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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Cabinet Secretary
- He is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board,
- He functions directly under the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
- He is appointed with the approval of the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.
- He is the administrative head of departments not allocated to any minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Cabinet Secretary
- A cabinet secretary is appointed for a fixed tenure of two years.
- According to All India Services (Death-Cum-Retirement-Benefits) Rules, 1958, the government can give extension in service to a cabinet secretary provided the total tenure does not exceed four years.
- As per the modified rules, the central government may give an extension in service for a further period not exceeding three months, beyond the period of four years to a cabinet secretary.
- All senior level appointments (including Cabinet Secretary) are done with the approval of the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.
Role of the cabinet secretary:
- The cabinet secretariat is under the direct charge of the prime minister.
- The administrative head of the secretariat is the cabinet secretary who is also the exofficio chairman of the civil services board.
- It functions directly under the Prime Minister.
Functions:
- The cabinet secretariat assists in decision-making in government by ensuring inter-ministerial coordination, ironing out differences amongst ministries or departments and evolving consensus through the instrumentality of the standing or ad hoc committees of secretaries.
- Management of major crisis situations in the country and coordinating activities of various ministries in such a situation is also one of the functions of the cabinet secretariat.
- Cabinet Secretariat is responsible forthe administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1961, facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/ Departments of the Government.
- He doesn’t head any departments unlike chief secretary at the state level.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Cabinet Secretary
- A cabinet secretary is appointed for a fixed tenure of two years.
- According to All India Services (Death-Cum-Retirement-Benefits) Rules, 1958, the government can give extension in service to a cabinet secretary provided the total tenure does not exceed four years.
- As per the modified rules, the central government may give an extension in service for a further period not exceeding three months, beyond the period of four years to a cabinet secretary.
- All senior level appointments (including Cabinet Secretary) are done with the approval of the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.
Role of the cabinet secretary:
- The cabinet secretariat is under the direct charge of the prime minister.
- The administrative head of the secretariat is the cabinet secretary who is also the exofficio chairman of the civil services board.
- It functions directly under the Prime Minister.
Functions:
- The cabinet secretariat assists in decision-making in government by ensuring inter-ministerial coordination, ironing out differences amongst ministries or departments and evolving consensus through the instrumentality of the standing or ad hoc committees of secretaries.
- Management of major crisis situations in the country and coordinating activities of various ministries in such a situation is also one of the functions of the cabinet secretariat.
- Cabinet Secretariat is responsible forthe administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1961, facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/ Departments of the Government.
- He doesn’t head any departments unlike chief secretary at the state level.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding no-confidence motion
- It gives effect to article 75 of the constitution
- It should be put to vote within 15 days the motion is accepted.
- There is no time-limit that must be adhered to between two no-confidence motions.
Select the correct answer from codes given below
Correct
Solution: A
No-confidence motion:
A no-confidence motion is a parliamentary motion which is moved in the Lok Sabha against the entire council of ministers, stating that they are no longer deemed fit to hold positions of responsibility due to their inadequacy in some respect or their failure to carry out their obligations. No prior reason needs to be stated for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.
How it works?
- At least 50 MPs would need to stand up and support the move. If there are 50 MPs in favour, the motion is admitted and the speaker allots a date for discussion on the motion. The prime minister or minister’s reply to the charges made. The mover has the right to reply. After the debate, the speaker puts question to the house and ascertains the decision of the house by voice vote or a division.
- The day cannot be more than 10 days from the day the motion is accepted.
Grounds:
- A Motion of No-confidence need not set out any grounds on which it is based. Even when grounds are mentioned in the notice and read out in the House, they do not form part of the no-confidence Motion.
Implications:
- The government is expected to resign if it loses a trust vote. In case its refuses to do so, the President has the power to remove the prime minister. In the history of Indian Parliament, no Prime Minister has been forcibly removed so far. After a government loses a trust vote and resigns, it continues to function, but as a caretaker government with almost the same powers as it had before the voting.
- However, a caretaker government wouldn’t have the power to take any major policy decisions since Parliament remains dissolved. A new government gets elected after the general elections.
- Article 75(3) states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
- This means that if the Ministry loses the confidence of the “Lok Sabha”, all ministers from both the Houses of Parliament has to resign.
Key facts:
- The Rajya Sabha does not have a procedure for moving of an adjournment motion, censure motion or no-confidence motion against the Government.
- Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha lays down the procedure for moving a Motion of No-Confidence in the Council of Ministers.
- There is no mention of a no-confidence motion in the constitution.
- There is no time-limit that must be adhered to between two no-confidence motions.
Incorrect
Solution: A
No-confidence motion:
A no-confidence motion is a parliamentary motion which is moved in the Lok Sabha against the entire council of ministers, stating that they are no longer deemed fit to hold positions of responsibility due to their inadequacy in some respect or their failure to carry out their obligations. No prior reason needs to be stated for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.
How it works?
