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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following events was portrayed by the Anandamath written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee?
Correct
Solution: C
The Sannyasi rebellion or Sannyasi Revolt (1770-1820) were the activities of sannyasis and fakirs in Bengal against the East India Company rule in the late 18th century.
The reminder of the Rebellion is in literature, in the Bengali novel Anandamath, written by India’s first modern novelist Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Sannyasi rebellion or Sannyasi Revolt (1770-1820) were the activities of sannyasis and fakirs in Bengal against the East India Company rule in the late 18th century.
The reminder of the Rebellion is in literature, in the Bengali novel Anandamath, written by India’s first modern novelist Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Board of Wildlife
- It is a statutory board constituted in 2003 under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
- NBWL is chaired by the Prime Minister
- No alteration of the boundaries of a National Park is allowed except on a recommendation of the National Board of Wildlife.
- No alteration or de-notification of Tiger Reserves is allowed without the approval of the National Board for Wildlife.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
National Board for Wildlife (NBWL):
- National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory Board constituted in 2003 under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
- It is the apex body tasked with according permissions for forest land diversions for industrial development. The NBWL is a multi member body, chaired by the Prime Minister.
- No alteration of the boundaries of a National Park except on a recommendation of the National Board.
- No alteration or de-notification of Tiger Reserves without the approval of the National Board for Wildlife.
Incorrect
Solution: D
National Board for Wildlife (NBWL):
- National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory Board constituted in 2003 under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
- It is the apex body tasked with according permissions for forest land diversions for industrial development. The NBWL is a multi member body, chaired by the Prime Minister.
- No alteration of the boundaries of a National Park except on a recommendation of the National Board.
- No alteration or de-notification of Tiger Reserves without the approval of the National Board for Wildlife.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Sufi movement consider the following statements:
- Garib Nawaz was the contemporary of Prithivraj Chauhan.
- Baba Farid, Qutubuddin Bhaktiyar, Salim Chisti, Gesu Daraz are all saints of the Chisti Order.
- Nasir-ud-in Chirag Dehalvi is a prominent saint of Suharwardi order.
- In sufi movement, the sufis led an austere life and did not accept any offices in royal courts.
- Ba-shara were those sufi saints those followed the Sharia law in practice.
Which of the above statement/s is /are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Moinuddin Chishti (1143–1236 CE), known more commonly or Khwājā Ghareeb Nawaz, was the first saint of chisti sufi order in South Asia. He was the contemporary of Prithivraj Chauhan (1166–1192 CE).
Baba Farid, Qutubuddin Bhaktiyar Kaki, Salim Chisti, Khwaja Banda Nawaz or Gesu Daraz, Nasir-ud-in Chirag Dehalvi are all saints of the Chisti Order.
Though most of the sufi orders led a pious and austere life, the Suhrwardi order accepted offices in royal courts.
The Sufi orders are broadly divided into two: Ba-shara – Those who followed the Islamic Sharia Law and Be-shara – Those who were not bound by the Islamic Sharia law.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Moinuddin Chishti (1143–1236 CE), known more commonly or Khwājā Ghareeb Nawaz, was the first saint of chisti sufi order in South Asia. He was the contemporary of Prithivraj Chauhan (1166–1192 CE).
Baba Farid, Qutubuddin Bhaktiyar Kaki, Salim Chisti, Khwaja Banda Nawaz or Gesu Daraz, Nasir-ud-in Chirag Dehalvi are all saints of the Chisti Order.
Though most of the sufi orders led a pious and austere life, the Suhrwardi order accepted offices in royal courts.
The Sufi orders are broadly divided into two: Ba-shara – Those who followed the Islamic Sharia Law and Be-shara – Those who were not bound by the Islamic Sharia law.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
- It is an autonomous body
- It aims to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the Government of India under the MoEFCC. It’s not an autonomous body
Under Section 38 (Z) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, it is mandated:
- To collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities.
- To disseminate the same to State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action so as to apprehend the criminals.
- To establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank.
- Co-ordinate actions by various agencies in connection with the enforcement of the provisions of the Act.
- Assist foreign authorities and international organization concerned to facilitate co-ordination and universal action for wildlife crime control.
- It also assists and advises the Customs authorities in inspection of the consignments of flora & fauna as per the provisions of Wild Life Protection Act, CITES and EXIM Policy governing such an item.
It is to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the Government of India under the MoEFCC. It’s not an autonomous body
Under Section 38 (Z) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, it is mandated:
- To collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities.
- To disseminate the same to State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action so as to apprehend the criminals.
- To establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank.
- Co-ordinate actions by various agencies in connection with the enforcement of the provisions of the Act.
- Assist foreign authorities and international organization concerned to facilitate co-ordination and universal action for wildlife crime control.
- It also assists and advises the Customs authorities in inspection of the consignments of flora & fauna as per the provisions of Wild Life Protection Act, CITES and EXIM Policy governing such an item.
It is to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding India’s Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC)
- To adopt a climate-friendly and a cleaner path than the one followed hitherto by others at corresponding level of economic development.
