INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Speaker of the State legislative Assembly:
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- It is created under the Article 178 of the constitution of India.
- The election date for the post of speaker is decided by the state governor.
- The prime responsibility of the speaker is to maintain discipline and order in the house by practicing disciplinary privileges granted by the constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: Article 178: Every Legislative Assembly of a State shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the Assembly to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker thereof and, so often as the office of Speaker or Deputy Speaker becomes vacant, the Assembly shall choose another member to be Speaker or Deputy Speaker, as the case may be.
- S2: The date for the Speaker’s election is notified by the Governor.
- S3: The prime responsibility of the speaker is to maintain discipline and order in the house by practicing disciplinary privileges granted by the constitution of India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/12/29/election-of-speaker/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: Article 178: Every Legislative Assembly of a State shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the Assembly to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker thereof and, so often as the office of Speaker or Deputy Speaker becomes vacant, the Assembly shall choose another member to be Speaker or Deputy Speaker, as the case may be.
- S2: The date for the Speaker’s election is notified by the Governor.
- S3: The prime responsibility of the speaker is to maintain discipline and order in the house by practicing disciplinary privileges granted by the constitution of India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/12/29/election-of-speaker/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about pro- tem speaker:
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- Article 180 (1) of the Constitution of India gives the Governor the power to appoint a pro-tem Speaker.
- Powers of the Speaker pro-tem are not co-extensive with the powers of elected Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Article 180 (1) of the Constitution gives the Governor the power to appoint a pro-tem Speaker. The Article says that if the chair of the Speaker falls vacant and there is no Deputy Speaker to fill the position, the duties of the office shall be performed “by such member of the Assembly as the Governor may appoint for the purpose”.
- The powers of a pro-tem Speaker are wide. The Bombay High Court in its 1994 judgement in the Surendra Vassant Sirsat case holds that a pro-tem is Speaker of the House “for all purposes with all powers, privileges and immunities” until the Speaker is elected.
- The Odisha High Court also agreed in the Godavaris Misra versus Nandakisore Das, Speaker, Orissa Legislative Assemblycase when it said the “powers of the Speaker pro-tem are co-extensive with the powers of elected Speaker”.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/12/29/election-of-speaker/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Article 180 (1) of the Constitution gives the Governor the power to appoint a pro-tem Speaker. The Article says that if the chair of the Speaker falls vacant and there is no Deputy Speaker to fill the position, the duties of the office shall be performed “by such member of the Assembly as the Governor may appoint for the purpose”.
- The powers of a pro-tem Speaker are wide. The Bombay High Court in its 1994 judgement in the Surendra Vassant Sirsat case holds that a pro-tem is Speaker of the House “for all purposes with all powers, privileges and immunities” until the Speaker is elected.
- The Odisha High Court also agreed in the Godavaris Misra versus Nandakisore Das, Speaker, Orissa Legislative Assemblycase when it said the “powers of the Speaker pro-tem are co-extensive with the powers of elected Speaker”.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/12/29/election-of-speaker/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the powers of the Lok Sabha Speaker.
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- Speaker prorogues an ongoing session of the Lok Sabha.
- Speaker approves all the bills before it is sent for Presidential assent.
- Speaker heads the appointments committee of the Cabinet and the appointments committee of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation: here the directive word is not correct!!
- President prorogues the session, i.e. ends it. Speaker can only adjourn it for some time.
- Speaker only notifies whether a bill is money bill or not. So, statement 2 is wrong.
- The PM heads the appointments committee of the Cabinet.There is no appointments committee in the Lok Sabha.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/12/29/election-of-speaker/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: here the directive word is not correct!!
- President prorogues the session, i.e. ends it. Speaker can only adjourn it for some time.
- Speaker only notifies whether a bill is money bill or not. So, statement 2 is wrong.
- The PM heads the appointments committee of the Cabinet.There is no appointments committee in the Lok Sabha.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/12/29/election-of-speaker/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsIn the Kesavananda Bharati case, which of the following elements were declared as the ‘Basic Structure’ by the Supreme Court.
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- Supremacy of the Constitution
- Federal character of the constitution
- Rule of law
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- In the Kesavananda Bharati case, Elements of the Basic Structure (As Declared by the Supreme Court) include:
- Supremacy of the Constitution
- Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
- Republic and democratic form of government
- Secular character of the constitution
- Federal character of the constitution
- Sovereignty and unity of India
- Freedom and dignity of the individual
- Mandate to build a welfare state
- Parliamentary System
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/12/29/executive-shows-a-trend-to-disrespect-court-orders/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- In the Kesavananda Bharati case, Elements of the Basic Structure (As Declared by the Supreme Court) include:
- Supremacy of the Constitution
- Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
- Republic and democratic form of government
- Secular character of the constitution
- Federal character of the constitution
- Sovereignty and unity of India
- Freedom and dignity of the individual
- Mandate to build a welfare state
- Parliamentary System
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/12/29/executive-shows-a-trend-to-disrespect-court-orders/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for the textiles sector:
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- It aims to promote the production of high value Man-Made Fibre (MMF) fabrics, garments and technical textiles.
- Under PLI, the Centre will subsidies eligible manufacturers by paying incentives on incremental production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The PLI scheme for textiles aims to promote the production of high value Man-Made Fibre (MMF) fabrics, garments and technical textiles.
- Under PLI, the Centre will subsidise eligible manufacturers by paying incentives on incremental production.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/12/29/pli-scheme-for-textiles-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The PLI scheme for textiles aims to promote the production of high value Man-Made Fibre (MMF) fabrics, garments and technical textiles.