- At least 50 MPs would need to stand up and support the move. If there are 50 MPs in favour, the motion is admitted and the speaker allots a date for discussion on the motion. The prime minister or minister’s reply to the charges made. The mover has the right to reply. After the debate, the speaker puts question to the house and ascertains the decision of the house by voice vote or a division.
- The day cannot be more than 10 days from the day the motion is accepted.
Grounds:
- A Motion of No-confidence need not set out any grounds on which it is based. Even when grounds are mentioned in the notice and read out in the House, they do not form part of the no-confidence Motion.
Implications:
- The government is expected to resign if it loses a trust vote. In case its refuses to do so, the President has the power to remove the prime minister. In the history of Indian Parliament, no Prime Minister has been forcibly removed so far. After a government loses a trust vote and resigns, it continues to function, but as a caretaker government with almost the same powers as it had before the voting.
- However, a caretaker government wouldn’t have the power to take any major policy decisions since Parliament remains dissolved. A new government gets elected after the general elections.
- Article 75(3) states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
- This means that if the Ministry loses the confidence of the “Lok Sabha”, all ministers from both the Houses of Parliament has to resign.
Key facts:
- The Rajya Sabha does not have a procedure for moving of an adjournment motion, censure motion or no-confidence motion against the Government.
- Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha lays down the procedure for moving a Motion of No-Confidence in the Council of Ministers.
- There is no mention of a no-confidence motion in the constitution.
- There is no time-limit that must be adhered to between two no-confidence motions.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Gogabeel community reserve
- It has been established under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980.
- Gogabeel is an ox-bow lake.
- Gogabeel is formed from the flow of the rivers Mahananda and the Ganga.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and reserved and protected forests of India.
These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002
Gogabeel is an ox-bow lake in Bihar’s Katihar district. It has been declared as the state’s first Community Reserve’.
Gogabeel is formed from the flow of the rivers Mahananda and Kankhar in the north and the Ganga in the south and east. It is the fifteenth Protected Area (PA) in Bihar.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and reserved and protected forests of India.
These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002
Gogabeel is an ox-bow lake in Bihar’s Katihar district. It has been declared as the state’s first Community Reserve’.
Gogabeel is formed from the flow of the rivers Mahananda and Kankhar in the north and the Ganga in the south and east. It is the fifteenth Protected Area (PA) in Bihar.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Hill Station State
- Dalhousie Uttarakhand
- Wilson Hills Maharashtra
- Jampui Hills Mizoram
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: D
A beautiful hill station in the state of Himachal Pradesh, Dalhousie is emerged as one of the highly visited hill stations of India.
Wilson Hills is a hill station in the Indian state of Gujarat. Wilson Hills stands in a densely forested region close to the Pangarbari Wildlife Sanctuary.
Jampui Hills is a hill range located in the North Tripura district in the north eastern part of the Indian state of Tripura.
Incorrect
Solution: D
A beautiful hill station in the state of Himachal Pradesh, Dalhousie is emerged as one of the highly visited hill stations of India.
Wilson Hills is a hill station in the Indian state of Gujarat. Wilson Hills stands in a densely forested region close to the Pangarbari Wildlife Sanctuary.
Jampui Hills is a hill range located in the North Tripura district in the north eastern part of the Indian state of Tripura.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding biodiversity in India
- Karnataka has maximum species richness for trees.
- Arunachal Pradesh has maximum species richness for shrubs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
India State of Forest Report 2019
Tree biodiversity Maximum tree diversity has been found in Tropical wet evergreen and semi evergreen forests of Western Ghats (Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka) followed by North Eastern states. Among the States, Karnataka has the highest tree species richness followed by Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh as observed in the rapid survey.
Shrub biodiversity maximum shrub diversity has been observed in Tropical wet evergreen forests of Western Ghats (Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka) and North Eastern states. Among the States, Arunachal Pradesh has the highest shrub species richness followed by Tamil Nadu, Meghalaya, Kerala and Assam as observed in the rapid survey.
Incorrect
Solution: C
India State of Forest Report 2019
Tree biodiversity Maximum tree diversity has been found in Tropical wet evergreen and semi evergreen forests of Western Ghats (Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka) followed by North Eastern states. Among the States, Karnataka has the highest tree species richness followed by Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh as observed in the rapid survey.
Shrub biodiversity maximum shrub diversity has been observed in Tropical wet evergreen forests of Western Ghats (Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka) and North Eastern states. Among the States, Arunachal Pradesh has the highest shrub species richness followed by Tamil Nadu, Meghalaya, Kerala and Assam as observed in the rapid survey.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to UNESCO Global Geopark, consider the following statements
- UNESCO Global Geopark status implies restrictions on economic activities inside the Geopark
- UNESCO Global Geopark is given this designation for a period of Ten years
- Total 5 UNESCO Global Geoparks are declared in India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
UNESCO Global Geoparks
- These are single, unified geographical areas where sites and landscapes of international geological significance are managed with a holistic concept of protection, education and sustainable development.
