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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
Post your comments, queries, scores, feedback or suggestions in the comments section. Explode(i.e. bring positivity) this platform with your participation.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsThe Ulhas River flows in which of the following state?
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding International Whaling Commission
- All members of International Whaling Commission are signatories to the International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling (ICRW).
- Currently it has 89 member countries.
- India is yet to join as a member of International Whaling Commission
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
International Whaling Commission
- Recently Japan announced to quit from the International Whaling Commission and resume commercial whaling.
- The International Whaling Commission is an Inter-governmental Organization whose purpose is the conservation of whales and the management of whaling.
- It is an international body set up under International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling (ICRW).
- The IWC currently has 89 member governments from countries all over the world.
- All members are signatories to the International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling (ICRW).
- ICRW governs the commercial, scientific, and aboriginal subsistence whaling practices of fifty-nine member nations.
- In 1986, it adopted a moratorium on commercial whaling. This ban still continues.
- This Convention is the legal framework which established the IWC in 1946.
India joined as a member of International Whaling Commission in 1981.
Incorrect
Solution: A
International Whaling Commission
- Recently Japan announced to quit from the International Whaling Commission and resume commercial whaling.
- The International Whaling Commission is an Inter-governmental Organization whose purpose is the conservation of whales and the management of whaling.
- It is an international body set up under International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling (ICRW).
- The IWC currently has 89 member governments from countries all over the world.
- All members are signatories to the International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling (ICRW).
- ICRW governs the commercial, scientific, and aboriginal subsistence whaling practices of fifty-nine member nations.
- In 1986, it adopted a moratorium on commercial whaling. This ban still continues.
- This Convention is the legal framework which established the IWC in 1946.
India joined as a member of International Whaling Commission in 1981.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered Species (LaCONES)
- It is India’s only research facility engaged in conservation and preservation of wildlife and its resources.
- It is a part of centre for cellular and molecular biology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered Species (LaCONES):
- It is India’s only research facility engaged in conservation and preservation of wildlife and its resources. It was established in 1998 with the help of Central Zoo Authority of India, CSIR and the government of Andhra Pradesh.
- LaCONES has helped the Mouse Deer Conservation Breeding Centre at Nehru Zoological Park to increase the population of mouse deer in Telangana forests. Amrabad forest, for instance, ran out of mouse deer and through the efforts of LaCONES, the animal is now reintroduced in Amrabad Tiger Reserve.
- Earlier, LaCONES has developed universal DNA based marker for identification of wild animals from parts and remains. It has a DNA banking of more than 250 species of mammals, birds and reptiles.
- It is a part of CCMB (centre for cellular and molecular biology).
- It supports both in-situ habitat preservation and Ex-situ conservation through captive breeding in controlled environment to restock original wild populations.
- It is the only laboratory in India that has developed methods for collection and cryopreservation of semen and oocytes from wildlife and successfully reproducing endangered blackbuck, spotted deer and Nicobar pigeons.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered Species (LaCONES):
- It is India’s only research facility engaged in conservation and preservation of wildlife and its resources. It was established in 1998 with the help of Central Zoo Authority of India, CSIR and the government of Andhra Pradesh.
- LaCONES has helped the Mouse Deer Conservation Breeding Centre at Nehru Zoological Park to increase the population of mouse deer in Telangana forests. Amrabad forest, for instance, ran out of mouse deer and through the efforts of LaCONES, the animal is now reintroduced in Amrabad Tiger Reserve.
- Earlier, LaCONES has developed universal DNA based marker for identification of wild animals from parts and remains. It has a DNA banking of more than 250 species of mammals, birds and reptiles.
- It is a part of CCMB (centre for cellular and molecular biology).
- It supports both in-situ habitat preservation and Ex-situ conservation through captive breeding in controlled environment to restock original wild populations.
- It is the only laboratory in India that has developed methods for collection and cryopreservation of semen and oocytes from wildlife and successfully reproducing endangered blackbuck, spotted deer and Nicobar pigeons.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Geographical indicators
- Its time period is 10 years and cannot be renewed again.
- It is given to both man-made and natural products.
- GI is covered as element of intellectual property rights (IPRs) under Paris Convention for Protection of Industrial Property.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Geographical indicators (GI)
- A name or sign used on goods that have a specific geographical origin and posses qualities or a reputation due to that place of origin.
- Its purpose is to create unique identification to customers and thereby creating more demand for products.
- It is given to both man-made and natural products.
- However it is a community right rather than individual or company.
- It is protected under Geographical indications of goods (registration and protection) act, 1999.
- It is managed by Cell for IPR promotion and Management (CIPAM) under the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- At the International level, GI is governed by World Trade Organisation‘s (WTO‘s) Agreement on Trade- Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).
