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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to The National Tiger Conservation Authority consider the following statements:
1.The NTCA / Project Tiger also conducts the country level assessment of the status of tiger, co-predators, prey and habitat once in four years.
- It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
3. It is chaired by the Minister for Environment, Forest & Climate Change
4.Madhya Pradesh consist of the highest number of tigers as per All India Tiger Estimation – 2018.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
National Tiger Conservation Authority
The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change constituted under provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Environment Minister is the Chairman of the NTCA. Objectives of NTCA is to provide statutory authority to Project Tiger so that compliance of its directives become legal.
The NTCA / Project Tiger also conducts the country level assessment of the status of tiger, co-predators, prey and habitat once in four years, using the refined methodology, as approved by the Tiger Task Force.
As Per All India Tiger Estimation – 2018 Madhya Pradesh saw the highest number of tigers (526) followed by Karnataka (524) and Uttarakhand (442).
Incorrect
Solution: D
National Tiger Conservation Authority
The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change constituted under provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Environment Minister is the Chairman of the NTCA. Objectives of NTCA is to provide statutory authority to Project Tiger so that compliance of its directives become legal.
The NTCA / Project Tiger also conducts the country level assessment of the status of tiger, co-predators, prey and habitat once in four years, using the refined methodology, as approved by the Tiger Task Force.
As Per All India Tiger Estimation – 2018 Madhya Pradesh saw the highest number of tigers (526) followed by Karnataka (524) and Uttarakhand (442).
- It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the ‘Global Compact on Migration’, consider the following statements:
- It is the first, intergovernmentally negotiated agreement, prepared under the auspices of the United Nations, to cover all dimensions of international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner.
- It is a non-binding document that respects states’ sovereign right to determine who enters and stays in their territory and demonstrates commitment to international cooperation on migration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Justification
The Global Compact is the first inter-governmentally negotiated agreement, prepared under the auspices of the United Nations, covering all dimensions of international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner.
It is a non-binding document that respects states’ sovereign right to determine who enters and stays in their territory and demonstrates commitment to international cooperation on migration. It presents a significant opportunity to improve the governance of migration, to address the challenges associated with today’s migration, and to strengthen the contribution of migrants and migration to sustainable development.
The Global Compact is framed in a way consistent with target 10.7 of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development in which Member States committed to cooperate internationally to facilitate safe, orderly and regular migration. The Global Compact is designed to:
- support international cooperation on the governance of international migration;
- provide a comprehensive menu of options for States from which they can select policy options to address some of the most pressing issues around international migration; and
- give states the space and flexibility to pursue implementation based on their own migration realities and capacities.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Justification
The Global Compact is the first inter-governmentally negotiated agreement, prepared under the auspices of the United Nations, covering all dimensions of international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner.
It is a non-binding document that respects states’ sovereign right to determine who enters and stays in their territory and demonstrates commitment to international cooperation on migration. It presents a significant opportunity to improve the governance of migration, to address the challenges associated with today’s migration, and to strengthen the contribution of migrants and migration to sustainable development.
The Global Compact is framed in a way consistent with target 10.7 of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development in which Member States committed to cooperate internationally to facilitate safe, orderly and regular migration. The Global Compact is designed to:
- support international cooperation on the governance of international migration;
- provide a comprehensive menu of options for States from which they can select policy options to address some of the most pressing issues around international migration; and
- give states the space and flexibility to pursue implementation based on their own migration realities and capacities.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Globba andersonii ‘consider the following statements:
- It is listed as vulnerable plant species as per IUCN Red list and is commonly called dancing ladies or swan flowers.
- The species is restricted mainly to Eastern Ghats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Globba andersonii:
- It is a rare and critically endangered plant species.It is commonly as ‘dancing ladies’ or ‘swan flowers’. They are characterised by white flowers, non-appendaged anthers (the part of a stamen that contains the pollen) and a “yellowish lip”.
- The species is restricted mainly to the Teesta River Valley region which includes the Sikkim Himalayas and Darjeeling hill ranges.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Globba andersonii:
- It is a rare and critically endangered plant species.It is commonly as ‘dancing ladies’ or ‘swan flowers’. They are characterised by white flowers, non-appendaged anthers (the part of a stamen that contains the pollen) and a “yellowish lip”.