- These are managed by a body having legal existence recognized under national legislation.
- It needs to be noted that UNESCO Global Geopark status does not imply restrictions on any economic activity inside a UNESCO Global Geopark where that activity complies with indigenous, local, regional and/or national legislation.
- Geoparks are sustained through geo tourism activities like excursions, nature trails, guided tours, hiking and academic meets.
- A UNESCO Global Geopark is given this designation for a period of four years after which the functioning and quality of each UNESCO Global Geopark is thoroughly re-examined during a revalidation process.
- India does not have any UNESCO Global Geoparks yet.
Incorrect
Solution: D
UNESCO Global Geoparks
- These are single, unified geographical areas where sites and landscapes of international geological significance are managed with a holistic concept of protection, education and sustainable development.
- These are managed by a body having legal existence recognized under national legislation.
- It needs to be noted that UNESCO Global Geopark status does not imply restrictions on any economic activity inside a UNESCO Global Geopark where that activity complies with indigenous, local, regional and/or national legislation.
- Geoparks are sustained through geo tourism activities like excursions, nature trails, guided tours, hiking and academic meets.
- A UNESCO Global Geopark is given this designation for a period of four years after which the functioning and quality of each UNESCO Global Geopark is thoroughly re-examined during a revalidation process.
- India does not have any UNESCO Global Geoparks yet.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Open Skies Treaty
- It is an agreement that allows its 34 signatories countries to monitor arm development by conducting surveillance flights over each other’s territories.
- Both USA and India are not members of this treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
“Open Skies” treaty:
- The treaty allows 34 countries to conduct unarmed surveillance flights over one another’s territories — including the US and Russia. It was signed in 1992 and went into effect in 2002.
- Kyrgyzstan has signed, but not ratified the treaty.
- Therefore, the treaty established an aerial surveillance system for its participants.
- Both US and Russia are signatories of the treaty.
- India is not a member of this treaty.
Significance:
- It was agreed just after the Cold War to allow signatories to avoid nasty surprises by monitoring rival militaries.
The treaty “was designed to enhance mutual understanding and confidence by giving all participants, regardless of size, a direct role in gathering information through aerial imaging on military forces and activities of concern to them.”
Incorrect
Solution: A
“Open Skies” treaty:
- The treaty allows 34 countries to conduct unarmed surveillance flights over one another’s territories — including the US and Russia. It was signed in 1992 and went into effect in 2002.
- Kyrgyzstan has signed, but not ratified the treaty.
- Therefore, the treaty established an aerial surveillance system for its participants.
- Both US and Russia are signatories of the treaty.
- India is not a member of this treaty.
Significance:
- It was agreed just after the Cold War to allow signatories to avoid nasty surprises by monitoring rival militaries.
The treaty “was designed to enhance mutual understanding and confidence by giving all participants, regardless of size, a direct role in gathering information through aerial imaging on military forces and activities of concern to them.”
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements regarding the Mongols in the 13th century is/are correct?
- The Mongol emperor Changez Khan did not cross the Indus due to the fear of Balban’s army.
- Mongol king Abdullah was defeated by Jalaluddin Khalji in Bhatinda.
- Mongol invasion during Alauddin Khalji’s rule laid the foundations of a strong Sultanate army.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: C
A last invasion of India by the Mongol branch settled in Iran took place in 1192 when a Mongol army headed by Abdullah, a grandson of Halaku, the Ilkhan of Iran, invaded India. Jalaluddin Khalji who had just succeeded to the throne had spent a considerable part of his life in fighting the Mongols. Jalaluddin Khalji advanced with a large force. After some skirmishes, the Mongols agreed to withdraw without a fight. There was some kind of an agreement between the two. Jalaluddin had a cordial meeting with Abdullah whom he called his son, and a party of the Mongols, headed by Ulaghu, another grandson of Halaku, embraced Islam, along with 4000 of his followers.
Incorrect
Solution: C
A last invasion of India by the Mongol branch settled in Iran took place in 1192 when a Mongol army headed by Abdullah, a grandson of Halaku, the Ilkhan of Iran, invaded India. Jalaluddin Khalji who had just succeeded to the throne had spent a considerable part of his life in fighting the Mongols. Jalaluddin Khalji advanced with a large force. After some skirmishes, the Mongols agreed to withdraw without a fight. There was some kind of an agreement between the two. Jalaluddin had a cordial meeting with Abdullah whom he called his son, and a party of the Mongols, headed by Ulaghu, another grandson of Halaku, embraced Islam, along with 4000 of his followers.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWho was defeated in the battle of Bilgram/Kannauj by Sher Shah Suri?
Correct
Solution: C
The ancient name of Bilgram is Srinagar, its present name Bilgram was given by some associates of Mahmood Gajnavi. The Battle of Bilgram in 1540 took place between Humayun and Sher Shah Suri. Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun in the Battle of Bilgram.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The ancient name of Bilgram is Srinagar, its present name Bilgram was given by some associates of Mahmood Gajnavi. The Battle of Bilgram in 1540 took place between Humayun and Sher Shah Suri. Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun in the Battle of Bilgram.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries are part of the Quad grouping?