- TIME PERIOD – 10 years + renewed for any time
- The first product in India to be accorded with GI tag was Darjeeling tea in the year 2004-05.
- Once the GI protection is granted, no other producer can misuse the name to market similar products. It also provides comfort to customers about the authenticity of that product.
- Provisions in this regard: GI is covered as element of intellectual property rights (IPRs) under Paris Convention for Protection of Industrial Property.
- At international level, GI is governed by WTO’s Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS). In India, Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection Act), 1999 governs it.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Geographical indicators (GI)
- A name or sign used on goods that have a specific geographical origin and posses qualities or a reputation due to that place of origin.
- Its purpose is to create unique identification to customers and thereby creating more demand for products.
- It is given to both man-made and natural products.
- However it is a community right rather than individual or company.
- It is protected under Geographical indications of goods (registration and protection) act, 1999.
- It is managed by Cell for IPR promotion and Management (CIPAM) under the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- At the International level, GI is governed by World Trade Organisation‘s (WTO‘s) Agreement on Trade- Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).
- TIME PERIOD – 10 years + renewed for any time
- The first product in India to be accorded with GI tag was Darjeeling tea in the year 2004-05.
- Once the GI protection is granted, no other producer can misuse the name to market similar products. It also provides comfort to customers about the authenticity of that product.
- Provisions in this regard: GI is covered as element of intellectual property rights (IPRs) under Paris Convention for Protection of Industrial Property.
- At international level, GI is governed by WTO’s Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS). In India, Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection Act), 1999 governs it.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the applications of Big Data?
- Trade Surveillance
- Supply chain management
- Drug discovery
- Disease pattern analysis
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
Data is information processed or stored by a computer. This information may be in the form of text documents, images, audio clips, software programs, or other types of data.
Big Data is also a data but with a huge size, such a data is so large and complex that none of the traditional data management tools are able to store it or process it efficiently.
Applications of Big Data
Incorrect
Solution: D
Data is information processed or stored by a computer. This information may be in the form of text documents, images, audio clips, software programs, or other types of data.
Big Data is also a data but with a huge size, such a data is so large and complex that none of the traditional data management tools are able to store it or process it efficiently.
Applications of Big Data
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding e-Cigarettes
- Electronic cigarettes are devices that do not burn or use tobacco leaves but instead vaporise a solution, which a user then inhales.
- The main constituents of the solution is nicotine.
- They are approved as NRTs (nicotine-replacement therapies) under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
e-Cigarettes
- The Central government has directed all states and Union Territories to not allow the manufacture, sale and advertisement of e-cigarettes and other Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS).
- Electronic cigarettes or e-cigarettes, are devices that do not burn or use tobacco leaves but instead vaporise a solution, which a user then inhales.
- The main constituents of the solution, in addition to nicotine, are propylene glycol (with or without glycerol and flavouring agents).
- ENDS are devices that heat a solution to create an aerosol, which also frequently contains flavours, usually dissolved into propylene glycolor and glycerin.
- A number of metals, including lead, chromium and nickel, and chemicals like formaldehyde have been found in aerosols of some ENDS.
- ENDS are not approved as NRTs (nicotine-replacement therapies) under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and rules made thereunder.
- According to Global Tobacco Epidemic 2017 report by the WHO, the governemnts of 30 countries like Mauritius, Australia, Singapore etc have already banned ENDS.
Incorrect
Solution: A
e-Cigarettes
- The Central government has directed all states and Union Territories to not allow the manufacture, sale and advertisement of e-cigarettes and other Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS).
- Electronic cigarettes or e-cigarettes, are devices that do not burn or use tobacco leaves but instead vaporise a solution, which a user then inhales.
- The main constituents of the solution, in addition to nicotine, are propylene glycol (with or without glycerol and flavouring agents).
- ENDS are devices that heat a solution to create an aerosol, which also frequently contains flavours, usually dissolved into propylene glycolor and glycerin.
- A number of metals, including lead, chromium and nickel, and chemicals like formaldehyde have been found in aerosols of some ENDS.
- ENDS are not approved as NRTs (nicotine-replacement therapies) under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and rules made thereunder.
- According to Global Tobacco Epidemic 2017 report by the WHO, the governemnts of 30 countries like Mauritius, Australia, Singapore etc have already banned ENDS.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bitcoin
- It is a form of digital currency or virtual currency created and held electronically.
- It is generally regulated by central bank.
- It can be traded on an open market and its exchange rate fluctuates much like a stock market
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Bitcoin is a form of digital currency or virtual currency created and held electronically.
It is not regulated by any central bank or government. They aren’t printed, like dollars or euros – they’re produced by people, and increasingly businesses, running computers all around the world, using software that solves mathematical problems.
It is also called a “cryptocurrency” since it is decentralized and uses cryptography to prevent double-spending, a significant challenge inherent to digital currencies.