- The species is restricted mainly to the Teesta River Valley region which includes the Sikkim Himalayas and Darjeeling hill ranges.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Electronic Fund Transfer
- National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is an electronic funds transfer system maintained by the National payments corporation of India
- The setup was established and maintained by Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in November 2005.
- It enables bank customers in India to transfer funds between any two NEFT-enabled bank accounts on a one-to-one basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
About NEFT
National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is an electronic funds transfer system maintained by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
The setup was established and maintained by Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in November 2005.
It enables bank customers in India to transfer funds between any two NEFT-enabled bank accounts on a one-to-one basis.
It is done via electronic messages.
Unlike Real-time gross settlement (RTGS), fund transfers through the NEFT system do not occur in real-time basis.
Incorrect
Solution: C
About NEFT
National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is an electronic funds transfer system maintained by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
The setup was established and maintained by Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in November 2005.
It enables bank customers in India to transfer funds between any two NEFT-enabled bank accounts on a one-to-one basis.
It is done via electronic messages.
Unlike Real-time gross settlement (RTGS), fund transfers through the NEFT system do not occur in real-time basis.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Eight Core Industries comprise around 60 per cent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
- Electricity has highest weightage in Index of Eight Core Industries
- Index of Eight Core Industries is released by Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Eight Core Industries comprise around 40 per cent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP
Petroleum Refinery production (weight: 28.04%): It includes total refinery production (in terms of crude throughput).
Index of Eight Core Industries is released by Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Eight Core Industries comprise around 40 per cent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP
Petroleum Refinery production (weight: 28.04%): It includes total refinery production (in terms of crude throughput).
Index of Eight Core Industries is released by Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding about Pin Valley National Park
- Pin Valley National Park is located within the Lahaul and Spiti district of Uttarakhand.
- The Park forms a natural habitat for endangered species like Nilgiri tahr
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Pin Valley National Park is located within the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh. The Park forms a natural habitat for a number of endangered animals such as snow leopard and Siberian ibex with its snow laden unexplored higher reaches and slopes.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Pin Valley National Park is located within the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh. The Park forms a natural habitat for a number of endangered animals such as snow leopard and Siberian ibex with its snow laden unexplored higher reaches and slopes.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Convention on Assistance in the Case of a Nuclear Accident or Radiological Emergency (Assistance Convention)
- It is a treaty adopted by UNGA in direct response to the April 1986 Chernobyl disaster.
- India is yet to ratify the Assistance Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Convention on Assistance in the Case of a Nuclear Accident or Radiological Emergency is a 1986 treaty of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) whereby states have agreed to provide notification to the IAEA of any assistance that they can provide in the case of a nuclear accident that occurs in another state that has ratified the treaty. Along with the Convention on Early Notification of a Nuclear Accident, it was adopted in direct response to the April 1986 Chernobyl disaster.
India had ratified the convention in 1988.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Convention on Assistance in the Case of a Nuclear Accident or Radiological Emergency is a 1986 treaty of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) whereby states have agreed to provide notification to the IAEA of any assistance that they can provide in the case of a nuclear accident that occurs in another state that has ratified the treaty. Along with the Convention on Early Notification of a Nuclear Accident, it was adopted in direct response to the April 1986 Chernobyl disaster.
India had ratified the convention in 1988.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Surendranath Banerjee founded ‘Gyan Prasarak Mandali’ (Society for Promotion of Knowledge).
- Dadabhai Naoroji founded the Indian Association in 1876.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Dadabhai was a member of the Legislative Council of Bombay.
- In 1886, Naoroji was elected as President of the Indian National Congress.
- In England Dadabhai coined the Liberal Party and in 1892 he was elected to the Parliament.
- He was the first Indian to be elected in the British Parliament.
Dadabhai felt that the British misrule in India was mainly because of the illiteracy of the people. Thus, as a solution to this problem he started educating the masses regarding their rights and privileges. Dadabhai began free literacy classes for girls in Marathi and Gujarati. He set up the Gyan Prasarak Mandali (Society for Promotion of Knowledge) for adult education.
The Indian National Association also known as Indian Association was the first avowed nationalist organization founded in British India by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose in 1876.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Dadabhai was a member of the Legislative Council of Bombay.
- In 1886, Naoroji was elected as President of the Indian National Congress.
- In England Dadabhai coined the Liberal Party and in 1892 he was elected to the Parliament.