- Japan
- India
- Israel
- Australia
- China
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
Quad grouping:
The quadrilateral security dialogue includes Japan, India, United States and Australia.
- All four nations find a common ground of being the democratic nations and common interests of unhindered maritime trade and security.
Genesis:
The grouping traces its genesis to 2004 when the four countries came together to coordinate relief operations in the aftermath of the tsunami.
- It then met for the first time in 2007 on the sidelines of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) summit.
- The intention was to enhance maritime cooperation between the four nations.
Significance of the grouping:
- Quad is an opportunity for like-minded countries to share notes and collaborate on projects of mutual interest.
- Members share a vision of an open and free Indo-Pacific. Each is involved in development and economic projects as well as in promoting maritime domain awareness and maritime security.
- It is one of the many avenues for interaction among India, Australia, Japan and the US and should not be seen in an exclusive context.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Quad grouping:
The quadrilateral security dialogue includes Japan, India, United States and Australia.
- All four nations find a common ground of being the democratic nations and common interests of unhindered maritime trade and security.
Genesis:
The grouping traces its genesis to 2004 when the four countries came together to coordinate relief operations in the aftermath of the tsunami.
- It then met for the first time in 2007 on the sidelines of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) summit.
- The intention was to enhance maritime cooperation between the four nations.
Significance of the grouping:
- Quad is an opportunity for like-minded countries to share notes and collaborate on projects of mutual interest.
- Members share a vision of an open and free Indo-Pacific. Each is involved in development and economic projects as well as in promoting maritime domain awareness and maritime security.
- It is one of the many avenues for interaction among India, Australia, Japan and the US and should not be seen in an exclusive context.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following reports are being released by International Energy Agency (IEA)
-
- World Energy Outlook
- World Energy Statistics
- World Energy Balances
- Energy Technology Perspectives
- Emissions Gap Report
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
Correct
Solution: B
International Energy Agency (IEA):
- Established in 1974 as per framework of the OECD, IEA is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation.
- Its mission is guided by four main areas of focus: energy security, economic development, environmental awareness and engagement worldwide.
- Headquarters (Secretariat): Paris, France.
Roles and functions:
- Established in the wake of the 1973-1974 oil crisis, to help its members respond to major oil supply disruptions, a role it continues to fulfil today.
- IEA’s mandate has expanded over time to include tracking and analyzing global key energy trends, promoting sound energy policy, and fostering multinational energy technology cooperation.
Composition and eligibility:
It has 30 members at present. IEA family also includes eight association countries. A candidate country must be a member country of the OECD. But all OECD members are not IEA members.
To become member a candidate country must demonstrate that it has:
- Crude oil and/or product reserves equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports, to which the government has immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) and could be used to address disruptions to global oil supply.
- A demand restraint programme to reduce national oil consumption by up to 10%.
- Legislation and organisation to operate the Co-ordinated Emergency Response Measures (CERM) on a national basis.
- Legislation and measures to ensure that all oil companies under its jurisdiction report information upon request.
- Measures in place to ensure the capability of contributing its share of an IEA collective action.
Reports:
- Global Energy & CO2 Status Report.
- World Energy Outlook.
- World Energy Statistics.
- World Energy Balances.
- Energy Technology Perspectives.
Incorrect
Solution: B
International Energy Agency (IEA):
- Established in 1974 as per framework of the OECD, IEA is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation.
- Its mission is guided by four main areas of focus: energy security, economic development, environmental awareness and engagement worldwide.
- Headquarters (Secretariat): Paris, France.
Roles and functions:
- Established in the wake of the 1973-1974 oil crisis, to help its members respond to major oil supply disruptions, a role it continues to fulfil today.
- IEA’s mandate has expanded over time to include tracking and analyzing global key energy trends, promoting sound energy policy, and fostering multinational energy technology cooperation.
Composition and eligibility:
It has 30 members at present. IEA family also includes eight association countries. A candidate country must be a member country of the OECD. But all OECD members are not IEA members.
To become member a candidate country must demonstrate that it has:
- Crude oil and/or product reserves equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports, to which the government has immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) and could be used to address disruptions to global oil supply.
- A demand restraint programme to reduce national oil consumption by up to 10%.
- Legislation and organisation to operate the Co-ordinated Emergency Response Measures (CERM) on a national basis.
- Legislation and measures to ensure that all oil companies under its jurisdiction report information upon request.
- Measures in place to ensure the capability of contributing its share of an IEA collective action.
Reports:
- Global Energy & CO2 Status Report.
- World Energy Outlook.
- World Energy Statistics.
- World Energy Balances.
- Energy Technology Perspectives.
-
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsWho among the following Mughal ruler issued farman or permission to East India company to build a factory at Surat?