Bitcoin is a distributed peer-to-peer digital currency that functions without the inter-mediation of any central authority.
It can also be traded on an open market and its exchange rate fluctuates much like a stock market i.e. based on the demand.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Bitcoin is a form of digital currency or virtual currency created and held electronically.
It is not regulated by any central bank or government. They aren’t printed, like dollars or euros – they’re produced by people, and increasingly businesses, running computers all around the world, using software that solves mathematical problems.
It is also called a “cryptocurrency” since it is decentralized and uses cryptography to prevent double-spending, a significant challenge inherent to digital currencies.
Bitcoin is a distributed peer-to-peer digital currency that functions without the inter-mediation of any central authority.
It can also be traded on an open market and its exchange rate fluctuates much like a stock market i.e. based on the demand.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding World Nuclear Association
- It promotes nuclear power and supports the companies that comprise the global nuclear industry.
- Its members come from all parts of the nuclear fuel cycle from uranium mining to the disposition of used nuclear fuel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The World Nuclear Association (WNA) is the international organization that promotes nuclear power and supports the companies that comprise the global nuclear industry.
Its members come from all parts of the nuclear fuel cycle, including uranium mining, uranium conversion, uranium enrichment, nuclear fuel fabrication, plant manufacture, transport, and the disposition of used nuclear fuel as well as electricity generation itself.
Together, WNA members are responsible for 70% of the world’s nuclear power as well as the vast majority of world uranium, conversion and enrichment production.
The WNA says it aims to fulfill a dual role for its members: Facilitating their interaction on technical, commercial and policy matters and promoting wider public understanding of nuclear technology. It has a secretariat of around 35 staff. The WNA was founded in 2001 on the basis of the Uranium Institute, itself founded in 1975.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The World Nuclear Association (WNA) is the international organization that promotes nuclear power and supports the companies that comprise the global nuclear industry.
Its members come from all parts of the nuclear fuel cycle, including uranium mining, uranium conversion, uranium enrichment, nuclear fuel fabrication, plant manufacture, transport, and the disposition of used nuclear fuel as well as electricity generation itself.
Together, WNA members are responsible for 70% of the world’s nuclear power as well as the vast majority of world uranium, conversion and enrichment production.
The WNA says it aims to fulfill a dual role for its members: Facilitating their interaction on technical, commercial and policy matters and promoting wider public understanding of nuclear technology. It has a secretariat of around 35 staff. The WNA was founded in 2001 on the basis of the Uranium Institute, itself founded in 1975.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the features of Charter Act of 1793
- It gave the Governor-General more powers and control over the governments of the subordinate Presidencies of Bombay and Madras.
- It laid down that the members of the Board of Control and their staff were to be paid out of the British revenues.
- It extended the trade monopoly of the Company in India for another period of twenty years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
Charter Act of 1793
The features of this Act were as follows:
- It extended the overriding power given to Lord Cornwallis over his council, to all future Governor-Generals and Governors of Presidencies.
- It gave the Governor-General more powers and control over the governments of the subordinate Presidencies of Bombay and Madras.
- It extended the trade monopoly of the Company in India for another period of twenty years.
- It provided that the Commander-in-Chief was not to be a member of the Governor-General’s council, unless he was so appointed.
- It laid down that the members of the Board of Control and their staff were, henceforth, to be paid out of the Indian revenues.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Charter Act of 1793
The features of this Act were as follows:
- It extended the overriding power given to Lord Cornwallis over his council, to all future Governor-Generals and Governors of Presidencies.
- It gave the Governor-General more powers and control over the governments of the subordinate Presidencies of Bombay and Madras.
- It extended the trade monopoly of the Company in India for another period of twenty years.
- It provided that the Commander-in-Chief was not to be a member of the Governor-General’s council, unless he was so appointed.
- It laid down that the members of the Board of Control and their staff were, henceforth, to be paid out of the Indian revenues.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsThe provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges under Second Schedule are covered for
- The Judges of the Supreme Court
- The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
- The members of Parliament
- The state ministers
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
Second Schedule
Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of:
- The President of India
- The Governors of States
- The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
- The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states
- The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states
- The Judges of the Supreme Court
- The Judges of the High Courts
- The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
Incorrect
Solution: A
Second Schedule
Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of:
- The President of India
- The Governors of States
- The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
- The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states
- The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states
- The Judges of the Supreme Court
- The Judges of the High Courts
- The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following categories are covered under the expression Union of India under Article 1 of the Indian Constitution?
- Territories of the states
- Union territories
- Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’. This provision deals with two things: one, name of the country, and two, type of polity
According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories:
- Territories of the states
- Union territories
- Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.