- He was the first Indian to be elected in the British Parliament.
Dadabhai felt that the British misrule in India was mainly because of the illiteracy of the people. Thus, as a solution to this problem he started educating the masses regarding their rights and privileges. Dadabhai began free literacy classes for girls in Marathi and Gujarati. He set up the Gyan Prasarak Mandali (Society for Promotion of Knowledge) for adult education.
The Indian National Association also known as Indian Association was the first avowed nationalist organization founded in British India by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose in 1876.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about delimitation of constituencies
- Delimitation Commission is appointed by the Parliament and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
- It identifies reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in both the houses of parliament wherever their population is relatively large.
- The orders of delimitation commission can be challenged in supreme court only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Delimitation of Constituencies:
- Delimitation is carried out by an independent Delimitation Commission.
- The Constitution mandates that its orders are final and cannot be questioned before any courtas it would hold up an election indefinitely.
- Under Article 82, the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every Census.
- Once the Act is in force, the Union government sets up a Delimitation Commission.
- Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
- Composition: The commission is made up of a retired Supreme Court judge, the Chief Election Commissioner and the respective State Election Commissioners.
- There is no reservation in rajya sabha
- Functions: The Commission is supposed to determine the number and boundaries of constituencies in a way that the population of all seats, so far as practicable, is the same. The Commission is also tasked with identifying seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes; these are where their population is relatively large.
- All this is done on the basis of the latest Census and, in case of difference of opinion among members of the Commission, the opinion of the majority prevails.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Delimitation of Constituencies:
- Delimitation is carried out by an independent Delimitation Commission.
- The Constitution mandates that its orders are final and cannot be questioned before any courtas it would hold up an election indefinitely.
- Under Article 82, the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every Census.
- Once the Act is in force, the Union government sets up a Delimitation Commission.
- Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
- Composition: The commission is made up of a retired Supreme Court judge, the Chief Election Commissioner and the respective State Election Commissioners.
- There is no reservation in rajya sabha
- Functions: The Commission is supposed to determine the number and boundaries of constituencies in a way that the population of all seats, so far as practicable, is the same. The Commission is also tasked with identifying seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes; these are where their population is relatively large.
- All this is done on the basis of the latest Census and, in case of difference of opinion among members of the Commission, the opinion of the majority prevails.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the biotic interactions, consider the following pairs:
- Mutualism: A multi flagellate protozoan Trichonympha campanula living in the intestine of white ant.
- Commensalism: Epiphytes found growing on other plants/trees
- Amensalism: Antibiotic juglone which is secreted by Black Walnut trees
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: D
Mutualism: Termites (white ants) are not capable of digesting wood, which they ingest as food. A multi flagellate protozoan Trichonympha campanula, which lives in the intestine of white ant secretes ‘cellulase’ enzyme to digest the cellulose of wood. In return, the ant provides food and shelter to the protozoan.
Commensalism: Epiphytes are small green plants found growing on other plants for space only. They absorb water and minerals from the atmosphere by their hygroscopic roots and prepare their own food. The plants are not harmed in any way.
Amensalism: A good example is the antibiotic juglone which is secreted by Black Walnut (Juglans nigra) trees. This substance is known to inhibit the growth of trees, shrubs, grasses, and herbs found growing near Black Walnut trees.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Mutualism: Termites (white ants) are not capable of digesting wood, which they ingest as food. A multi flagellate protozoan Trichonympha campanula, which lives in the intestine of white ant secretes ‘cellulase’ enzyme to digest the cellulose of wood. In return, the ant provides food and shelter to the protozoan.
Commensalism: Epiphytes are small green plants found growing on other plants for space only. They absorb water and minerals from the atmosphere by their hygroscopic roots and prepare their own food. The plants are not harmed in any way.
Amensalism: A good example is the antibiotic juglone which is secreted by Black Walnut (Juglans nigra) trees. This substance is known to inhibit the growth of trees, shrubs, grasses, and herbs found growing near Black Walnut trees.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT), consider the following statements:
- The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908 and is guided by the principles of natural justice.
- The appeals against the orders of the CAT could be made only in
the Supreme Court and not in the high courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The original Constitution did not contain provisions with respect to tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This part is entitled as ‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles—Article 323 A dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323 B dealing with tribunals for other matters.
