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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
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- Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
- Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Qatar were the founding members of OPEC.
- World Oil Outlook is annually published by OPEC
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries is an intergovernmental organization of 14 nations, founded on 14 September 1960 in Baghdad by the first five members (Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela), and headquartered since 1965 in Vienna, Austria.
Since 2007, OPEC has published the “World Oil Outlook” (WOO) annually, in which it presents a comprehensive analysis of the global oil industry including medium- and long-term projections for supply and demand
IncorrectSolution: B
The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries is an intergovernmental organization of 14 nations, founded on 14 September 1960 in Baghdad by the first five members (Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela), and headquartered since 1965 in Vienna, Austria.
Since 2007, OPEC has published the “World Oil Outlook” (WOO) annually, in which it presents a comprehensive analysis of the global oil industry including medium- and long-term projections for supply and demand
- Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsThe 2020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry has been accorded to the landmark Crispr gene editing technology. In this regard consider the following statements?
1.Crispr-based gene therapy is being currently used to treat cancer
2.Currently gene therapy based on Crispr editing is not being administered directly into the human body.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
- CAR-T gene therapy that was recently in news used Crispr technique to genetically modify T-cells to aid immunotherapy in Leukaemia.
- In March 2020 gene editing therapy using Crispr was directly administered in the body. (In-Vivo gene editing)
IncorrectSolution: A
- CAR-T gene therapy that was recently in news used Crispr technique to genetically modify T-cells to aid immunotherapy in Leukaemia.
- In March 2020 gene editing therapy using Crispr was directly administered in the body. (In-Vivo gene editing)
- Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsThe Motihari-Amalekhgunj petroleum pipeline is a joint project between:
CorrectSolution: C
The pipeline will transport fuel from Barauni refinery in Bihar’s Begusarai district to Amalekhgunj in southeastern Nepal, situated across the border from Raxaul in East Champaran district. The 69-km pipeline will drastically reduce the cost of transporting fuel to landlocked Nepal from India.
The pipeline will help in tackling the oil storage problem in Nepal and doing away with transportation of petroleum products through tankers.
IncorrectSolution: C
The pipeline will transport fuel from Barauni refinery in Bihar’s Begusarai district to Amalekhgunj in southeastern Nepal, situated across the border from Raxaul in East Champaran district. The 69-km pipeline will drastically reduce the cost of transporting fuel to landlocked Nepal from India.
The pipeline will help in tackling the oil storage problem in Nepal and doing away with transportation of petroleum products through tankers.
- Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ocean deoxygenation.
- Ocean deoxygenation is the maximum reduction of oxygen minimum zones in the world’s oceans as a consequence of anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide.
- Oxygen is less soluble in warmer water.
- The areas of Sea water that is depleted of dissolved oxygen is called Anoxic waters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
Ocean deoxygenation is the expansion of oxygen minimum zones in the world’s oceans as a consequence of anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide. The change has been fairly rapid and poses a threat to fish and other types of marine life, as well as to people who depend on marine life for nutrition or livelihood.
Ocean deoxygenation poses implications for ocean productivity, nutrient cycling, carbon cycling, and marine habitats.
Most of the excess heat from CO2 and other greenhouse gas emissions is absorbed by the oceans. Warmer oceans cause deoxygenation both because oxygen is less soluble in warmer water, and through temperature driven stratification of the ocean which inhibits the production of oxygen from photosynthesis.
Anoxic waters are areas of sea water, fresh water, or groundwater that are depleted of dissolved oxygen and are a more severe condition of hypoxia.
IncorrectSolution: C
Ocean deoxygenation is the expansion of oxygen minimum zones in the world’s oceans as a consequence of anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide. The change has been fairly rapid and poses a threat to fish and other types of marine life, as well as to people who depend on marine life for nutrition or livelihood.
Ocean deoxygenation poses implications for ocean productivity, nutrient cycling, carbon cycling, and marine habitats.
Most of the excess heat from CO2 and other greenhouse gas emissions is absorbed by the oceans. Warmer oceans cause deoxygenation both because oxygen is less soluble in warmer water, and through temperature driven stratification of the ocean which inhibits the production of oxygen from photosynthesis.