- To put forward and further propagate a healthy and sustainable way of living based on traditions and values of conservation and moderation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
India’s Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC):
Some of the salient points of the INDC are:
- To put forward and further propagate a healthy and sustainable way of living based on traditions and values of conservation and moderation.
- To adopt a climate-friendly and a cleaner path than the one followed hitherto by others at corresponding level of economic development.
- To reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 per cent by 2030 from 2005 level.
- To achieve about 40 per cent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel based energy resources by 2030, with the help of transfer of technology and low cost international finance, including from Green Climate Fund.
- To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030.
- To better adapt to climate change by enhancing investments in development programmes in sectors vulnerable to climate change, particularly agriculture, water resources, Himalayan region, coastal regions, health and disaster management.
- To mobilize domestic and new and additional funds from developed countries to implement the above mitigation and adaptation actions in view of the resource required and the resource gap.
To build capacities, create domestic framework and international architecture for quick diffusion of cutting edge climate technology in India and for joint collaborative R&D for such future technologies.
Incorrect
Solution: C
India’s Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC):
Some of the salient points of the INDC are:
- To put forward and further propagate a healthy and sustainable way of living based on traditions and values of conservation and moderation.
- To adopt a climate-friendly and a cleaner path than the one followed hitherto by others at corresponding level of economic development.
- To reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 per cent by 2030 from 2005 level.
- To achieve about 40 per cent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel based energy resources by 2030, with the help of transfer of technology and low cost international finance, including from Green Climate Fund.
- To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030.
- To better adapt to climate change by enhancing investments in development programmes in sectors vulnerable to climate change, particularly agriculture, water resources, Himalayan region, coastal regions, health and disaster management.
- To mobilize domestic and new and additional funds from developed countries to implement the above mitigation and adaptation actions in view of the resource required and the resource gap.
To build capacities, create domestic framework and international architecture for quick diffusion of cutting edge climate technology in India and for joint collaborative R&D for such future technologies.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- International Labour Organisation’s Convention 189 on Decent Work for Domestic Workers.
- India Health Fund was launched in 2016 by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in collaboration with The Global Fund, to drive innovations towards key infectious disease challenges in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The ILO convention 189 on domestic workers mainly aims to provide domestic worker a decent working condition with daily and weekly (at least 24 h) rest hours, entitlement to minimum wage, to choose the place where they live and spend their leave and protective measures against violence etc.
Indian Health Fund was launched in 2016 by Tata Trusts in collaboration with The Global Fund, to drive innovations towards key infectious disease challenges in India.
It supports individuals and organisations with already germinated innovative strategies, services, products, such that they become sustainable and scalable solutions in addressing TB and malaria.
The initiative is a long-term exercise aligned with country’s goal of eliminating TB by 2025 and malaria
by 2030. It will promote innovative solutions such that they are widely accessible and are affordable.Incorrect
Solution: A
The ILO convention 189 on domestic workers mainly aims to provide domestic worker a decent working condition with daily and weekly (at least 24 h) rest hours, entitlement to minimum wage, to choose the place where they live and spend their leave and protective measures against violence etc.
Indian Health Fund was launched in 2016 by Tata Trusts in collaboration with The Global Fund, to drive innovations towards key infectious disease challenges in India.
It supports individuals and organisations with already germinated innovative strategies, services, products, such that they become sustainable and scalable solutions in addressing TB and malaria.
The initiative is a long-term exercise aligned with country’s goal of eliminating TB by 2025 and malaria
by 2030. It will promote innovative solutions such that they are widely accessible and are affordable. -
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsAkbar promulgated a new religion called Din-i- Ilahi or Divine Faith. With reference to this, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It aimed at bringing harmony among all different religions.
- It promoted worship of multiple Gods in simple and practical ways
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Correct
Solution: A
Justification:
The Dīn-i Ilāhī was a syncretic religion propounded by the Mughal emperor Akbar the Great in 1582 AD, intending to merge the best elements of the religions of his empire, and thereby reconcile the differences that divided his subjects. From the discussions he led at the Ibādat Khāna, Akbar concluded that no single religion could claim the monopoly of truth. This inspired him to create the Dīn-i Ilāhī in 1582. Various pious Muslims, among them the Qadi of Bengal and the seminal Sufi personality Shaykh Ahmad Sirhindi, responded by declaring this to be blasphemy to Islam.
The purported Din-i-Ilahi was more of an ethical system and Din-i-Ilahi prohibits lust, sensuality, slander and pride, considering them sins.
Piety, prudence, abstinence and kindness are the core virtues. The soul is encouraged to purify itself through yearning of God.
Celibacy is respected and the slaughter of animals is forbidden.
There are neither sacred scriptures nor a priestly hierarchy in this religion. To commemorate Din-e-Ilahi, he changed the name of Prayag to Allahabad (pronounced as ilahabad) in 1583.