The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure
Code of 1908. It is guided by the principles of natural justice. These
principles keep the CAT flexible in approach.Originally, appeals against the orders of the CAT could be made only in the Supreme Court and not in the high courts. However, in the Chandra Kumar case (1997), the Supreme Court declared this restriction on the jurisdiction of the high courts as unconstitutional, holding that judicial review is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. It laid down that appeals against the orders of the CAT shall lie before the division bench of the concerned high court. Consequently, now it is not possible for an aggrieved public servant to approach the Supreme Court directly against an order of the CAT, without first going to the concerned high court.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The original Constitution did not contain provisions with respect to tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This part is entitled as ‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles—Article 323 A dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323 B dealing with tribunals for other matters.
The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure
Code of 1908. It is guided by the principles of natural justice. These
principles keep the CAT flexible in approach.Originally, appeals against the orders of the CAT could be made only in the Supreme Court and not in the high courts. However, in the Chandra Kumar case (1997), the Supreme Court declared this restriction on the jurisdiction of the high courts as unconstitutional, holding that judicial review is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. It laid down that appeals against the orders of the CAT shall lie before the division bench of the concerned high court. Consequently, now it is not possible for an aggrieved public servant to approach the Supreme Court directly against an order of the CAT, without first going to the concerned high court.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
- Its establishment was first recommended by the First ARC.
- They are appointed by president on the recommendation of three-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the union minister of home affairs and the speaker of Lok Sabha.
- CVC submits an annual report to the President.
- It is an investigating agency which works with CBI or chief vigilance officers (CVO) in Government offices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Central Vigilance Commission He Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).
The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners. They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the union minister of home affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its performance. The President places this report before each House of Parliament.
It is not an investigating agency. The CVC either gets the investigation done through the CBI or through chief vigilance officers (CVO) in government offices
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Central Vigilance Commission He Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).
The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners. They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the union minister of home affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its performance. The President places this report before each House of Parliament.
It is not an investigating agency. The CVC either gets the investigation done through the CBI or through chief vigilance officers (CVO) in government offices
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following provisions of 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) or the Part IX of the Constitution is/are the compulsory provisions/features?
- Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
- 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
- Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at any level.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: A
Compulsory Provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) or the Part IX of the Constitution:
- Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
- Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district
levels. - Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and
district levels. - Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the
intermediate and district levels. - 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
- Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in
panchayats at all the three levels. - Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for
women in panchayats at all the three levels. - Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh
elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat. - Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to
the panchayats. - Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats.
Voluntary Provisions: - Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses)
and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different
levels falling within their constituencies. - Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for
backward classes in panchayats at any level. - Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to
function as institutions of self-government (in brief, making them
autonomous bodies). - Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats to prepare
plans for economic development and social justice; and to perform some
or all of the 29 functions listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the
Constitution.
5. Granting financial powers to the pachayats, that is, authorizing them to
levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees
Incorrect
Solution: A
Compulsory Provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) or the Part IX of the Constitution:
- Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
- Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district
levels. - Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and
district levels. - Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the
intermediate and district levels. - 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
- Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in
panchayats at all the three levels. - Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for
women in panchayats at all the three levels. - Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh
elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat. - Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to
the panchayats. - Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats.
Voluntary Provisions: - Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses)
and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different
levels falling within their constituencies. - Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for
backward classes in panchayats at any level. - Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to
function as institutions of self-government (in brief, making them
autonomous bodies). - Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats to prepare
plans for economic development and social justice; and to perform some
or all of the 29 functions listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the
Constitution.
5. Granting financial powers to the pachayats, that is, authorizing them to
levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following with respect to Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)
- It is a zoonotic viral respiratory disease caused by a novel coronavirus.
- It was first identified in Saudi Arabia in 2012
- The outbreak of this disease has been restricted to Middle east.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) is a viral respiratory disease caused by a novel coronavirus (Middle East respiratory syndrome coronavirus, or MERS‐CoV) that was first identified in Saudi Arabia in 2012.
Health care associated outbreaks have occurred in several countries, with the largest outbreaks seen in Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, and the Republic of Korea.
MERS-CoV is a zoonotic virus, which means it is a virus that is transmitted between animals and people. Studies have shown that humans are infected through direct or indirect contact with infected dromedary camels.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) is a viral respiratory disease caused by a novel coronavirus (Middle East respiratory syndrome coronavirus, or MERS‐CoV) that was first identified in Saudi Arabia in 2012.