Correct
Solution: C
The East India Company arrived to India, at the port of Surat. JAHANGIR was Emperor of India that time. In 1615, Sir Thomas Roe gained right to establish a factory in Surat.
In 1717 Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar granted a Firman to the East India Company for duty free trading rights in Bengal.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The East India Company arrived to India, at the port of Surat. JAHANGIR was Emperor of India that time. In 1615, Sir Thomas Roe gained right to establish a factory in Surat.
In 1717 Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar granted a Firman to the East India Company for duty free trading rights in Bengal.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to GSLV
- GSLV Mk III is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO.
- GSLV Mk III is designed to carry 10-ton class of satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO)
- It is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote-sensing” satellites
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
GSLV MkIII, chosen to launch Chandrayaan-2 spacecraft, is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap-ons, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage.
GSLV Mk III is designed to carry 4-ton class of satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) or about 10 tons to Low Earth Orbit (LEO), which is about twice the capability of the GSLV Mk II.
PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote-sensing” satellites.
Incorrect
Solution: A
GSLV MkIII, chosen to launch Chandrayaan-2 spacecraft, is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap-ons, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage.
GSLV Mk III is designed to carry 4-ton class of satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) or about 10 tons to Low Earth Orbit (LEO), which is about twice the capability of the GSLV Mk II.
PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote-sensing” satellites.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following with respect to Ganga rejuvenation
- National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) was registered as a society in 2011 under the Societies Registration Act 1860.
- National Council for River Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection and Management) was created under the Chairperson of Prime Minister
- An Empowered Task Force has been setup under the chairmanship of Secretary of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Empowered Task Force chaired by Hon’ble Minister of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation has been setup to ensure that the Ministries, Departments and State Governments concerned have:
- an action plan with specific activities, milestones, and timeliness for achievement of the objective of rejuvenation and protection of River Ganga.
- a mechanism for monitoring implementation of its action plans.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Empowered Task Force chaired by Hon’ble Minister of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation has been setup to ensure that the Ministries, Departments and State Governments concerned have:
- an action plan with specific activities, milestones, and timeliness for achievement of the objective of rejuvenation and protection of River Ganga.
- a mechanism for monitoring implementation of its action plans.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Know India Programme
- It aims to engage and make the students and young professionals of India Diaspora in the age group of 18-30 years, feel a sense of connect with their motherland.
- It is organized by the Ministry of Culture
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Know India Programme (KIP) is an important initiative of the Government of India with an aim to engage and make the students and young professionals of India Diaspora in the age group of 18-30 years, feel a sense of connect with their motherland and to be motivated and inspired by the transformation taking place in India.
The KIP is a 25-day orientation programme organized by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) in partnership with one or two States including visit to States for 10 days.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Know India Programme (KIP) is an important initiative of the Government of India with an aim to engage and make the students and young professionals of India Diaspora in the age group of 18-30 years, feel a sense of connect with their motherland and to be motivated and inspired by the transformation taking place in India.
The KIP is a 25-day orientation programme organized by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) in partnership with one or two States including visit to States for 10 days.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to Sangam literature:
- Sangam was a college or assembly of Tamil poets held under the chiefly or royal patronage.
- The Sangam literature can be divided in to two groups narrative and didactic.
- The narrative texts are called Kilkarakku and didactic texts are called Melkannakku.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Sangam was a college or assembly of Tamil poets held under the chiefly or royal patronage.
The Sangam literature can be divided in to two groups narrative and didactic.
The narrative texts are called Melkannakku and didactic texts are called Kilkarakku.
Sangam texts are secular in nature. Sangam texts provide information on the political and economic life of people
Incorrect
Solution: A
Sangam was a college or assembly of Tamil poets held under the chiefly or royal patronage.
The Sangam literature can be divided in to two groups narrative and didactic.
The narrative texts are called Melkannakku and didactic texts are called Kilkarakku.
Sangam texts are secular in nature. Sangam texts provide information on the political and economic life of people
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following types of sanctions are imposed under the CAATSA act?
- Prohibition on loans to the sanctioned country
- Prohibition of Export-Import bank assistance for exports to sanctioned persons
- Prohibition on procurement by the US Government to procure goods or services from the sanctioned persons
- Denial of visas to persons closely associated with the sanctioned persons
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
CAATSA:
- Enacted in 2017, it is a US federal law that imposed sanctions on Iran, North Korea and Russia.
- Includes sanctions against countries that engage in significant transactions with Russia’s defence and intelligence sectors.
- The Act empowers the US President to impose at least five of the 12 listed sanctions on persons engaged in a “significant transaction” with Russian defence and intelligence sectors.
What sanctions will be imposed?
- prohibition on loans to the sanctioned person.
- prohibition of Export-Import bank assistance for exports to sanctioned persons.
- prohibition on procurement by United States Government to procure goods or services from the sanctioned person.
- denial of visas to persons closely associated with the sanctioned person.