Din-i- Ilahi believed in one God
Incorrect
Solution: A
Justification:
The Dīn-i Ilāhī was a syncretic religion propounded by the Mughal emperor Akbar the Great in 1582 AD, intending to merge the best elements of the religions of his empire, and thereby reconcile the differences that divided his subjects. From the discussions he led at the Ibādat Khāna, Akbar concluded that no single religion could claim the monopoly of truth. This inspired him to create the Dīn-i Ilāhī in 1582. Various pious Muslims, among them the Qadi of Bengal and the seminal Sufi personality Shaykh Ahmad Sirhindi, responded by declaring this to be blasphemy to Islam.
The purported Din-i-Ilahi was more of an ethical system and Din-i-Ilahi prohibits lust, sensuality, slander and pride, considering them sins.
Piety, prudence, abstinence and kindness are the core virtues. The soul is encouraged to purify itself through yearning of God.
Celibacy is respected and the slaughter of animals is forbidden.
There are neither sacred scriptures nor a priestly hierarchy in this religion. To commemorate Din-e-Ilahi, he changed the name of Prayag to Allahabad (pronounced as ilahabad) in 1583.
Din-i- Ilahi believed in one God
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Finance Commission of India, consider the following statements:
- Finance commission is a quasi-judicial body.
- The Constitution authorizes the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be
selected. - The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are binding on the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the president of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.
The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission
The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the president of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.
The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission
The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Right to Education Act, consider the following provisions
- Every child between the ages of six to fourteen years shall have the right to free and compulsory education in a neighborhood school.
- No child shall be liable to pay any kind of fee or charges or expenses which may prevent him or her from pursuing and completing elementary education.
- The Central and the State Governments shall have concurrent responsibility for providing funds for carrying out the provisions of this Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE), is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4 August 2009, which describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 in India under Article 21a of the Indian Constitution. India became one of 135 countries to make education a fundamental right of every child when the Act came into force on 1 April 2010.
The Act makes education a fundamental right of every child between the ages of 6 and 14 and specifies minimum norms in elementary schools. It requires all private schools to reserve 25% of seats to children (to be reimbursed by the state as part of the public-private partnership plan). Kids are admitted in to private schools based on economic status or caste based reservations. It also prohibits all unrecognised schools from practice, and makes provisions for no donation or capitation fees and no interview of the child or parent for admission. The Act also provides that no child shall be held back, expelled, or required to pass a board examination until the completion of elementary education. There is also a provision for special training of school drop-outs to bring them up to par with students of the same age.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE), is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4 August 2009, which describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 in India under Article 21a of the Indian Constitution. India became one of 135 countries to make education a fundamental right of every child when the Act came into force on 1 April 2010.
The Act makes education a fundamental right of every child between the ages of 6 and 14 and specifies minimum norms in elementary schools. It requires all private schools to reserve 25% of seats to children (to be reimbursed by the state as part of the public-private partnership plan). Kids are admitted in to private schools based on economic status or caste based reservations. It also prohibits all unrecognised schools from practice, and makes provisions for no donation or capitation fees and no interview of the child or parent for admission. The Act also provides that no child shall be held back, expelled, or required to pass a board examination until the completion of elementary education. There is also a provision for special training of school drop-outs to bring them up to par with students of the same age.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Sangai Tourism Festival, consider the following statements
- It is celebrated in Nagaland.
- Sangai is the state animal of Nagaland
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Justification
Sangai festival is an annual cultural festival organised by Manipur Tourism Department every year from November 21 to 30. The Tourism Festival, since 2010 has been renamed as the Sangai Festival as Sangai is the state animal of Manipur.
Homage is paid to this shy and gentle Brow-Antlered Deer which is found only in the state’s floating Keibul Lamjao National Park in Loktak Lake.
The festival showcases tourism potential of Manipur in field of arts & culture, handloom, handicrafts, indigenous sports, cuisine, music and adventure sports of the state etc.
Sangai Deer
The Sangai is an endemic and endangered subspecies of brow-antlered deer found only in Manipur, India.
IUCN status: Endangered
The brow-antlered deer or the dancing deer is found in its natural habitat only at Keibul Lamjao National Park over the floating biomass locally called “phumdi” in the south eastern part of Loktak Lake.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Justification
Sangai festival is an annual cultural festival organised by Manipur Tourism Department every year from November 21 to 30. The Tourism Festival, since 2010 has been renamed as the Sangai Festival as Sangai is the state animal of Manipur.
Homage is paid to this shy and gentle Brow-Antlered Deer which is found only in the state’s floating Keibul Lamjao National Park in Loktak Lake.
The festival showcases tourism potential of Manipur in field of arts & culture, handloom, handicrafts, indigenous sports, cuisine, music and adventure sports of the state etc.
Sangai Deer
The Sangai is an endemic and endangered subspecies of brow-antlered deer found only in Manipur, India.
IUCN status: Endangered
The brow-antlered deer or the dancing deer is found in its natural habitat only at Keibul Lamjao National Park over the floating biomass locally called “phumdi” in the south eastern part of Loktak Lake.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsEdge species are
Correct
Solution: C
Edge Effect – Edge Species
- Edge effect refers to the changes in population or community structures that occur at the boundary of two habitats (ecotone).