Health care associated outbreaks have occurred in several countries, with the largest outbreaks seen in Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, and the Republic of Korea.
MERS-CoV is a zoonotic virus, which means it is a virus that is transmitted between animals and people. Studies have shown that humans are infected through direct or indirect contact with infected dromedary camels.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ancient Indian works of literature, consider the following statements
- Gargi, a woman Upanishadic thinker, participated in debates held in royal courts.
- Patanjali’s Mahabhashya predates Panini’s Ashtadhyayi.
- The author of Indika was the ambassador of Indo-Greek king Antialkidas to the court of the Mauryas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Gargi, a woman Upanishadic thinker, participated in debates held in royal courts.
- Panini’s Ashtadhyayi (5th/4th century BCE) predates Patanjali’s Mahabhashya (2nd century BCE).
- The author of Indika (Megasthenes) was the ambassador of Seleucus Nikator (a Greek king) to the court of the Mauryas.
- The Besnagar pillar (Heliodorus pillar) bears an inscription of the ambassador (Heliodorus) of Indo-Greek king Antialkidas.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Gargi, a woman Upanishadic thinker, participated in debates held in royal courts.
- Panini’s Ashtadhyayi (5th/4th century BCE) predates Patanjali’s Mahabhashya (2nd century BCE).
- The author of Indika (Megasthenes) was the ambassador of Seleucus Nikator (a Greek king) to the court of the Mauryas.
- The Besnagar pillar (Heliodorus pillar) bears an inscription of the ambassador (Heliodorus) of Indo-Greek king Antialkidas.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
Correct
Solution: B
Justification:
The writ of mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.
The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasijudicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
Previously, the writ of certiorari could be issued only against judicial and
quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities. However, in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be issued even against administrative authorities affecting rights of individuals. Like prohibition, certiorari is also not available against legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies.Incorrect
Solution: B
Justification:
The writ of mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.
The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasijudicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
Previously, the writ of certiorari could be issued only against judicial and
quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities. However, in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be issued even against administrative authorities affecting rights of individuals. Like prohibition, certiorari is also not available against legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies. -
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Inner Line Permit
- It is issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs
- Currently, the Inner Line Permit is operational in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Manipur only.
- It is valid only for domestic tourists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Inner Line Permit (ILP):
- It is a document required by non- natives to visit or stay in a state that is protected under the ILP system.
- At present, four Northeastern states are covered, namely, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Nagaland. (The inclusion of Manipur in Inner Line Permit was announced on 10 December 2019)
- Both the duration of stay and the areas allowed to be accessed are determined by the ILP.
- The ILP is issued by the concerned state government and can be availed both by applying online and in person.
What about foreigners?
An ILP is only valid for domestic tourists. For foreign tourists in:
- Manipur: No permit is required. But, have to register themselves.
- Mizoram: No permit is required. But, need to register.
- Nagaland: No permit is required. However, they need to register.
- Arunachal Pradesh: Tourists need a Protected Area Permit (PAP) from the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Inner Line Permit (ILP):
- It is a document required by non- natives to visit or stay in a state that is protected under the ILP system.
- At present, four Northeastern states are covered, namely, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Nagaland. (The inclusion of Manipur in Inner Line Permit was announced on 10 December 2019)
- Both the duration of stay and the areas allowed to be accessed are determined by the ILP.
- The ILP is issued by the concerned state government and can be availed both by applying online and in person.
What about foreigners?
An ILP is only valid for domestic tourists. For foreign tourists in:
- Manipur: No permit is required. But, have to register themselves.
- Mizoram: No permit is required. But, need to register.
- Nagaland: No permit is required. However, they need to register.
- Arunachal Pradesh: Tourists need a Protected Area Permit (PAP) from the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following three kingdoms (tripartite) were involved in struggle for Kannauj?
Correct
Solution: D
The Tripartite Struggle for control of northern India took place in the ninth century. The struggle was between the Pratihara Empire, the Pala Empire and the Rashtrakuta Empire. Towards the end of the successor of Nagabhata II of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty, successfully attacked Kanauj and established control there
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Tripartite Struggle for control of northern India took place in the ninth century. The struggle was between the Pratihara Empire, the Pala Empire and the Rashtrakuta Empire. Towards the end of the successor of Nagabhata II of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty, successfully attacked Kanauj and established control there
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Minimum Support Price (MSP)
- MSP is a form of market intervention by the Government to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.