Notably, the ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the latter includes only states while the former includes not only the states, but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time. The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with the Centre. The union territories and the acquired territories, on the other hand, are directly administered by the Central government.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’. This provision deals with two things: one, name of the country, and two, type of polity
According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories:
- Territories of the states
- Union territories
- Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.
Notably, the ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the latter includes only states while the former includes not only the states, but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time. The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with the Centre. The union territories and the acquired territories, on the other hand, are directly administered by the Central government.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Economic Census
- Economic census usually conducted along with the General Census in India
- It is the census of all entrepreneurial units in the country either agricultural or non-agricultural.
- It is 100% centrally sponsored scheme of the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Economic Census gives the basic entrepreneurial data for planning and development in the State specially for unorganized sectors of the economy.
It is 100% centrally sponsored scheme of the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation, Government of India.
Five Economic Census have been conducted earlier throughout the country during the year 1977, 1980, 1990, 1998 and 2005.
Information collected under Economic Census provides updated frame for conducting detailed follow up surveys.
Coverage of Economic Census
- Economic Census is the complete count of all entrepreneurial units located within the geographical boundaries of the Country.
- Information on number of establishments and employment in all type of establishments, unpaid/paid workers, female workers, child workers, ownership of establishments, use of power, registration of establishments, source of finance etc. is collected.
- Complete address of enterprises having 10 or more workers is recorded.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Economic Census gives the basic entrepreneurial data for planning and development in the State specially for unorganized sectors of the economy.
It is 100% centrally sponsored scheme of the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation, Government of India.
Five Economic Census have been conducted earlier throughout the country during the year 1977, 1980, 1990, 1998 and 2005.
Information collected under Economic Census provides updated frame for conducting detailed follow up surveys.
Coverage of Economic Census
- Economic Census is the complete count of all entrepreneurial units located within the geographical boundaries of the Country.
- Information on number of establishments and employment in all type of establishments, unpaid/paid workers, female workers, child workers, ownership of establishments, use of power, registration of establishments, source of finance etc. is collected.
- Complete address of enterprises having 10 or more workers is recorded.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Quo-Warranto writ
- It can be issued in cases of ministerial office.
- This writ can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Quo-Warranto
In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Quo-Warranto
In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding UPSC
- The UPSC consists of a chairman and not more than ten members.
- The Supreme Court has held that if the government fails to consult UPSC, the aggrieved public servant has no remedy in a court.
- The Supreme Court held that a selection by the UPSC, confers right to the post upon the candidate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Composition
The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition. Usually, the Commission consists of nine to eleven members including the chairman. Further, no qualifications are prescribed for the Commission’s membership except that one-half of the members of the Commission should be such persons who have held office for at least ten years either under the Government of India or under the government of a state. The Constitution also authorises the president to determine the conditions of service of the chairman and other members of the Commission.
The Supreme Court has held that if the government fails to consult UPSC in the matters (mentioned above), the aggrieved public servant has no remedy in a court. In other words, the court held that any irregularity in consultation with the UPSC or acting without consultation does not invalidate the decision of the government. Thus, the provision is directory and not mandatory.
Similarly, the court held that a selection by the UPSC does not confer any right to the post upon the candidate. However, the government is to act fairly and without arbitrariness or mala fides.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Composition
The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition. Usually, the Commission consists of nine to eleven members including the chairman. Further, no qualifications are prescribed for the Commission’s membership except that one-half of the members of the Commission should be such persons who have held office for at least ten years either under the Government of India or under the government of a state. The Constitution also authorises the president to determine the conditions of service of the chairman and other members of the Commission.
The Supreme Court has held that if the government fails to consult UPSC in the matters (mentioned above), the aggrieved public servant has no remedy in a court. In other words, the court held that any irregularity in consultation with the UPSC or acting without consultation does not invalidate the decision of the government. Thus, the provision is directory and not mandatory.
Similarly, the court held that a selection by the UPSC does not confer any right to the post upon the candidate. However, the government is to act fairly and without arbitrariness or mala fides.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsUighurs, a religious community sometime seen in the news, is largely found in which of the following province?
Correct
Solution: D
The Uighurs are Turkic Muslims who regard themselves as culturally and ethnically close to Central Asian nations.
Their language is similar to Turkish and about 11 million of them lives in China’s western Xinjiang region.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Uighurs are Turkic Muslims who regard themselves as culturally and ethnically close to Central Asian nations.
Their language is similar to Turkish and about 11 million of them lives in China’s western Xinjiang region.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Bosporus strait connects the Black Sea with the Sea of Marmara.
- Strait of Hormuz separates Oman and Iran.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Bosporus strait s a narrow, natural strait and an internationally significant waterway located in northwestern Turkey. It forms part of the continental boundary between Europe and Asia, and divides Turkey by separating Anatolia from Thrace.
The Bosporus connects the Black Sea with the Sea of Marmara, and, by extension via the Dardanelles, the Aegean and Mediterranean seas.