- Sometimes the number of species and the population density of some of the species in the ecotone is much greater than either community. This is called edge effect.
- The organisms which occur primarily or most abundantly in this zone are known as edge species.
- In the terrestrial ecosystems edge effect is especially applicable to birds.
- For example, the density of birds is greater in the ecotone between the forest and the desert.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Edge Effect – Edge Species
- Edge effect refers to the changes in population or community structures that occur at the boundary of two habitats (ecotone).
- Sometimes the number of species and the population density of some of the species in the ecotone is much greater than either community. This is called edge effect.
- The organisms which occur primarily or most abundantly in this zone are known as edge species.
- In the terrestrial ecosystems edge effect is especially applicable to birds.
- For example, the density of birds is greater in the ecotone between the forest and the desert.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsWhat is/are the benefits received by the political parties recognised as National and/or State party by the Election Commission of India?
- Allocation of party symbols.
- Access to electoral rolls.
- Provision of time for political broadcasts on the state-owned television and radio stations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Correct
Solution: D
The recognition granted by the Election Commission to the parties determines their right to certain privileges like allocation of the party symbols, provision of time for political broadcasts on the state-owned television and radio stations and access to electoral rolls.
Further, the recognized parties need only one proposer for filing the
nomination. Also, these parties are allowed to have forty “star campaigners” during the time of elections and the registered–unrecognized parties are allowed to have twenty “star campaigners”. The travel expenses of these star campaigners are not included in the election expenditure of the candidates of their parties.Incorrect
Solution: D
The recognition granted by the Election Commission to the parties determines their right to certain privileges like allocation of the party symbols, provision of time for political broadcasts on the state-owned television and radio stations and access to electoral rolls.
Further, the recognized parties need only one proposer for filing the
nomination. Also, these parties are allowed to have forty “star campaigners” during the time of elections and the registered–unrecognized parties are allowed to have twenty “star campaigners”. The travel expenses of these star campaigners are not included in the election expenditure of the candidates of their parties. -
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the places sometimes seen in news and their respective states:
Places in news: State:
- Belum Caves Madhya Pradesh
- Vadhavan Port Gujarat
- Sirsa Haryana
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: A
Belum Caves is the second largest cave in the Indian subcontinent and the longest caves in plains of Indian subcontinent. Belum Caves is 3229 meters long, making it the second largest natural caves in Indian subcontinent. Belum Caves have long passages, spacious chambers, fresh water galleries and siphons. The caves reach its deepest point (120 ft from entrance level) at the point known as Patalganaga. Belum Caves is located at Belum Village in Kolimigundla Mandal of Kurnool district in State of Andhra Pradesh.
Vadhavan near Dahanu is located in Maharashtra.
Vadhavan port will be developed on “land lord model“. A Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) will be formed with Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) as the lead partner with equity participation equal to or more than 50% to implement the project. The SPV will develop the port infrastructure including reclamation, construction of breakwater, besides establishing connectivity to the hinterland. All the business activities would be undertaken under PPP mode by private developers.
Sirsa is a city and a municipal council in Sirsa district in the westernmost region of the Indian state of Haryana, bordering Punjab and Rajasthan.
The prospect of clearing entire 82 acres of the ‘Ther Mound’ — a protected archaeological site which has nearly 50,000 people living there — continues to haunt the Haryana government. The Mound is believed to hold clues to the ancient city of ‘Sarishika’, but it must be cleared for the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to confirm its historicity.
Falling on the old route to Takshashila, the 6th-5th century BC city of ‘Sarishika’, found mention in the Mahabharata, Panini’s Ashtadhyayi and the Buddhist text Divyavadana.
The Mound rises 15-18 metres above nearby areas, but there is a dispute over the size of the protected area. It was under the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act of 1904 that Sirsa’s ‘Ther Mound’ was declared a protected monument back in 1932.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Belum Caves is the second largest cave in the Indian subcontinent and the longest caves in plains of Indian subcontinent. Belum Caves is 3229 meters long, making it the second largest natural caves in Indian subcontinent. Belum Caves have long passages, spacious chambers, fresh water galleries and siphons. The caves reach its deepest point (120 ft from entrance level) at the point known as Patalganaga. Belum Caves is located at Belum Village in Kolimigundla Mandal of Kurnool district in State of Andhra Pradesh.
Vadhavan near Dahanu is located in Maharashtra.
Vadhavan port will be developed on “land lord model“. A Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) will be formed with Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) as the lead partner with equity participation equal to or more than 50% to implement the project. The SPV will develop the port infrastructure including reclamation, construction of breakwater, besides establishing connectivity to the hinterland. All the business activities would be undertaken under PPP mode by private developers.
Sirsa is a city and a municipal council in Sirsa district in the westernmost region of the Indian state of Haryana, bordering Punjab and Rajasthan.