- It is announced by the Government on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
- The mandated crops include food crops grown in both kharif season and rabi season but does not include commercial crops.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
Government announces minimum support prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane (Total 23 cros). The mandated crops are 14 crops of the kharif season, 6 rabi crops and two other commercial crops.
About the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP):
The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India. It came into existence in January 1965. Currently, the Commission comprises a Chairman, Member Secretary, one Member (Official) and two Members (Non-Official). The non-official members are representatives of the farming community and usually have an active association with the farming community.
As of now, CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities, which comprise 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi), 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil), 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, seasmum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed), and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).
CACP submits its recommendations to the government in the form of Price Policy Reports every year, separately for five groups of commodities namely Kharif crops, Rabi crops, Sugarcane, Raw Jute and Copra.
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) of the Union government takes a final decision on the level of MSPs and other recommendations made by CACP.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
Government announces minimum support prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane (Total 23 cros). The mandated crops are 14 crops of the kharif season, 6 rabi crops and two other commercial crops.
About the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP):
The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India. It came into existence in January 1965. Currently, the Commission comprises a Chairman, Member Secretary, one Member (Official) and two Members (Non-Official). The non-official members are representatives of the farming community and usually have an active association with the farming community.
As of now, CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities, which comprise 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi), 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil), 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, seasmum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed), and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).
CACP submits its recommendations to the government in the form of Price Policy Reports every year, separately for five groups of commodities namely Kharif crops, Rabi crops, Sugarcane, Raw Jute and Copra.
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) of the Union government takes a final decision on the level of MSPs and other recommendations made by CACP.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsconsider the following statements.
- ISRO is a signatory of the International Charter for ‘Space and Major Disasters’, which aims at providing a unified system of space data acquisition and delivery to users affected by disasters.
- Under the framework of Asia-Pacific Regional Space Agency Forum (APRSAF) initiative ‘Sentinel Asia’, ISRO supports the disaster management activities in Asia-Pacific region.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: C
ISRO is a signatory of the International Charter for ‘Space and Major Disasters’, which aims at providing a unified system of space data acquisition and delivery to users affected by disasters. Towards this, ISRO supports the charter and Sentinel Asia by planning satellite data acquisition from various Indian Remote Sensing Satellites and providing the same within a stipulated time period. In 2017, ISRO supported 29 disasters across 22 counties by providing around 140 sets of IRS (Indian remote sensing) data.
The Asia-Pacific Regional Space Agency Forum (APRSAF) was established in 1993 to enhance space activities in the Asia-Pacific region.
Under the framework of APRSAF initiative Sentinel Asia, ISRO supports the disaster management activities in Asia-Pacific region. In addition to the Charter and Sentinel Asia, ISRO also supports the Disaster Management activities of UNESCAP under regional co-operation.
Space agencies, governmental bodies, international organizations, private companies, universities, and research institutes from over 40 countries and regions take part in APRSAF, the largest space-related conference in the Asia-Pacific region.
APRSAF currently organizes four working groups—Space Applications, Space Technology, Space Environment Utilization, and Space Education—to share information about the activities and future plans of each country and region in these respective areas. APRSAF also supports the establishment of international projects as solutions for common issues, such as disaster management and environmental protection, so that participating parties will benefit from mutual cooperation.
Incorrect
Solution: C
ISRO is a signatory of the International Charter for ‘Space and Major Disasters’, which aims at providing a unified system of space data acquisition and delivery to users affected by disasters. Towards this, ISRO supports the charter and Sentinel Asia by planning satellite data acquisition from various Indian Remote Sensing Satellites and providing the same within a stipulated time period. In 2017, ISRO supported 29 disasters across 22 counties by providing around 140 sets of IRS (Indian remote sensing) data.
The Asia-Pacific Regional Space Agency Forum (APRSAF) was established in 1993 to enhance space activities in the Asia-Pacific region.
Under the framework of APRSAF initiative Sentinel Asia, ISRO supports the disaster management activities in Asia-Pacific region. In addition to the Charter and Sentinel Asia, ISRO also supports the Disaster Management activities of UNESCAP under regional co-operation.
Space agencies, governmental bodies, international organizations, private companies, universities, and research institutes from over 40 countries and regions take part in APRSAF, the largest space-related conference in the Asia-Pacific region.