The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. It provides the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean and is one of the world’s most strategically important choke points.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Bosporus strait s a narrow, natural strait and an internationally significant waterway located in northwestern Turkey. It forms part of the continental boundary between Europe and Asia, and divides Turkey by separating Anatolia from Thrace.
The Bosporus connects the Black Sea with the Sea of Marmara, and, by extension via the Dardanelles, the Aegean and Mediterranean seas.
The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. It provides the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean and is one of the world’s most strategically important choke points.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
- The post was added under Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956.
- It was added based on the recommendation of States Reorganization Commission.
- Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries, service conditions of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Later, the States Reorganization Commission (1953–55) made a recommendation in this regard. Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution.
This article contains the following provisions:
- There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed by the President of India.
- It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution. He would report to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct. The President should place all such
reports before each House of Parliament and send to the governments of the states concerned.
It must be noted here that the Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
At the Central level, the Commissioner falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Hence, he submits the annual reports or other reports to the President through the Union Minority Affairs Minister.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Later, the States Reorganization Commission (1953–55) made a recommendation in this regard. Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution.
This article contains the following provisions:
- There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed by the President of India.
- It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution. He would report to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct. The President should place all such
reports before each House of Parliament and send to the governments of the states concerned.
It must be noted here that the Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
At the Central level, the Commissioner falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Hence, he submits the annual reports or other reports to the President through the Union Minority Affairs Minister.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
- He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country.
- Minister of Finance represents the CAG in Parliament (both Houses).
- He can be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels–the Centre and the state.
The CAG is appointed by the president of India by a warrant under his hand and seal.
He holds office for a period of six years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president. He can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he can be removed by the president on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
Further, no minister can represent the CAG in Parliament (both Houses) and no minister can be called upon to take any responsibility for any actions done by him.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels–the Centre and the state.
The CAG is appointed by the president of India by a warrant under his hand and seal.
He holds office for a period of six years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president. He can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he can be removed by the president on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
Further, no minister can represent the CAG in Parliament (both Houses) and no minister can be called upon to take any responsibility for any actions done by him.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the major traits of Boom in terms of economic activity?
- An accelerated and prolonged increase in the demand.
- A demand and supply lag are visible.
- The economy might face structural problems like shortage of investible capital and lower savings.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Boom
A strong upward fluctuation in the economic activities is called boom. As economies try to recover out of the phases of slowdown, recession and depression at times the measures taken by the governments as well as the private sector might put economic activities as such which the economic systems fail to digest. This is the phase of the boom. The major economic traits of boom may be listed as given below:
(i) an accelerated and prolonged increase in the demand;
(ii) demand peaks up to such a high level that it exceeds sustainable output/production levels;
(iii) the economy heats up and a demand and supply lag are visible;
(iv) the market forces mismatch (i.e., demand and supply disequilibrium) and tend to create a situation where inflation starts going upward;
(v) the economy might face structural problems like shortage of investible capital, lower savings, falling standard of living, creation of a sellers’ market.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Boom
A strong upward fluctuation in the economic activities is called boom. As economies try to recover out of the phases of slowdown, recession and depression at times the measures taken by the governments as well as the private sector might put economic activities as such which the economic systems fail to digest. This is the phase of the boom. The major economic traits of boom may be listed as given below:
(i) an accelerated and prolonged increase in the demand;
(ii) demand peaks up to such a high level that it exceeds sustainable output/production levels;
(iii) the economy heats up and a demand and supply lag are visible;
(iv) the market forces mismatch (i.e., demand and supply disequilibrium) and tend to create a situation where inflation starts going upward;
(v) the economy might face structural problems like shortage of investible capital, lower savings, falling standard of living, creation of a sellers’ market.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM)
- It has been launched under National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development.
- It aims to conservation and development of indigenous breeds in a focused and scientific manner.
- The Scheme is implemented on 100% grant-in-aid basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
About Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
- Rashtriya Gokul Mission is launched for conservation and development of indigenous breeds in a focused and scientific manner.
- It is a project under National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development.
- Rashtriya Gokul Mission will be implemented through the “State Implementing Agency (SIA viz Livestock Development Boards).
- State Gauseva Ayogs will be given the mandate to sponsor proposals to the SIA’s (LDB’s) and monitor implementation of the sponsored proposal.
- All Agencies having a role in indigenous cattle development will be the “Participating Agencies” like CFSPTI, CCBFs, ICAR, Universities, Colleges, NGO’s, Cooperative Societies and Gaushalas with best germplasm.
- Funding Pattern: Scheme is implemented on 100% grant-in-aid basis throughout the country.
Incorrect
Solution: D
About Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
- Rashtriya Gokul Mission is launched for conservation and development of indigenous breeds in a focused and scientific manner.