The prospect of clearing entire 82 acres of the ‘Ther Mound’ — a protected archaeological site which has nearly 50,000 people living there — continues to haunt the Haryana government. The Mound is believed to hold clues to the ancient city of ‘Sarishika’, but it must be cleared for the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to confirm its historicity.
Falling on the old route to Takshashila, the 6th-5th century BC city of ‘Sarishika’, found mention in the Mahabharata, Panini’s Ashtadhyayi and the Buddhist text Divyavadana.
The Mound rises 15-18 metres above nearby areas, but there is a dispute over the size of the protected area. It was under the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act of 1904 that Sirsa’s ‘Ther Mound’ was declared a protected monument back in 1932.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Antarctica Treaty
- The treaty is framed to ensure that Antarctica shall continue forever to be used exclusively for peaceful purposes and shall not become the scene of international conflict.
- India has not acceded to this treaty
- It also prohibits nuclear explosions and the disposal of nuclear waste.
- It promotes scientific research and the exchange of data and suspends all
territorial claims.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: C
India is a party to the treaty.
The Antarctic Treaty was signed in Washington on 1 December 1959 by the twelve countries whose scientists had been active in and around Antarctica during the International Geophysical Year (IGY) of 1957-58. It entered into force in 1961 and has since been acceded to by many other nations. The total number of Parties to the Treaty is now 53.
Some important provisions of the Treaty:
Antarctica shall be used for peaceful purposes only (Art. I)
Freedom of scientific investigation in Antarctica and cooperation toward that end shall continue (Art. II).
Scientific observations and results from Antarctica shall be exchanged and made freely available (Art. III).
Among the signatories of the Treaty were seven countries – Argentina, Australia, Chile, France, New Zealand, Norway and the United Kingdom – with territorial claims , sometimes overlapping. Other countries do not recognize any claims. The US and Russia maintain a “basis of claim”. All positions are explicitly protected in Article IV, which preserves the status quo:
No acts or activities taking place while the present Treaty is in force shall constitute a basis for asserting , supporting or denying a claim to territorial sovereignty in Antarctica or create any rights of sovereignty in Antarctica. No new claim, or enlargement of an existing claim to territorial sovereignty in Antarctica shall be asserted while the present Treaty is in force.
Incorrect
Solution: C
India is a party to the treaty.
The Antarctic Treaty was signed in Washington on 1 December 1959 by the twelve countries whose scientists had been active in and around Antarctica during the International Geophysical Year (IGY) of 1957-58. It entered into force in 1961 and has since been acceded to by many other nations. The total number of Parties to the Treaty is now 53.
Some important provisions of the Treaty:
Antarctica shall be used for peaceful purposes only (Art. I)
Freedom of scientific investigation in Antarctica and cooperation toward that end shall continue (Art. II).
Scientific observations and results from Antarctica shall be exchanged and made freely available (Art. III).
Among the signatories of the Treaty were seven countries – Argentina, Australia, Chile, France, New Zealand, Norway and the United Kingdom – with territorial claims , sometimes overlapping. Other countries do not recognize any claims. The US and Russia maintain a “basis of claim”. All positions are explicitly protected in Article IV, which preserves the status quo:
No acts or activities taking place while the present Treaty is in force shall constitute a basis for asserting , supporting or denying a claim to territorial sovereignty in Antarctica or create any rights of sovereignty in Antarctica. No new claim, or enlargement of an existing claim to territorial sovereignty in Antarctica shall be asserted while the present Treaty is in force.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
- It is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation.
- India, Afghanistan and Turkmenistan are members of SCO.
- Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in Tashkent, is one of the permanent body associated with SCO
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: B
The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation, the creation of which was announced on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai (China) by the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, and the Republic of Uzbekistan. It was preceded by the Shanghai Five mechanism.
The organisation has two permanent bodies — the SCO Secretariat based in Beijing and the Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in Tashkent. The SCO Secretary-General and the Director of the Executive Committee of the SCO RATS are appointed by the Council of Heads of State for a term of three years.
SCO comprises eight member states, namely the Republic of India, the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Islamic Republic of Pakistan, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, and the Republic of Uzbekistan.
SCO counts four observer states, namely the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan, the Republic of Belarus, the Islamic Republic of Iran and the Republic of Mongolia.
SCO has six dialogue partners, namely the Republic of Azerbaijan, the Republic of Armenia, the Kingdom of Cambodia, the Federal Democratic Republic of Nepal, the Republic of Turkey, and the Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation, the creation of which was announced on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai (China) by the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, and the Republic of Uzbekistan. It was preceded by the Shanghai Five mechanism.
The organisation has two permanent bodies — the SCO Secretariat based in Beijing and the Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in Tashkent. The SCO Secretary-General and the Director of the Executive Committee of the SCO RATS are appointed by the Council of Heads of State for a term of three years.
SCO comprises eight member states, namely the Republic of India, the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Islamic Republic of Pakistan, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, and the Republic of Uzbekistan.
SCO counts four observer states, namely the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan, the Republic of Belarus, the Islamic Republic of Iran and the Republic of Mongolia.