Anoxic waters are areas of sea water, fresh water, or groundwater that are depleted of dissolved oxygen and are a more severe condition of hypoxia.
- Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsThe Bhaba Atomic Research Centre has recently resumed research in ‘Cold Fusion’ after a 25-year hiatus. Accordingly consider the following with respect to ‘Cold Fusion’.
- Cold Fusion is also called Low Energy Nuclear Reaction.
- The ITER (INTERNATIONAL THERMONUCLEAR EXPERIMENTAL REACTOR) works on the principle of Cold Fusion.
- The abundance of hydrogen in the oceans makes Cold Fusion a potential future of energy security.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
ITER works on Tokamak principle and not on cold fusion.
IncorrectSolution: C
ITER works on Tokamak principle and not on cold fusion.
- Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the ‘National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
- It is constituted under enabling provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
- It addresses the livelihood interests of local people in areas surrounding Tiger Reserves.
- The National Tiger Conservation Authority is set up under the Chairmanship of the Minister for Environment and Forests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change constituted under enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006, for strengthening tiger conservation, as per powers and functions assigned to it under the said Act.
IncorrectSolution: B
The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change constituted under enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006, for strengthening tiger conservation, as per powers and functions assigned to it under the said Act.
- Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWhich among the following factors can lead to increase in the profits of the RBI?
- Increase in the loans RBI gives to the Commercial Banks.
- Appreciation in the value of Gold held by the RBI.
- Appreciation in the value of foreign currencies held by the RBI with respect to rupee
Select the correct answer using the code given below
CorrectSolution: D
Increase in loans by RBI is increase in assets of RBI. RBI receives interest for the loans given which will increase it’s profits.
Appreciation in the value of gold and foreign currencies with respect to rupee also increases profits of RBI, as the revaluation reserves or the valuation of the current assets of RBI increases.
IncorrectSolution: D
Increase in loans by RBI is increase in assets of RBI. RBI receives interest for the loans given which will increase it’s profits.
Appreciation in the value of gold and foreign currencies with respect to rupee also increases profits of RBI, as the revaluation reserves or the valuation of the current assets of RBI increases.
- Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The Department of Economic Affairs is the nodal Department for overseeing the public financial management system in the Central Government
- The Department of Expenditure is the nodal agency of the Union Government to formulate and monitor country’s economic policies and programmes having a bearing on domestic and international aspects of economic management
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
The Department of Expenditure is the nodal Department for overseeing the public financial management system in the Central Government
The Department of Economic Affairs is the nodal agency of the Union Government to formulate and monitor country’s economic policies and programmes having a bearing on domestic and international aspects of economic management
IncorrectSolution: D
The Department of Expenditure is the nodal Department for overseeing the public financial management system in the Central Government
The Department of Economic Affairs is the nodal agency of the Union Government to formulate and monitor country’s economic policies and programmes having a bearing on domestic and international aspects of economic management
- Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Intermediate goods are a part of WPI
- Intermediate goods are not a part of CPI
Which of the statements given above are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
The CPI basket consists of services like housing, education, medical care, recreation etc. which are not part of WPI basket. A significant proportion of WPI item basket represents manufacturing inputs and intermediate goods like minerals, basic metals, machinery etc. whose prices are influenced by global factors but these are not directly consumed by the households and are not part of the CPI item basket.
Thus even significant price movements in items included in WPI basket need not necessarily translate into movements in CPI in the short run. The rise or fall in prices at wholesale level spill over to the retail level after a lag.
IncorrectSolution: C
The CPI basket consists of services like housing, education, medical care, recreation etc. which are not part of WPI basket. A significant proportion of WPI item basket represents manufacturing inputs and intermediate goods like minerals, basic metals, machinery etc. whose prices are influenced by global factors but these are not directly consumed by the households and are not part of the CPI item basket.
Thus even significant price movements in items included in WPI basket need not necessarily translate into movements in CPI in the short run. The rise or fall in prices at wholesale level spill over to the retail level after a lag.
- Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Cartosat-3:
- It is an advanced earth imaging and mapping satellite.