Incorrect
Solution: D
CAATSA:
- Enacted in 2017, it is a US federal law that imposed sanctions on Iran, North Korea and Russia.
- Includes sanctions against countries that engage in significant transactions with Russia’s defence and intelligence sectors.
- The Act empowers the US President to impose at least five of the 12 listed sanctions on persons engaged in a “significant transaction” with Russian defence and intelligence sectors.
What sanctions will be imposed?
- prohibition on loans to the sanctioned person.
- prohibition of Export-Import bank assistance for exports to sanctioned persons.
- prohibition on procurement by United States Government to procure goods or services from the sanctioned person.
- denial of visas to persons closely associated with the sanctioned person.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsTuff, diorite and pegmatite are examples for:
Correct
Solution: A
The Igneous rocks form out of magma and lava from the interior of the earth, thus they are known as primary rocks. Granite, gabbro,diorite, pegmatite, basalt, volcanic breccia and tuff are some of the examples of igneous rocks.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Igneous rocks form out of magma and lava from the interior of the earth, thus they are known as primary rocks. Granite, gabbro,diorite, pegmatite, basalt, volcanic breccia and tuff are some of the examples of igneous rocks.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsThe Geyserite, Chalk and Chert are examples for
Correct
Solution: B
Sedimentary rocks are formed by the process of diagenesis and lithification. Geyserite and Chert are silicious rich sedimentary rocks found in and around geysers and oceans respectively and Chalk are limestone rich sedimentary rocks.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Sedimentary rocks are formed by the process of diagenesis and lithification. Geyserite and Chert are silicious rich sedimentary rocks found in and around geysers and oceans respectively and Chalk are limestone rich sedimentary rocks.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following with regards to Chola period
- In order to facilitate trade, the Indian merchants organized themselves into guilds knows as Nagrattars and Chettiar.
- The Indian guilds also provided charitable grants towards temple which led to prosperity in socio-cultural sphere.
- In organizing trade with south east Asia and China, they had to wait for monsoon winds to be favorable, which blew from west to east before monsoon.
- Kanfu was an important Chinese trading port.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Indian merchants were organised in guilds, the most famous of them being the Manigraman and the Nandesi. These guilds displayed a spirit of enterprise, in retail and whoselsale trade in many foreign countries- They also gave handsome grants to temples, which became centres of social and cultural life, and sometimes also advanced money to trade.
Both India and Southeast Asia were important staging centres for trade between China and the countries of West Asia and Africa. Indian traders — especially from the Tamil country and Kalinga (modern Orissa and Bengal) — played an active role in this trade, along with Persians, and at a later stage, the Arabs. Much of the trade to China was carried in Indian ships, the teakwood of Malabar, Bengal and Burma providing the basis of a strong tradition of ship building. The weather conditions were also such that it was not possible fora ship to sail straight from the Middle East to China. The ships would have to wait for a long period in ports in between for favourable winds which blew from the west to the east before the monsoon, and from east to west after the monsoon. Indian and Southeast Asian ports were preferred by the merchants for the purpose. The main seaport for foreign trade in China during this period was Canton, or Kanfu as the Arab travellers called it.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Indian merchants were organised in guilds, the most famous of them being the Manigraman and the Nandesi. These guilds displayed a spirit of enterprise, in retail and whoselsale trade in many foreign countries- They also gave handsome grants to temples, which became centres of social and cultural life, and sometimes also advanced money to trade.
Both India and Southeast Asia were important staging centres for trade between China and the countries of West Asia and Africa. Indian traders — especially from the Tamil country and Kalinga (modern Orissa and Bengal) — played an active role in this trade, along with Persians, and at a later stage, the Arabs. Much of the trade to China was carried in Indian ships, the teakwood of Malabar, Bengal and Burma providing the basis of a strong tradition of ship building. The weather conditions were also such that it was not possible fora ship to sail straight from the Middle East to China. The ships would have to wait for a long period in ports in between for favourable winds which blew from the west to the east before the monsoon, and from east to west after the monsoon. Indian and Southeast Asian ports were preferred by the merchants for the purpose. The main seaport for foreign trade in China during this period was Canton, or Kanfu as the Arab travellers called it.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following languages is not recognized as the classical language by the government?
Correct
Solution: D
Current Classical Languages in India:
- Tamil (in 2004
- Sanskrit (in 2005)
- Kannada (in 2008)
- Telugu (in 2008)
- Malayalam (in 2013)
- Odia (in 2014)
Criteria for Classical Languages in India:
- High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years
- A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of
speakers; - The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
- The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be adiscontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Benefits of Classical Language Status:
- Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in the concerned language.
- A ‘Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages’ can be set up.
