court held that reservations under Article 16(4) could only be provided at the time of entry into government service but not in matters of promotion.
- In Nagaraj case the Supreme Court said that the State is bound to make reservation for the SCs and STs in promotions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Indra Sawhney vs Union of India and M Nagraj case:
- In its landmark 1992 decision in Indra Sawhney vs Union of India, the Supreme Court had held that reservations under Article 16(4) could only be provided at the time of entry into government service but not in matters of promotion.
- It added that the principle would operate only prospectively and not affect promotions already made and that reservation already provided in promotions shall continue in operation for a period of five years from the date of the judgment. It also ruled that the creamy layer can be and must be excluded.
- On June 17, 1995, Parliament, acting in its constituent capacity, adopted the seventy-seventh amendment by which clause (4A) was inserted into Article 16 to enable reservation to be made in promotion for SCs and STs. The validity of the seventy-seventh and eighty-fifth amendments to the Constitution and of the legislation enacted in pursuance of those amendments was challenged before the Supreme Court in the Nagaraj case.
- Upholding the validity of Article 16 (4A), the court then said that it is an enabling provision. “The State is not bound to make reservation for the SCs and STs in promotions. But, if it seeks to do so, it must collect quantifiable data on three facets — the backwardness of the class; the inadequacy of the representation of that class in public employment; and the general efficiency of service as mandated by Article 335 would not be affected”.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/quota-in-promotions/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Indra Sawhney vs Union of India and M Nagraj case:
- In its landmark 1992 decision in Indra Sawhney vs Union of India, the Supreme Court had held that reservations under Article 16(4) could only be provided at the time of entry into government service but not in matters of promotion.
- It added that the principle would operate only prospectively and not affect promotions already made and that reservation already provided in promotions shall continue in operation for a period of five years from the date of the judgment. It also ruled that the creamy layer can be and must be excluded.
- On June 17, 1995, Parliament, acting in its constituent capacity, adopted the seventy-seventh amendment by which clause (4A) was inserted into Article 16 to enable reservation to be made in promotion for SCs and STs. The validity of the seventy-seventh and eighty-fifth amendments to the Constitution and of the legislation enacted in pursuance of those amendments was challenged before the Supreme Court in the Nagaraj case.
- Upholding the validity of Article 16 (4A), the court then said that it is an enabling provision. “The State is not bound to make reservation for the SCs and STs in promotions. But, if it seeks to do so, it must collect quantifiable data on three facets — the backwardness of the class; the inadequacy of the representation of that class in public employment; and the general efficiency of service as mandated by Article 335 would not be affected”.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/quota-in-promotions/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Gain of function’ is a field of research focused on growing generations of microorganisms, under conditions that cause mutations in a virus.
- Gain-of-function research involves manipulations that make certain pathogenic microbes more deadly or more transmissible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: ‘Gain of function’ is a field of research focused on growing generations of microorganisms, under conditions that cause mutations in a virus.
- These experiments are termed ‘gain of function’ because they involve manipulating pathogens in a way that they gain an advantage in or through a function, such as increased transmissibility.
- Such experiments allow scientists to better predict emerging infectious diseases, and to develop vaccines and therapeutics.
- S2: Gain-of-function research involves manipulations that make certain pathogenic microbes more deadly or more transmissible.
- There is also ‘loss-of-function’ research, which involves inactivating mutations, resulting in a significant loss of original function, or no function to the pathogen.
- Gain-of-function research reportedly carries inherent biosafety and biosecurity risks and is thus referred to as ‘dual-use research of concern’ (DURC).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/what-is-gain-of-function-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: ‘Gain of function’ is a field of research focused on growing generations of microorganisms, under conditions that cause mutations in a virus.
- These experiments are termed ‘gain of function’ because they involve manipulating pathogens in a way that they gain an advantage in or through a function, such as increased transmissibility.
- Such experiments allow scientists to better predict emerging infectious diseases, and to develop vaccines and therapeutics.
- S2: Gain-of-function research involves manipulations that make certain pathogenic microbes more deadly or more transmissible.
- There is also ‘loss-of-function’ research, which involves inactivating mutations, resulting in a significant loss of original function, or no function to the pathogen.
- Gain-of-function research reportedly carries inherent biosafety and biosecurity risks and is thus referred to as ‘dual-use research of concern’ (DURC).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/what-is-gain-of-function-2/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- BrahMos Missile has been jointly developed by India and Russia,
- The missile has a range of more than 400km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- BrahMos is a joint venture between DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya.