- It is a project under National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development.
- Rashtriya Gokul Mission will be implemented through the “State Implementing Agency (SIA viz Livestock Development Boards).
- State Gauseva Ayogs will be given the mandate to sponsor proposals to the SIA’s (LDB’s) and monitor implementation of the sponsored proposal.
- All Agencies having a role in indigenous cattle development will be the “Participating Agencies” like CFSPTI, CCBFs, ICAR, Universities, Colleges, NGO’s, Cooperative Societies and Gaushalas with best germplasm.
- Funding Pattern: Scheme is implemented on 100% grant-in-aid basis throughout the country.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Security Transaction Tax (STT)
- Security Transaction Tax (STT) was first introduced in the Union Budget 2014.
- It is imposed on the investor/trader directly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Security Transaction Tax (STT) was first introduced in the Union Budget 2004. The idea of STT was born after it was found that there were cases of capital gains taxes evasion through real and fictitious losses. Thus, STT came into being as a way of realizing the actual potential of taxing the stock markets. So, while long-term capital gains (LTCG) tax was exempted, STT was introduced to make sure there was no tax evasion. And then, LTCG too made a comeback in 2019.
In essence, STT is an indirect tax and is imposed on a broker rather than the investor/trader directly. The broker, in turn, collects it from its clients and deposits it with the government. An investor or trader has to pay the tax no matter whether she makes a profit or not.
STT is currently imposed on equity and derivative transactions. Futures and options transactions come under the purview of STT on the sell side. Understandably, the rates on futures and options transactions are comparatively lower than on direct equities since such contracts are valued notionally.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Security Transaction Tax (STT) was first introduced in the Union Budget 2004. The idea of STT was born after it was found that there were cases of capital gains taxes evasion through real and fictitious losses. Thus, STT came into being as a way of realizing the actual potential of taxing the stock markets. So, while long-term capital gains (LTCG) tax was exempted, STT was introduced to make sure there was no tax evasion. And then, LTCG too made a comeback in 2019.
In essence, STT is an indirect tax and is imposed on a broker rather than the investor/trader directly. The broker, in turn, collects it from its clients and deposits it with the government. An investor or trader has to pay the tax no matter whether she makes a profit or not.
STT is currently imposed on equity and derivative transactions. Futures and options transactions come under the purview of STT on the sell side. Understandably, the rates on futures and options transactions are comparatively lower than on direct equities since such contracts are valued notionally.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Konark Sun Temple
- It was built by King Narasimhadeva I of Ganga dynasty.
- The temple is included in UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- It was conceived as a gigantic chariot of the Sun God.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Konark Sun Temple
- Built in the 13th century, the Konark temple was conceived as a gigantic chariot of the Sun God, with 12 pairs of exquisitely ornamented wheels pulled by seven horses.
- It was built by King Narasimhadeva I, the great ruler of Ganga dynasty.
- The temple is included in UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984 for its architectural greatness and also for the sophistication and abundance of sculptural work.
- The temple is perfect blend of Kalinga architecture, heritage, exotic beach and salient natural beauty.
- It is protected under the National Framework of India by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act (1958) and its Rules (1959).
- The Konark is the third link of Odisha’s Golden Triangle. The first link is Jagannath Puri and the second link is Bhubaneswar (Capital city of Odisha).
- This temple was also known as ‘BLACK PAGODA’ due to its dark color and used as a navigational landmark by ancient sailors to Odisha. Similarly, the Jagannath Temple in Puri was called the “White Pagoda”.
- It remains a major pilgrimage site for Hindus, who gather here every year for the Chandrabhaga Mela around the month of February.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Konark Sun Temple
- Built in the 13th century, the Konark temple was conceived as a gigantic chariot of the Sun God, with 12 pairs of exquisitely ornamented wheels pulled by seven horses.
- It was built by King Narasimhadeva I, the great ruler of Ganga dynasty.
- The temple is included in UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984 for its architectural greatness and also for the sophistication and abundance of sculptural work.
- The temple is perfect blend of Kalinga architecture, heritage, exotic beach and salient natural beauty.
- It is protected under the National Framework of India by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act (1958) and its Rules (1959).
- The Konark is the third link of Odisha’s Golden Triangle. The first link is Jagannath Puri and the second link is Bhubaneswar (Capital city of Odisha).
- This temple was also known as ‘BLACK PAGODA’ due to its dark color and used as a navigational landmark by ancient sailors to Odisha. Similarly, the Jagannath Temple in Puri was called the “White Pagoda”.