- The University Grants Commission can be requested to create, to start with at least in Central Universities, a certain number of professional chairs for classical languages, for scholars of eminence in the concerned language.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Current Classical Languages in India:
- Tamil (in 2004
- Sanskrit (in 2005)
- Kannada (in 2008)
- Telugu (in 2008)
- Malayalam (in 2013)
- Odia (in 2014)
Criteria for Classical Languages in India:
- High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years
- A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of
speakers; - The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
- The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be adiscontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Benefits of Classical Language Status:
- Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in the concerned language.
- A ‘Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages’ can be set up.
- The University Grants Commission can be requested to create, to start with at least in Central Universities, a certain number of professional chairs for classical languages, for scholars of eminence in the concerned language.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following with reference to Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Waterbirds
- It is an intergovernmental treaty dedicated to the conservation of migratory waterbirds and their habitats
- It is developed under the framework of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)
- India is a contracting party to this treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Waterbirds (AEWA) is an intergovernmental treaty dedicated to the conservation of migratory waterbirds and their habitats across Africa, Europe, the Middle East, Central Asia, Greenland and the Canadian Archipelago.
Developed under the framework of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), AEWA brings together countries and the wider international conservation community in an effort to establish coordinated conservation and management of migratory waterbirds throughout their entire migratory range.
Parties to this treaty
India is not a party to this treaty.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Waterbirds (AEWA) is an intergovernmental treaty dedicated to the conservation of migratory waterbirds and their habitats across Africa, Europe, the Middle East, Central Asia, Greenland and the Canadian Archipelago.
Developed under the framework of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), AEWA brings together countries and the wider international conservation community in an effort to establish coordinated conservation and management of migratory waterbirds throughout their entire migratory range.
Parties to this treaty
India is not a party to this treaty.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- A mineral is a naturally occurring organic and inorganic substance, having an orderly atomic structure and a definite chemical composition and physical properties.
- A mineral is always composed of two or more elements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
A mineral is a naturally occurring organic and inorganic substance, having an orderly atomic structure and a definite chemical composition and physical properties. A mineral is composed of two or more elements. But, sometimes single element minerals like sulphur, copper, silver, gold, graphite etc. are found.
ROCKS:
The earth’s crust is composed of rocks. A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals. Rock may be hard or soft and in varied colours. For example, granite is hard, soapstone is soft. Gabbro is black and quartzite can be milky white. Rocks do not have definite composition of mineral constituents. Feldspar and quartz are the most common minerals found in rocks.
Incorrect
Solution: A
A mineral is a naturally occurring organic and inorganic substance, having an orderly atomic structure and a definite chemical composition and physical properties. A mineral is composed of two or more elements. But, sometimes single element minerals like sulphur, copper, silver, gold, graphite etc. are found.
ROCKS:
The earth’s crust is composed of rocks. A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals. Rock may be hard or soft and in varied colours. For example, granite is hard, soapstone is soft. Gabbro is black and quartzite can be milky white. Rocks do not have definite composition of mineral constituents. Feldspar and quartz are the most common minerals found in rocks.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsThe parameters used in Village Solid Liquid Waste Management Index are
- households having access to safe sanitation
- households having no litter around them
- households having no stagnant waste water around them
- level of litter free around public places
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Village Swachhtha Index
Cleanliness index captures the overall cleanliness of a village including village households which have access to and are using safe toilets and environmental friendliness.
SLWM index captures environmental friendliness as evidenced by absence of litter around houses and public places and no stagnant water around house holds. SLWM index is derived out of Cleanliness index as per the following:
Village Cleanliness Index (C) is defined as C = 0.4*X1 + 0.3*X2 + 0.1*X3 + 0.2*X4
In addition, Village SLWM Index is defined as S = 0.5*X2 + 0.17*X3 + 0.33*X4 where,
X1 = % of households having access to safe sanitation.
X2 = % of households having no litter around them
X3 = % of households having no stagnant waste water around them
X4 = % level of litter free around public places
Gram Sabhas are responsible to estimate the various factors defined above that comprises the cleanliness index.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Village Swachhtha Index
Cleanliness index captures the overall cleanliness of a village including village households which have access to and are using safe toilets and environmental friendliness.
SLWM index captures environmental friendliness as evidenced by absence of litter around houses and public places and no stagnant water around house holds. SLWM index is derived out of Cleanliness index as per the following:
Village Cleanliness Index (C) is defined as C = 0.4*X1 + 0.3*X2 + 0.1*X3 + 0.2*X4
In addition, Village SLWM Index is defined as S = 0.5*X2 + 0.17*X3 + 0.33*X4 where,
X1 = % of households having access to safe sanitation.