- The missile derives its name from the Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers.
- It is capable of being launched from land, sea, sub-sea and air against surface and sea-based targets and has for long been inducted by the Indian armed forces.
- The range of the missile was originally capped at 290 km as per obligations of the Missile Technology Control Regime. Following India’s entry into the club in June 2016, officials said the range would be extended to 450 km and 600 km at a later stage.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- BrahMos is a joint venture between DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya.
- The missile derives its name from the Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers.
- It is capable of being launched from land, sea, sub-sea and air against surface and sea-based targets and has for long been inducted by the Indian armed forces.
- The range of the missile was originally capped at 290 km as per obligations of the Missile Technology Control Regime. Following India’s entry into the club in June 2016, officials said the range would be extended to 450 km and 600 km at a later stage.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2022/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about National Cadet Corps:
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- It is a youth development movement.
- It came into existence under the National Cadet Corps Act XXXI of 1948.
- It is a Tri-Services Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- It is a youth development movement. It came into existence under the National Cadet Corps Act XXXI of 1948.
- It is a Tri-Services Organization, comprising the Army, Navy and Air Force, engaged in grooming the youth of the country into disciplined and patriotic citizens.
- The NCC provides exposure to the cadets in a wide range of activities., with a distinct emphasis on Social Services, Discipline and Adventure Training. The NCC is open to all regular students of schools and colleges on a voluntary basis. The students have no liability for active military service.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- It is a youth development movement. It came into existence under the National Cadet Corps Act XXXI of 1948.
- It is a Tri-Services Organization, comprising the Army, Navy and Air Force, engaged in grooming the youth of the country into disciplined and patriotic citizens.
- The NCC provides exposure to the cadets in a wide range of activities., with a distinct emphasis on Social Services, Discipline and Adventure Training. The NCC is open to all regular students of schools and colleges on a voluntary basis. The students have no liability for active military service.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2022/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- NeoCoV is a Mongoose coronavirus that was first identified in 2011.
- NeoCoV shares an 85% similarity to MERS-CoV in the genome sequence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- NeoCoV is a bat coronavirus that was first identified in 2011.
- It was identified in a species of bats known as Neoromicia, which is where the name NeoCoV was derived from.
- Commonly known as aloe bats, this species is distributed in the Afro-Malagasy region. NeoCoV shares an 85% similarity to MERS-CoV in the genome sequence, making it the closest known relative of MERS-CoV.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2022/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- NeoCoV is a bat coronavirus that was first identified in 2011.
- It was identified in a species of bats known as Neoromicia, which is where the name NeoCoV was derived from.
- Commonly known as aloe bats, this species is distributed in the Afro-Malagasy region. NeoCoV shares an 85% similarity to MERS-CoV in the genome sequence, making it the closest known relative of MERS-CoV.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/01/29/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2022/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding New Development Bank.
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- It is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states.
- The state governments in India can seek loan assistance from NDB.
- India is the second largest shareholder of the NDB.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa).
- “The Bank shall support public or private projects through loans, guarantees, equity participation and other financial instruments.” Moreover, the NDB “shall cooperate with international organizations and other financial entities, and provide technical assistance for projects to be supported by the Bank.”
- The authorized capital for NDB is $100 Billion while initial subscribed capital is $50 billion. Initial subscribed capital was equally distributed among the founding members {$10 billion each}. Voting power of each member is equal to the number of its subscribed shares in capital stock.
- New Development Bank (NDB) has decided to lend Rs 6,000 crores to Andhra Pradesh Government for various projects.
Refer: https://www.ndb.int/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa).
- “The Bank shall support public or private projects through loans, guarantees, equity participation and other financial instruments.” Moreover, the NDB “shall cooperate with international organizations and other financial entities, and provide technical assistance for projects to be supported by the Bank.”
- The authorized capital for NDB is $100 Billion while initial subscribed capital is $50 billion. Initial subscribed capital was equally distributed among the founding members {$10 billion each}. Voting power of each member is equal to the number of its subscribed shares in capital stock.
- New Development Bank (NDB) has decided to lend Rs 6,000 crores to Andhra Pradesh Government for various projects.
Refer: https://www.ndb.int/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsArrange the following from North to South.
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- Yellow Sea
- Sea of Japan
- East Timor Sea
- South China Sea
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Refer: World geography
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Refer: World geography
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