SCO has six dialogue partners, namely the Republic of Azerbaijan, the Republic of Armenia, the Kingdom of Cambodia, the Federal Democratic Republic of Nepal, the Republic of Turkey, and the Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the administration of Delhi Sultanate, consider the following pairs:
Department Work
1.Diwan-i-insha : Religious matters
2.Diwan-i-risalat :State correspondence
3.Diwan-iarz : Requirements of army
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: C
Diwan-I-Insha- was the minister who looked after the local correspondence of and different offices.
Diwan –I- Risalt – was the minister of foreign affairs and he was assigned the task of alliancing with powerful rulers.
Diwan –I- Ariz – He was the head of the department of diwani-i-arz and in that capacity was the controller-general of the military department.
Other departments:
Sadr –Ur -Sadar – was the head of the religious department. His work was to the safeguard the Islamic Laws and its upkeep.
Amir –I-Mazls -Shahi – he was the minister who looked after the festivals of the state
Incorrect
Solution: C
Diwan-I-Insha- was the minister who looked after the local correspondence of and different offices.
Diwan –I- Risalt – was the minister of foreign affairs and he was assigned the task of alliancing with powerful rulers.
Diwan –I- Ariz – He was the head of the department of diwani-i-arz and in that capacity was the controller-general of the military department.
Other departments:
Sadr –Ur -Sadar – was the head of the religious department. His work was to the safeguard the Islamic Laws and its upkeep.
Amir –I-Mazls -Shahi – he was the minister who looked after the festivals of the state
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsYudh Abhyas is a joint military exercise between which of following countries?
- India
- Japan
- Russia
- USA
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: C
Exercise Yudh Abhyas, a joint Indo-US Military exercise which started in 2004 under US Army Pacific Partnership Programme. Exercise Yudh Abhyas strengthens and broadens interoperability and cooperation between the Indian and US armies.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Exercise Yudh Abhyas, a joint Indo-US Military exercise which started in 2004 under US Army Pacific Partnership Programme. Exercise Yudh Abhyas strengthens and broadens interoperability and cooperation between the Indian and US armies.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Upanishads gives clear reference of the Ashrama System of individual’s life?
Correct
Solution: B
It is found in the later Upanishads like the Jabala that four stages of life persist in sequential form. According to Jabala the studentship stage must precede that of the ‘Grihastha’. The ‘Grihastasrama’ must be followed by the order of the hermit, while the order of ascetic must necessarily be preceded by those of the grihastha (householder) and the hermit (Vanaprastha).
Incorrect
Solution: B
It is found in the later Upanishads like the Jabala that four stages of life persist in sequential form. According to Jabala the studentship stage must precede that of the ‘Grihastha’. The ‘Grihastasrama’ must be followed by the order of the hermit, while the order of ascetic must necessarily be preceded by those of the grihastha (householder) and the hermit (Vanaprastha).
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Commission for Women
- National commission for women was set up as an autonomous body in 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990
- All the members and Chairperson are nominated by the central government.
- Its mission is to review the Constitutional and legal safeguards for women, recommend remedial legislative measures, facilitate redressal of grievances.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
National commission for women was set up as a statutory body in 1992 under the National Commission for
Women Act, 1990.- Its mission is to review the Constitutional and legal safeguards for women, recommend remedial legislative measures, facilitate redressal of grievances and advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.
- It consists of a Chairperson, 5 members and a member-secretary. All the members and Chairperson are nominated by the central government.
• Ministry of Women and Child Development has nominated 3 members to National Commission for Women. They shall hold office for a period of 3 years or till the age of 65 years or until further orders from the date of assumption of charge of office, whichever is the earlier.
Incorrect
Solution: D
National commission for women was set up as a statutory body in 1992 under the National Commission for
Women Act, 1990.- Its mission is to review the Constitutional and legal safeguards for women, recommend remedial legislative measures, facilitate redressal of grievances and advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.
- It consists of a Chairperson, 5 members and a member-secretary. All the members and Chairperson are nominated by the central government.
• Ministry of Women and Child Development has nominated 3 members to National Commission for Women. They shall hold office for a period of 3 years or till the age of 65 years or until further orders from the date of assumption of charge of office, whichever is the earlier.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statement regarding Light Combat Aircraft -Tejas.
- Tejas is a subsonic fourth generation fighter for induction in the Indian Air Force (IAF)
- It is built by India in collaboration with Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
LCA is an advanced technology, single seat, single engine, supersonic, light-weight, all-weather, multi-role, air superiority fighter designed for air-to-air, air-to-ground and air-to-sea combat roles.
Tejas is an Indian single-engine, multirole light fighter designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited for the Indian Air Force and Indian Navy. It came from the Light Combat Aircraft programme, which began in the 1980s to replace India’s ageing MiG-21 fighters.
Incorrect
Solution: D
LCA is an advanced technology, single seat, single engine, supersonic, light-weight, all-weather, multi-role, air superiority fighter designed for air-to-air, air-to-ground and air-to-sea combat roles.