- It will put into orbit by ISRO’s rocket PSLV-XL
- It will also have multi-spectral capabilities, which will help the military zoom in on enemy hideouts and terror hubs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
ISRO has announced that Cartosat-3 will be flown on the PSLV-C47 vehicle, subject to weather conditions.
Cartosat-3:
• It is an advanced earth imaging and mapping satellite. It would also boost the military’s space surveillance.
• The satellite will be placed in an orbit of 509 km at an inclination of 97.5 degrees.
• Cartosat-3, with an ISRO-best resolution of 25 cm, will be the first of a series of high resolution, third generation satellites planned for observing the Earth.
• The satellite will be able to pick up objects of that size (25 cm) from its orbital perch about 509 km away. This will make Cartosat-3 among the few sharpest, if not the best, civil earth imagers worldwide.
• Cartosat-3 will also have multi-spectral (captures light from across the electromagnetic spectrum) capabilities, which will help the military zoom in on enemy hideouts and terror hubs.
• ISRO’s rocket PSLV-XL will put into orbit Cartosat-3 and 13 commercial Nano satellites from the US. The 13 small U.S. customer satellites riding as secondary passengers will be placed in a polar orbitIncorrectSolution: D
ISRO has announced that Cartosat-3 will be flown on the PSLV-C47 vehicle, subject to weather conditions.
Cartosat-3:
• It is an advanced earth imaging and mapping satellite. It would also boost the military’s space surveillance.
• The satellite will be placed in an orbit of 509 km at an inclination of 97.5 degrees.
• Cartosat-3, with an ISRO-best resolution of 25 cm, will be the first of a series of high resolution, third generation satellites planned for observing the Earth.
• The satellite will be able to pick up objects of that size (25 cm) from its orbital perch about 509 km away. This will make Cartosat-3 among the few sharpest, if not the best, civil earth imagers worldwide.
• Cartosat-3 will also have multi-spectral (captures light from across the electromagnetic spectrum) capabilities, which will help the military zoom in on enemy hideouts and terror hubs.
• ISRO’s rocket PSLV-XL will put into orbit Cartosat-3 and 13 commercial Nano satellites from the US. The 13 small U.S. customer satellites riding as secondary passengers will be placed in a polar orbit - Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Angel tax was introduced in the 2012 budget.
- Angel tax is an income tax payable on capital raised by unlisted companies from investors
- An angel investor is an affluent individual who provides capital for a business start-up, usually in exchange for convertible debt or ownership equity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Angel tax was introduced in the 2012 budget by the then finance minister Pranab Mukherjee to arrest laundering of funds.
Angel tax is an income tax payable on capital raised by unlisted companies from investors (mostly angel investors) via issue of shares if the sold share price is excess of the fair market value of the shares.
An angel investor is an affluent individual who provides capital for a business start-up, usually in exchange for convertible debt or ownership equity.
IncorrectSolution: B
Angel tax was introduced in the 2012 budget by the then finance minister Pranab Mukherjee to arrest laundering of funds.
Angel tax is an income tax payable on capital raised by unlisted companies from investors (mostly angel investors) via issue of shares if the sold share price is excess of the fair market value of the shares.
An angel investor is an affluent individual who provides capital for a business start-up, usually in exchange for convertible debt or ownership equity.
- Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Agriculture Infrastructure Fund
- It is a central sector scheme for creation of farm-gate infrastructure for farmers.
- A debt facility will be provided for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets.
- All loans under this financing facility will have interest subvention of 3 per cent per annum up to a limit of 3 crores.
- Under the scheme, loans will be provided farmer producers organizations (FPOs), self-help group (SHG), farmers and joint liability groups (JLG).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: D
Hon’ble Finance Minister on 15.05.2020 announced a ` 1 lakh crore Agriculture Infrastructure Fund for creation of farm-gate infrastructure for farmers. Accordingly, central sector scheme of financing facility under Agriculture Infrastructure Fund was formally launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India on 09.08.2020.