- It remains a major pilgrimage site for Hindus, who gather here every year for the Chandrabhaga Mela around the month of February.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC)
- It is a not-for-profit Public Sector Enterprise, set up by Department of Biotechnology (DBT)
- BIRAC is an industry-academia interface
- It is an Interface Agency to strengthen and empower the emerging Biotech enterprise to undertake strategic research and innovation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
About Vishwa Shanti Stupa (World peace pagoda):
- Constructed atop the Ratnagiri Hill, it is the world’s highest peace pagoda.
- Conceptualised by neo-Buddhist organisation Nipponzan Myohoji and built by Japanese monk Fujii Guruji.
- Built completely with marble, the stupa comprises four golden statues of Lord Buddha with each representing his life periods of birth, enlightenment, preaching and death.
- There are 7 Peace Pagoda or Shanti Stupas in India, other Stupas are Global Vipassana Pagoda Mumbai, Deekshabhoomi Stupa Nagpur and Buddha Smriti Park Stupa Patna.
About Rajgir:
- The first Buddhist Council, immediately after the Mahaparinirvana of Lord Buddha, was convened at this place which presently is called Rajgir.
- It was at the Gridhakuta, the hill of the vultures, where Buddha made Bimbisara convert to Buddhism.
- Rajgir is also known as Panchpahari as it is surrounded by five holy hills.
- The legend has it that the ancient city Rajagriha existed even before Lord Buddha attained enlightenment. It was the ancient capital city of the Magadh rulers until the 5th century BC when Ajatashatru moved the capital to Pataliputra (which is now known as Patna).
- Lord Mahavira too spent 14 years of his life at Rajgir and nearby areas.
Incorrect
Solution: B
About Vishwa Shanti Stupa (World peace pagoda):
- Constructed atop the Ratnagiri Hill, it is the world’s highest peace pagoda.
- Conceptualised by neo-Buddhist organisation Nipponzan Myohoji and built by Japanese monk Fujii Guruji.
- Built completely with marble, the stupa comprises four golden statues of Lord Buddha with each representing his life periods of birth, enlightenment, preaching and death.
- There are 7 Peace Pagoda or Shanti Stupas in India, other Stupas are Global Vipassana Pagoda Mumbai, Deekshabhoomi Stupa Nagpur and Buddha Smriti Park Stupa Patna.
About Rajgir:
- The first Buddhist Council, immediately after the Mahaparinirvana of Lord Buddha, was convened at this place which presently is called Rajgir.
- It was at the Gridhakuta, the hill of the vultures, where Buddha made Bimbisara convert to Buddhism.
- Rajgir is also known as Panchpahari as it is surrounded by five holy hills.
- The legend has it that the ancient city Rajagriha existed even before Lord Buddha attained enlightenment. It was the ancient capital city of the Magadh rulers until the 5th century BC when Ajatashatru moved the capital to Pataliputra (which is now known as Patna).
- Lord Mahavira too spent 14 years of his life at Rajgir and nearby areas.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsGeological Survey of India comes under which of the following ministry?
Correct
Solution: C
Geological Survey of India:
- The Geological Survey of India (GSI), founded in 1851,
- It is a Government of India Ministry of Mines organisation, one of the oldest of such organisations in the world and the second oldest survey in India after Survey of India (founded in 1767).
- It works for conducting geological surveys and studies of India, and also as the prime provider of basic earth science information to government, industry and general public, as well as the official participant in steel, coal, metals, cement, power industries and international geoscientific forums.
GSI (geology) as well as ASI (archaeology), BSI (botany), FiSI (fisheries), FSI (forests), IIEE (ecology), NIO (oceanography), RGCCI (population survey) and language survey), SI (cartography), and ZSI (zoology) are key national survey organisations of India.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Geological Survey of India:
- The Geological Survey of India (GSI), founded in 1851,
- It is a Government of India Ministry of Mines organisation, one of the oldest of such organisations in the world and the second oldest survey in India after Survey of India (founded in 1767).
- It works for conducting geological surveys and studies of India, and also as the prime provider of basic earth science information to government, industry and general public, as well as the official participant in steel, coal, metals, cement, power industries and international geoscientific forums.
GSI (geology) as well as ASI (archaeology), BSI (botany), FiSI (fisheries), FSI (forests), IIEE (ecology), NIO (oceanography), RGCCI (population survey) and language survey), SI (cartography), and ZSI (zoology) are key national survey organisations of India.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsArrange the following architecture chronologically from the earliest to latest
- Red-Fort
- Virupaksha temple
- Qutub Minar
- Lingaraja temple
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
The great Virupaksha temple, dedicated to Siva as Lokesavara, by the queen of Vikramaditya II datable to 740 A.D., was most likely built by workmen brought from Kanchipuram, and in direct imitation of the Kailasanath at Kanchipuram.
The Lingaraja temple, datable to about 1000 A.D., is perhaps the most marvellous temple ever erected in this century, the grandest and the loftiest (above 36.50 m. high) marking the culmination of the architectural activities at Bhubaneswar.