Tejas is an Indian single-engine, multirole light fighter designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited for the Indian Air Force and Indian Navy. It came from the Light Combat Aircraft programme, which began in the 1980s to replace India’s ageing MiG-21 fighters.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsTruenat molecular test is said to significantly change the TB (Tuberculosis) diagnostics landscape in India. In this context consider the following statements with respect to Truenat:
- It can not only be used in initial diagnostics but also to detect multi-drug resistant TB strain.
- It makes TB diagnostic cheaper and faster.
- It makes use of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) Technology to study the genotype of the TB strain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Recently WHO has endorsed TrueNat for molecular diagnostic test for TB.
- TrueNat is a molecular test that tests the genotype of the bacterial strain instead of phenotype that is done under conventional microscopic tests.
- It use PCR technology to multiply the pathogen in the laboratory condition thereby producing enough sample to be viable for conducting the test
- Given that TrueNat is battery operated it is handy and therefore produces faster test results.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Recently WHO has endorsed TrueNat for molecular diagnostic test for TB.
- TrueNat is a molecular test that tests the genotype of the bacterial strain instead of phenotype that is done under conventional microscopic tests.
- It use PCR technology to multiply the pathogen in the laboratory condition thereby producing enough sample to be viable for conducting the test
- Given that TrueNat is battery operated it is handy and therefore produces faster test results.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The legislature of a state may adopt any one or more of the languages in
use in the state or Hindi as the official language of that state. - Official Language Act, 1963 provides for the continued use of English (even after 1965), in addition to Hindi, for all official purposes of the Union and also for the transaction of business in Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Part XVII of the Constitution deals with the official language in Articles
343 to 351. Its provisions are divided into four heads—Language of the
Union, Regional languages, Language of the judiciary and texts of laws and
Special directives.The legislature of a state may adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official language of that state. Until that is done, English is to continue as official language of that state.
The Parliament enacted the Official Language Act in 1963. The act provides for the continued use of English (even after 1965), in addition to Hindi, for all official purposes of the Union and also for the transaction of business in Parliament. Notably, this act enables the use of English indefinitely (without any time-limit). Further, this act was amended in 1967 to make the use of English, in addition to Hindi, compulsory in certain cases.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Part XVII of the Constitution deals with the official language in Articles
343 to 351. Its provisions are divided into four heads—Language of the
Union, Regional languages, Language of the judiciary and texts of laws and
Special directives.The legislature of a state may adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official language of that state. Until that is done, English is to continue as official language of that state.
The Parliament enacted the Official Language Act in 1963. The act provides for the continued use of English (even after 1965), in addition to Hindi, for all official purposes of the Union and also for the transaction of business in Parliament. Notably, this act enables the use of English indefinitely (without any time-limit). Further, this act was amended in 1967 to make the use of English, in addition to Hindi, compulsory in certain cases.
- The legislature of a state may adopt any one or more of the languages in
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the principle of collective responsibility stated under Article 75, consider the following statements:
- All the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of omission and commission.
- The Cabinet decisions bind all cabinet ministers and other ministers even if they differed in the cabinet meeting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The fundamental principle underlying the working of parliamentary system
of government is the principle of collective responsibility. Article 75 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of ommission and commission. They work as a team and swim or sink together. When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the council of ministers, all the ministers have to resign including those ministers who are from the Rajya Sabha.The principle of collective responsibility also means that the Cabinet
decisions bind all cabinet ministers (and other ministers) even if they differed in the cabinet meeting. It is the duty of every minister to stand by cabinet decisions and support them both within and outside the Parliament. If any minister disagrees with a cabinet decision and is not prepared to defend it, he must resign.Incorrect
Solution: C
The fundamental principle underlying the working of parliamentary system
of government is the principle of collective responsibility. Article 75 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of ommission and commission. They work as a team and swim or sink together. When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the council of ministers, all the ministers have to resign including those ministers who are from the Rajya Sabha.The principle of collective responsibility also means that the Cabinet
decisions bind all cabinet ministers (and other ministers) even if they differed in the cabinet meeting. It is the duty of every minister to stand by cabinet decisions and support them both within and outside the Parliament. If any minister disagrees with a cabinet decision and is not prepared to defend it, he must resign. -
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Cave architecture in India
- Ellora caves are a group of Buddhist and Brahmanical group of caves that were built by the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
- Jagannatha Sabha is one of the noted caves located in Elephanta caves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Ellora Caves
Ellora Caves are the prime example of ancient rock-cut architecture set in Aurangabad in the state of Maharashtra. The ancient name for Ellora was Elapura. It is also called ‘Elura’ or ‘Verul’ in local language. They are a group of Buddhist and Brahmanical group of caves that were built by the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
Most of the Hindu caves were built during the reigns of the Kalachuri and Chalukya dynasty but the group of five Jain cave temples called the Jagannatha Sabha were built in the 9th century by the Rashtrakuta rulers. All the Jain caves belong to the Digambara sect and illustrate their philosophy and tradition.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Ellora Caves
Ellora Caves are the prime example of ancient rock-cut architecture set in Aurangabad in the state of Maharashtra. The ancient name for Ellora was Elapura. It is also called ‘Elura’ or ‘Verul’ in local language. They are a group of Buddhist and Brahmanical group of caves that were built by the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
Most of the Hindu caves were built during the reigns of the Kalachuri and Chalukya dynasty but the group of five Jain cave temples called the Jagannatha Sabha were built in the 9th century by the Rashtrakuta rulers. All the Jain caves belong to the Digambara sect and illustrate their philosophy and tradition.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Huntington disease
- It is a communicable disease which affects the working of human brain.