This scheme is operational from the year 2020-21 to 2029-30. The scheme provides for medium to long term debt financing facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets. Under the scheme, ` 1 lakh crores will be provided by banks and financial institutions as loans to primary agricultural credit societies (PACS), marketing cooperative societies, farmer producers organizations (FPOs), self help group (SHG), farmers, joint liability groups (JLG), multipurpose cooperative societies, agri-entrepreneurs, startups and central/ state agency or local body sponsored public private partnership project, etc.
All loans under this financing facility will have interest subvention of 3 per cent per annum up to a limit of ` 2 crores. This subvention will be available for a maximum period of 7 years. Further, credit guarantee coverage will be available for eligible borrowers from this financing facility under Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) scheme for a loan up to ` 2 crores.
Memorandum of Understandings (MoUs) with all 12 public sector banks and 11 private sector banks have been signed by DACandFW. A portal for the scheme has been created. As on 15.01.2021, ` 2991 crores has been ‘in principle’ sanctioned under the scheme to 3055 PACS by NABARD. PACS have submitted 3774 applications for loan amount of ` 2741 crores. 1695 applications have been received through the portal from entities other than PACS of which 964 applications seeking loan of ` 934 crores have been prima facie found eligible and sent to respective banks. Out of 964 applications, 230 have been sanctioned a loan amount of ` 235 crores by banks.
IncorrectSolution: D
Hon’ble Finance Minister on 15.05.2020 announced a ` 1 lakh crore Agriculture Infrastructure Fund for creation of farm-gate infrastructure for farmers. Accordingly, central sector scheme of financing facility under Agriculture Infrastructure Fund was formally launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India on 09.08.2020.
This scheme is operational from the year 2020-21 to 2029-30. The scheme provides for medium to long term debt financing facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets. Under the scheme, ` 1 lakh crores will be provided by banks and financial institutions as loans to primary agricultural credit societies (PACS), marketing cooperative societies, farmer producers organizations (FPOs), self help group (SHG), farmers, joint liability groups (JLG), multipurpose cooperative societies, agri-entrepreneurs, startups and central/ state agency or local body sponsored public private partnership project, etc.
All loans under this financing facility will have interest subvention of 3 per cent per annum up to a limit of ` 2 crores. This subvention will be available for a maximum period of 7 years. Further, credit guarantee coverage will be available for eligible borrowers from this financing facility under Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) scheme for a loan up to ` 2 crores.
Memorandum of Understandings (MoUs) with all 12 public sector banks and 11 private sector banks have been signed by DACandFW. A portal for the scheme has been created. As on 15.01.2021, ` 2991 crores has been ‘in principle’ sanctioned under the scheme to 3055 PACS by NABARD. PACS have submitted 3774 applications for loan amount of ` 2741 crores. 1695 applications have been received through the portal from entities other than PACS of which 964 applications seeking loan of ` 934 crores have been prima facie found eligible and sent to respective banks. Out of 964 applications, 230 have been sanctioned a loan amount of ` 235 crores by banks.
- Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following with respect to regulation of drugs, treatments and medical devices in India:
- Import of both testing kits for novel coronavirus and knee implants is regulated by Drug and Cosmetic Act.
- Approval to the clinical trials of a vaccine is given by Indian Council of Medical Research.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
Approval to clinical trials of a drug, treatment or device is given by CDSCO under Drugs and Cosmetic Act
IncorrectSolution: A
Approval to clinical trials of a drug, treatment or device is given by CDSCO under Drugs and Cosmetic Act
- Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Keibul Lamjao National Park , which of the following statements are correct?
- It is spread across two districts.
- It is created to preserve the natural habitat of the critically endangered Eld’s deer.
- It is well known for floating Islands known as the Phumdis.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
CorrectSolution: B
The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in India. It was created in 1966 as a wildlife sanctuary to preserve the natural habitat of the endangered Eld’s deer.
Phumdis are a series of floating islands, exclusive to the Loktak Lake in Manipur state, in northeastern India. They cover a substantial part of the lake area and are heterogeneous masses of vegetation, soil and organic matter, in different stages of decay.
IncorrectSolution: B
The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in India. It was created in 1966 as a wildlife sanctuary to preserve the natural habitat of the endangered Eld’s deer.