The Qutub Minar of Mehrauli was built around 1199 by Qutub-ud-din and finally completed by his son-in-law and successor IItutmish (1210-35).
In 1638 Shahjahan shifted his capital from Agra to Delhi and laid the foundation of Shahjanabad, the Seventh City of Delhi, containing his famous citadel, the Red-Fort, which was begun in 1639 and completed after 9 years.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The great Virupaksha temple, dedicated to Siva as Lokesavara, by the queen of Vikramaditya II datable to 740 A.D., was most likely built by workmen brought from Kanchipuram, and in direct imitation of the Kailasanath at Kanchipuram.
The Lingaraja temple, datable to about 1000 A.D., is perhaps the most marvellous temple ever erected in this century, the grandest and the loftiest (above 36.50 m. high) marking the culmination of the architectural activities at Bhubaneswar.
The Qutub Minar of Mehrauli was built around 1199 by Qutub-ud-din and finally completed by his son-in-law and successor IItutmish (1210-35).
In 1638 Shahjahan shifted his capital from Agra to Delhi and laid the foundation of Shahjanabad, the Seventh City of Delhi, containing his famous citadel, the Red-Fort, which was begun in 1639 and completed after 9 years.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsIf three number are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 and their LCM is 720. Then what is the HCF of three numbers?
Correct
Solution: A
Let the numbers be 3x, 4x and 5x.
Then, their LCM = 60x
So, 60x = 720 or x = 12.
The numbers are (3 * 12), (4 * 12) and (5 * 12).
Or Numbers are 36, 48, 60
Hence, required HCF = 12
Incorrect
Solution: A
Let the numbers be 3x, 4x and 5x.
Then, their LCM = 60x
So, 60x = 720 or x = 12.
The numbers are (3 * 12), (4 * 12) and (5 * 12).
Or Numbers are 36, 48, 60
Hence, required HCF = 12
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThe HCF and LCM of two numbers are 12 and 72 respectively. If one of the numbers is 24, then what is the other number?
Correct
Solution: D
Let the unknown number be x.
By formula we know that, First number * Second number = HCF * LCM
24 * x = 12 * 72
Or x = 12 * 72/24
Or x= 36
Incorrect
Solution: D
Let the unknown number be x.
By formula we know that, First number * Second number = HCF * LCM
24 * x = 12 * 72
Or x = 12 * 72/24
Or x= 36
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsSix bells commence ringing together and ring at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8 10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 20 minutes, how many times do they ring together?
Correct
Solution: A
L.C.M. of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12 is 120.
So, the bells will toll together after every 120 seconds(2 minutes).
In 20 minutes, they will toll together 20/2 + 1(This is starting ring) = 11 timesP.S : Students are suggested not to get confused between 10 and 11 while solving such questions depending on the nature of the question.
Incorrect
Solution: A
L.C.M. of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12 is 120.
So, the bells will toll together after every 120 seconds(2 minutes).
In 20 minutes, they will toll together 20/2 + 1(This is starting ring) = 11 timesP.S : Students are suggested not to get confused between 10 and 11 while solving such questions depending on the nature of the question.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsIf all the digits of the number 47623951, are arranged in ascending order from left to right, then 2 is added to the first four digits from left to right of the number and 2 is subtracted to the remaining four digits of the number. Then how many digits are repeating in the number thus formed?
Correct
Solution: C
Given number: 47623951
After rearrangement in ascending order from left to right: 12345679
Adding 2 to first four numbers : 1234 -> 3456Subtracting 2 to remaining four numbers : 5679 -> 3457
Here, the numbers 3, 4, and 5 are repeated twice.
Thus, three numbers are repeated.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Given number: 47623951
After rearrangement in ascending order from left to right: 12345679
Adding 2 to first four numbers : 1234 -> 3456Subtracting 2 to remaining four numbers : 5679 -> 3457
Here, the numbers 3, 4, and 5 are repeated twice.
Thus, three numbers are repeated.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsRead the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
Ecological -research over the last quarter of the century has established the deleterious effects of habitat fragmentation due to mining, highways and such other intrusions on forests. When a large block of forests gets fragmented into smaller bits, the edges of all these bits come into contact with human activities resulting in the degradation of the entire forests. Continuity of forested landscapes and corridors gets disrupted ‘affecting several extinction-prone species of wildlife. Habitat fragmentation is therefore considered as the most serious threat to biodiversity conservation. Ad hoc grants of forest lands to mining companies coupled with rampant, illegal mining is aggravating this threat.
What is the central focus of this passage?
Correct
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The central focus of passage is on how the anthropogenic factors are causing the habitat disruption. Passage list out the various factors related to it.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The central focus of passage is on how the anthropogenic factors are causing the habitat disruption. Passage list out the various factors related to it.