APRSAF currently organizes four working groups—Space Applications, Space Technology, Space Environment Utilization, and Space Education—to share information about the activities and future plans of each country and region in these respective areas. APRSAF also supports the establishment of international projects as solutions for common issues, such as disaster management and environmental protection, so that participating parties will benefit from mutual cooperation.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following best defines Mezzanine Financing
Correct
Solution: A
Mezzanine financing is defined as a financial instrument which is a mix of debt and equity finance. It is a debt capital that gives the lender the rights to convert to an ownership or equity interest in the company. Mezzanine finance is listed as an asset on company’s balance sheet.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Mezzanine financing is defined as a financial instrument which is a mix of debt and equity finance. It is a debt capital that gives the lender the rights to convert to an ownership or equity interest in the company. Mezzanine finance is listed as an asset on company’s balance sheet.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsKoh-I-Noor diamond was taken away from India to Persia during the rule of which Mughal ruler?
Correct
Solution: B
The Persian general Nadir Shah went to India in 1739. He wanted to conquer the throne, which had been weakened during the reign of Sultan Mahamad. The Sultan lost the decisive battle and had to surrender to Nadir. It was Nadir Shah who gave the diamond its current name, Koh-i-noor meaning “Mountain of light”
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Persian general Nadir Shah went to India in 1739. He wanted to conquer the throne, which had been weakened during the reign of Sultan Mahamad. The Sultan lost the decisive battle and had to surrender to Nadir. It was Nadir Shah who gave the diamond its current name, Koh-i-noor meaning “Mountain of light”
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsThe term Stagflation is often seen in news, the conditions associated with Stagflation are
- Low economic growth
- High unemployment
- Inflation
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Stagflation is a condition of slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment, or economic stagnation, accompanied by rising prices, or inflation. It can also be defined as inflation and a decline in gross domestic product (GDP).
Incorrect
Solution: D
Stagflation is a condition of slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment, or economic stagnation, accompanied by rising prices, or inflation. It can also be defined as inflation and a decline in gross domestic product (GDP).
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following with respect to Rahn Curve
Correct
Solution: C
The Rahn curve is a graph used to illustrate an economic theory, proposed in 1996 by American economist Richard W. Rahn, which indicates that there is a level of government spending that maximizes economic growth. The theory is used by classical liberals to argue for a decrease in overall government spending and taxation. The inverted-U-shaped curve suggests that the optimal level of government spending is 15–25% of GDP.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Rahn curve is a graph used to illustrate an economic theory, proposed in 1996 by American economist Richard W. Rahn, which indicates that there is a level of government spending that maximizes economic growth. The theory is used by classical liberals to argue for a decrease in overall government spending and taxation. The inverted-U-shaped curve suggests that the optimal level of government spending is 15–25% of GDP.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is legal tender in India?
- Paper currency
- Coins
- Cheques
- Bank drafts
- Bills of exchange
- Postal orders
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: A
‘Legal tender’ is the money that is recognised by the law of the land, as valid for payment of debt. It must be accepted for discharge of debt. The RBI Act of 1934, which gives the central bank the sole right to issue bank notes, states that “Every bank note shall be legal tender at any place in India in payment for the amount expressed therein”.
Legal tender can be limited or unlimited in character. In India, coins function as limited legal tender. Therefore, 50 paise coins can be offered as legal tender for dues up to ₹10 and smaller coins for dues up to ₹1. Currency notes are unlimited legal tender and can be offered as payment for dues of any size.
Incorrect
Solution: A
‘Legal tender’ is the money that is recognised by the law of the land, as valid for payment of debt. It must be accepted for discharge of debt. The RBI Act of 1934, which gives the central bank the sole right to issue bank notes, states that “Every bank note shall be legal tender at any place in India in payment for the amount expressed therein”.
Legal tender can be limited or unlimited in character. In India, coins function as limited legal tender. Therefore, 50 paise coins can be offered as legal tender for dues up to ₹10 and smaller coins for dues up to ₹1. Currency notes are unlimited legal tender and can be offered as payment for dues of any size.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointskids can finish a bit of work in 360 days. 18 men can finish the same work of piece in 72 days and 12 ladies can finish it in 162 days. In how long can 4 men, 12 ladies and 10 kids together finish the bit of work?