- Under PLI, the Centre will subsidise eligible manufacturers by paying incentives on incremental production.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/12/29/pli-scheme-for-textiles-2/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Alcohol is a subject in the concurrent list under the seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution.
- The Constitution places a responsibility on all state governments to “at least contain, if not curtail, consumption of alcohol”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- State Subject:Alcohol is a subject in the State list under the seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution.
- Article 47:The Directive Principle in the Constitution of India states that “The state shall undertake rules to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health”.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/12/29/steps-to-monitor-illegal-liquor-manufacturing-in-bihar/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- State Subject:Alcohol is a subject in the State list under the seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution.
- Article 47:The Directive Principle in the Constitution of India states that “The state shall undertake rules to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health”.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/12/29/steps-to-monitor-illegal-liquor-manufacturing-in-bihar/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsSubhash Chandra Garg Committee was in news recently, was constituted to deal with matters related:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation: SC Garg Committee recommendations (2019):
- Ban anybody who mines, hold, transact or deal with cryptocurrencies in any form.
- It recommend a jail term of one to 10 years for exchange or trading in digital currency.
- It proposed a monetary penalty of up to three times the loss caused to the exchequer or gains made by the cryptocurrency user whichever is higher.
- However, the panel said that the government should keep an open mind on the potential issuance of cryptocurrencies by the Reserve Bank of India.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation: SC Garg Committee recommendations (2019):
- Ban anybody who mines, hold, transact or deal with cryptocurrencies in any form.
- It recommend a jail term of one to 10 years for exchange or trading in digital currency.
- It proposed a monetary penalty of up to three times the loss caused to the exchequer or gains made by the cryptocurrency user whichever is higher.
- However, the panel said that the government should keep an open mind on the potential issuance of cryptocurrencies by the Reserve Bank of India.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about geographical indication (GI) tag in India:
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- The Geographical Indications registration is administered by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
- The registration of a geographical indication is valid for a period of 20 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: The registration of a geographical indication is valid for a period of 10 years.
- It can be renewed from time to time for further period of 10 years each.
- S2: In India, Geographical Indications registration is administered by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 which came into force with effect from September 2003. The first product in India to be accorded with GI tag was Darjeeling tea in the year 2004-05.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: The registration of a geographical indication is valid for a period of 10 years.
- It can be renewed from time to time for further period of 10 years each.
- S2: In India, Geographical Indications registration is administered by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 which came into force with effect from September 2003. The first product in India to be accorded with GI tag was Darjeeling tea in the year 2004-05.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve:
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- It is protected area in Uttar Pradesh.
- It is part of the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve.
- It was established as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger in 1973.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is a protected area in Uttar Pradesh that stretches mainly across the Lakhimpur Kheri and Bahraich districts and comprises the Dudhwa National Park, Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary and Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary.
- In 1987, the Dudhwa National Park and the Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary were brought under the purview of the ‘Project Tiger’ as Dudhwa Tiger Reserve. The Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary was added in the year 2000.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is a protected area in Uttar Pradesh that stretches mainly across the Lakhimpur Kheri and Bahraich districts and comprises the Dudhwa National Park, Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary and Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary.
- In 1987, the Dudhwa National Park and the Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary were brought under the purview of the ‘Project Tiger’ as Dudhwa Tiger Reserve. The Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary was added in the year 2000.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Western Ghats was included as a ‘World Natural Heritage Site’ by UNESCO in 2012.
- Western Ghats has been recognized as one of the world’s eight ‘hottest hotspots’ of biological diversity.
- The evergreen forests in Wayanad mark the transition zone between the northern and southern ecoregions of the Western Ghats.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Western Ghatswas included as a ‘World Natural Heritage Site’ by UNESCO in 2012. According to the organisation, the Ghats, which are older than the Himalayas, are home to at least 325 globally threatened flora, fauna, bird, amphibian, reptile and fish species.
- It has been recognised as one of the world’s eight ‘hottest hotspots’ of biological diversity.
- The Western Ghats are home to four tropical and subtropical moist broadleaf forest ecoregions –the North Western Ghats moist deciduous forests, North Western Ghats montane rain forests, South Western Ghats moist deciduous forests, and South Western Ghats montane rain forests.
- The northern portion of the range is generally drier than the southern portion, and at lower elevations makes up the North Western Ghats moist deciduous forests ecoregion, with mostly deciduous forests made up predominantly of teak. Above 1,000 meters elevation are the cooler and wetter North Western Ghats montane rain forests, whose evergreen forests are characterised by trees of the family Lauraceae.
- Theevergreen forests in Wayanad mark the transition zone between the northern and southern ecoregions of the Western Ghats.
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Western Ghatswas included as a ‘World Natural Heritage Site’ by UNESCO in 2012. According to the organisation, the Ghats, which are older than the Himalayas, are home to at least 325 globally threatened flora, fauna, bird, amphibian, reptile and fish species.
- It has been recognised as one of the world’s eight ‘hottest hotspots’ of biological diversity.
- The Western Ghats are home to four tropical and subtropical moist broadleaf forest ecoregions –the North Western Ghats moist deciduous forests, North Western Ghats montane rain forests, South Western Ghats moist deciduous forests, and South Western Ghats montane rain forests.
- The northern portion of the range is generally drier than the southern portion, and at lower elevations makes up the North Western Ghats moist deciduous forests ecoregion, with mostly deciduous forests made up predominantly of teak. Above 1,000 meters elevation are the cooler and wetter North Western Ghats montane rain forests, whose evergreen forests are characterised by trees of the family Lauraceae.
- Theevergreen forests in Wayanad mark the transition zone between the northern and southern ecoregions of the Western Ghats.
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