X2 = % of households having no litter around them
X3 = % of households having no stagnant waste water around them
X4 = % level of litter free around public places
Gram Sabhas are responsible to estimate the various factors defined above that comprises the cleanliness index.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsGlobal Subsidies Initiative is an initiative of
Correct
Solution: C
The International Institute for Sustainable Development (IISD) Global Subsidies Initiative (GSI) supports international processes, national governments and civil society organizations to align subsidies with sustainable development. GSI does this by promoting transparency on the nature and size of energy subsidies; evaluating the economic, social and environmental impacts of energy subsidies; and, where necessary, advising on how inefficient and wasteful subsidies can best be reformed.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The International Institute for Sustainable Development (IISD) Global Subsidies Initiative (GSI) supports international processes, national governments and civil society organizations to align subsidies with sustainable development. GSI does this by promoting transparency on the nature and size of energy subsidies; evaluating the economic, social and environmental impacts of energy subsidies; and, where necessary, advising on how inefficient and wasteful subsidies can best be reformed.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsA man travels a distance of 12 km at 3 km/hr, another distance of 12km at 4 km/hr and a third distance of 12km at 6 km/hr. His average speed for the whole journey is:
Correct
Solution: C
The Average speed= (Total Distance/Total Time taken)
Time taken to cover first 12 km= (Distance/Speed)= (12/3)= 4 hours
Time taken to cover second 12 km= 12/4= 3 hours
Time taken to cover last 12 km= 12/ 6= 2 hours
Hence, total time taken for whole journey= (4+3+2) hours= 9 hours
Therefore, the average speed of whole journey= (Total distance/total time)
⇒Average speed of man= (36/9)= 4 km/hr
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Average speed= (Total Distance/Total Time taken)
Time taken to cover first 12 km= (Distance/Speed)= (12/3)= 4 hours
Time taken to cover second 12 km= 12/4= 3 hours
Time taken to cover last 12 km= 12/ 6= 2 hours
Hence, total time taken for whole journey= (4+3+2) hours= 9 hours
Therefore, the average speed of whole journey= (Total distance/total time)
⇒Average speed of man= (36/9)= 4 km/hr
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA boat sails 6 km/hr in still water, however it takes thrice as much time in going the same at distance against the current when compared to the direction of the current. Find the speed of the current?
Correct
Solution: A
Given condition:
- Speed of the boat in still water = 6 km/hr.
- Speed of boat in downstream = 3 * speed of boat in upstream.
Let the speed of the current be ‘x’ km/hr.
Therefore, speed of the boat in upstream (i.e against the current) = (6-x) km/hr.
Speed of the boat in downstream (i.e in the direction of current) = (6+x) km/hr
Now, substituting values in given condition, we get
⇒(6+x) = 3 * (6-x)
⇒6+x = 18-3x
⇒4x=12
⇒x=3 km/hr
Thus, speed of the current = 3 km/hr.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Given condition:
- Speed of the boat in still water = 6 km/hr.
- Speed of boat in downstream = 3 * speed of boat in upstream.
Let the speed of the current be ‘x’ km/hr.
Therefore, speed of the boat in upstream (i.e against the current) = (6-x) km/hr.
Speed of the boat in downstream (i.e in the direction of current) = (6+x) km/hr
Now, substituting values in given condition, we get
⇒(6+x) = 3 * (6-x)
⇒6+x = 18-3x
⇒4x=12
⇒x=3 km/hr
Thus, speed of the current = 3 km/hr.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsA started a business with a capital of 10,000 rupees and four months later B joined him with a capital of Rs 5000. How much A gets more than B in the profit, if the total profit at the end of the year is Rs 2000.
Correct
Solution: B
The ratio of the profits will be according to their investment X duration
Ratio of profits of A to B = 10000*12/5000*8
ð Ratio = 3:1
Total profit = 2000
Hence, profit of A = 1500
Profit of B = 500Therefore, profit of A is Rs. 1000 more than profit of B.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The ratio of the profits will be according to their investment X duration
Ratio of profits of A to B = 10000*12/5000*8
ð Ratio = 3:1
Total profit = 2000
Hence, profit of A = 1500
Profit of B = 500Therefore, profit of A is Rs. 1000 more than profit of B.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsA zoo consists of only Tigers and Lions. The number of tigers in a zoo is three times the number of lions. Which one of the following numbers cannot represent the total number of animals in the zoo?
Correct
Solution: B
Let the number of lions = x
We know that the number of tigers in a zoo is three times the number of lions. Hence, the number of tigers = 3x.
Then, x + 3x = 4x = total number of animals.
Thus the total number of animals is a number that must be divisible by 4.
Here, 42 is the only number which is not divisible by 4.Incorrect
Solution: B
Let the number of lions = x
We know that the number of tigers in a zoo is three times the number of lions. Hence, the number of tigers = 3x.
Then, x + 3x = 4x = total number of animals.
Thus the total number of animals is a number that must be divisible by 4.
Here, 42 is the only number which is not divisible by 4. -
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsRead the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
The two criteria that an innovator must satisfy are whether the innovation or invention adds to existing technical knowledge and whether it is inventive enough. Patent filings are seen as a measure of the spread of science and technology in a country. Patent protection also provides monopoly rights to the inventor.
Which of the following is the most crucial and logical inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct
Solution: C.
It is clear based on a reading of the passage that C is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution: C.
It is clear based on a reading of the passage that C is the correct answer.