Correct
Solution: B
9 kids’ 1 day work = 1/360 ⇒1 kid’s 1 day work = 1/3240
18 men’s 1 day work = 1/72 ⇒1 man’s 1 day work = 1/1296
12 women’s 1 day work = 1/162 ⇒1 women’s 1 day work = 1/1944
(4men +12 women +10 kid) 1 day work = (4/1296+ 12/1944+10/3240)
= (1/324+1/162+1/324) = 4/324 = 1/81
Hence they can finish the work in 81 days.
Incorrect
Solution: B
9 kids’ 1 day work = 1/360 ⇒1 kid’s 1 day work = 1/3240
18 men’s 1 day work = 1/72 ⇒1 man’s 1 day work = 1/1296
12 women’s 1 day work = 1/162 ⇒1 women’s 1 day work = 1/1944
(4men +12 women +10 kid) 1 day work = (4/1296+ 12/1944+10/3240)
= (1/324+1/162+1/324) = 4/324 = 1/81
Hence they can finish the work in 81 days.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 points4 men and 6 women complete a piece of work in 8 days while 3 men and 7 women complete it in 10 days. In how many days 10 women can finish the work?
Correct
Solution: D
Let 1 man’s 1 day work be x and 1 woman’s 1 day work be y. then
4x+6 y= 1/8 … (1)
3x+7y = 1/10 …(2)
Multiplying (1) by 3, (2) by 4 and subtracting, we get
10 y = (4/10- 3/8) = (16-15)/40 = 1/40 ⇒y = 1/400
1 woman’s 1 day work = 1/400
10 women’s 1 day work = (1/400*10) = 1/40
Hence 10 women can finish the work in 40 days
Incorrect
Solution: D
Let 1 man’s 1 day work be x and 1 woman’s 1 day work be y. then
4x+6 y= 1/8 … (1)
3x+7y = 1/10 …(2)
Multiplying (1) by 3, (2) by 4 and subtracting, we get
10 y = (4/10- 3/8) = (16-15)/40 = 1/40 ⇒y = 1/400
1 woman’s 1 day work = 1/400
10 women’s 1 day work = (1/400*10) = 1/40
Hence 10 women can finish the work in 40 days
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsA works twice as fast as B. If two can together complete a bit of work in 12 days, then B alone can do it in:
Correct
Solution: C
Let B’s 1 day work =x. Then , A’s 1 day’s work=2x
X+2x=1/12⇒3x=1/12⇒x=1/36.
B’s 1 day work=1/36.
Hence B alone can finish the work in 36 days.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Let B’s 1 day work =x. Then , A’s 1 day’s work=2x
X+2x=1/12⇒3x=1/12⇒x=1/36.
B’s 1 day work=1/36.
Hence B alone can finish the work in 36 days.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsIn one minute 3/7 of a tank is filled. How much time will it take to fill the remaining part of the tank?
Correct
Solution: B
Part filled in 1 min. = 3/7.
Remaining part = (1- 3/7)= 4/7
Let the required time be x min.
Therefore, 3/7: 4/7:: 1: x ⇒ 3x/7 = (4/7*1) ⇒ x= 4/3 min.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Part filled in 1 min. = 3/7.
Remaining part = (1- 3/7)= 4/7
Let the required time be x min.
Therefore, 3/7: 4/7:: 1: x ⇒ 3x/7 = (4/7*1) ⇒ x= 4/3 min.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsDirections for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
The Paris Agreement adopted last year marks the beginning of a new age in climate change response. The global climate pact will have a major impact on public health policy as countries take measures on adaptation and mitigation. Strengthening adaptation is a must in the face of climate change. This includes plans to protect the human health from air pollution, heat waves, floods, droughts and the degradation of water resources.
Which of the following option(s) is/are valid statement(s) that support the emphasis on adaptation as suggested in the passage?
- At present, more than 7 million deaths occur worldwide every year due to air pollution.
- In 2017, the world had 124 acutely hungry people
- Epidemics such as cholera, dengue and extreme weather events such as heat waves and floods have increased
Correct
Solution: D.
All the three are issues that can be addressed or mitigated by increasing focus on adaptation. Hence all three are correct. Thus D is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution: D.
All the three are issues that can be addressed or mitigated by increasing focus on adaptation. Hence all three are correct. Thus D is the correct answer.