- It causes uncontrolled movements, impaired coordination of balance and movement and a decline in cognitive abilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Huntington Disease (HD)
It is a progressive genetic disorder which affects the brain. It causes uncontrolled movements, impaired coordination of balance and movement, a decline in cognitive abilities, difficulty in concentrating and memory lapses, mood swings and personality changes.
Mutations in the HTT gene (also called Huntington or HD gene) cause Huntington Disease (HD)
Huntington disease affects an estimated 3 to 7 per 100,000 people of European ancestry. The disorder appears to be less common in some other populations, including people of Japanese, Chinese, and African descent.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Huntington Disease (HD)
It is a progressive genetic disorder which affects the brain. It causes uncontrolled movements, impaired coordination of balance and movement, a decline in cognitive abilities, difficulty in concentrating and memory lapses, mood swings and personality changes.
Mutations in the HTT gene (also called Huntington or HD gene) cause Huntington Disease (HD)
Huntington disease affects an estimated 3 to 7 per 100,000 people of European ancestry. The disorder appears to be less common in some other populations, including people of Japanese, Chinese, and African descent.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsA clock gains 15 minutes per day. It is set right at 12 noon. What time will it show at 4.00 am, the next day ?
Correct
Solution: A
The clock gains 15 min in 24 hours. Therefore, in 16 hours, it will gain 10 minutes. Hence, the time shown by the clock will be 4.10 am.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The clock gains 15 min in 24 hours. Therefore, in 16 hours, it will gain 10 minutes. Hence, the time shown by the clock will be 4.10 am.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsFind the angle traced by the hour hand of a clock between 5:15 AM and 5:45 PM?
Correct
Solution: B
It is known that the hour hand traces 360° in 12 hours.
So, Angle covered by hour hand in 1 hour = 360/12 = 30°.
Angle traced in half an hour = 15°
The time-period 5:15 AM to 5:45 PM is half hour more than 12 hours.Incorrect
Solution: B
It is known that the hour hand traces 360° in 12 hours.
So, Angle covered by hour hand in 1 hour = 360/12 = 30°.
Angle traced in half an hour = 15°
The time-period 5:15 AM to 5:45 PM is half hour more than 12 hours. -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsAt what time between 3 o’clock and 4 o’clock will hour and minute hands of a clock be together?
Correct
Solution: A
Here, n = 3 and (n + 1) = 4
∴ Two hands will coincide at 60n / 11 min past n hour= 60 x 3 / 11 min past 3
=180 /11 min past 3.
= aprrox 16.36 past 3 o clockIncorrect
Solution: A
Here, n = 3 and (n + 1) = 4
∴ Two hands will coincide at 60n / 11 min past n hour= 60 x 3 / 11 min past 3
=180 /11 min past 3.
= aprrox 16.36 past 3 o clock -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsA clock hums 1 time at 1’o clock, 2 times at 2’o clock, 3 times at 3,o clock etc. What will be the aggregate quantities of hums in a day?
Correct
Solution: C
Total number of buzzes =2 (1+2+3+……….+12).
This is an A.P. in which a=1, d=1, n = 12 and L = 12.
(1+2+3+ ………+12) = 12/2* (1+12) = 78.
∴ Total number of buzzes = (2 * 78) = 156.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Total number of buzzes =2 (1+2+3+……….+12).
This is an A.P. in which a=1, d=1, n = 12 and L = 12.
(1+2+3+ ………+12) = 12/2* (1+12) = 78.
∴ Total number of buzzes = (2 * 78) = 156.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsDirections for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
Agriculture in India needs to become more sustainable even as small and marginal farmers struggle to build resilience against many threats. First, they remain price-takers and economically vulnerable, beholden to traders who set prices, and with limited opportunities to sell at a time of their choice (due to poor storage). Further, decades of intensive agriculture have added to water stress and declining soil health. Farmers rely on groundwater for more than 60% of irrigation needs. Chemical fertilizers, once a boon to boost soil nutrients, have been applied so intensively (particularly urea) that the long-term health of soils is now of deep concern.
Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct
Solution: A.
The passage focuses on bringing out the lack of sustainable practices in Indian agriculture which are creating several issues. All the examples given above are examples of measures undertaken to boost productivity at the expense of sustainability. Hence A is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution: A.
The passage focuses on bringing out the lack of sustainable practices in Indian agriculture which are creating several issues. All the examples given above are examples of measures undertaken to boost productivity at the expense of sustainability. Hence A is the correct answer.