Phumdis are a series of floating islands, exclusive to the Loktak Lake in Manipur state, in northeastern India. They cover a substantial part of the lake area and are heterogeneous masses of vegetation, soil and organic matter, in different stages of decay.
- Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following events related to development of education in India during British rule:
- Macaulay Minute
- Saddler Commission
- Raleigh Commission
- Woods Dispatch
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
CorrectSolution: A
The English Education Act 1835 was a legislative Act of the Council of India, gave effect to a decision in 1835 by Lord William Bentinck, then Governor-General of British India, to reallocate funds the East India Company was required by the British Parliament to spend on education and literature in India.
Sir Charles Wood’s epoch-making Dispatch of 1854, which led to (1) the creation of a separate department for the administration of education in each province, (2) the founding of the universities of Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras in 1857, and (3) the introduction of a system of grants-in-aid. Even when the administration of India passed from the East India Company into the hands of the British crown in 1858, Britain’s secretary of state for India confirmed the educational policy of Wood’s Dispatch.
Raleigh Commission was appointed under the presidency of Sir Thomas Raleigh on 27 January 1902 to inquire into the condition and prospects of universities in India and to recommend proposals for improving their constitution and working.
The Government actually felt the necessity of investigating into the affairs of university education in 1914. Accordingly, a proposal was taken to reform the Indian Universities under the leadership of Lord Halden. But the proposal was not carried into effect due to the outbreak of the First World War Towards the fag end of the war, the Government of India took up the matter again. In 1917 the Government appointed the Calcutta University Commission to study and report on the problem of university education. The commission is also known as the Sadler Commission after the name of its chairman Dr. Michael E. Sadler, the Vice Chancellor of the university of Leeds. The other members of the Commission were Dr. Gregory, Prof. Ramsay Muir, Sir Hartog, Dr. Horniel, Dr. Zia Uddin Ahmed and Sir Asutosh Mukerji. Sir Asutosh Mukerji was the most influential member of the commission. It is said that most of the recommendations of the commission were patterned on his views.
IncorrectSolution: A
The English Education Act 1835 was a legislative Act of the Council of India, gave effect to a decision in 1835 by Lord William Bentinck, then Governor-General of British India, to reallocate funds the East India Company was required by the British Parliament to spend on education and literature in India.
Sir Charles Wood’s epoch-making Dispatch of 1854, which led to (1) the creation of a separate department for the administration of education in each province, (2) the founding of the universities of Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras in 1857, and (3) the introduction of a system of grants-in-aid. Even when the administration of India passed from the East India Company into the hands of the British crown in 1858, Britain’s secretary of state for India confirmed the educational policy of Wood’s Dispatch.
Raleigh Commission was appointed under the presidency of Sir Thomas Raleigh on 27 January 1902 to inquire into the condition and prospects of universities in India and to recommend proposals for improving their constitution and working.
The Government actually felt the necessity of investigating into the affairs of university education in 1914. Accordingly, a proposal was taken to reform the Indian Universities under the leadership of Lord Halden. But the proposal was not carried into effect due to the outbreak of the First World War Towards the fag end of the war, the Government of India took up the matter again. In 1917 the Government appointed the Calcutta University Commission to study and report on the problem of university education. The commission is also known as the Sadler Commission after the name of its chairman Dr. Michael E. Sadler, the Vice Chancellor of the university of Leeds. The other members of the Commission were Dr. Gregory, Prof. Ramsay Muir, Sir Hartog, Dr. Horniel, Dr. Zia Uddin Ahmed and Sir Asutosh Mukerji. Sir Asutosh Mukerji was the most influential member of the commission. It is said that most of the recommendations of the commission were patterned on his views.
- Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsFloud Commission, set up during British rule in India was related to:
CorrectSolution: B
Floud Commission a land revenue commission established by the government of Bengal in 1938. Fazlul huq, a leader of the nikhil banga praja samiti (est. 1929), and subsequently the leader of the krishak praja party (est.1935) was committed to the abolition of the zamindari system and restoring the rights of peasants. This was one of the major items of the KPP 21-point manifesto for the general elections of 1937. The Congress and the muslim league were also highly sympathetic to the peasantry. However, this sympathy was politically grounded on the fact that the peasant vote would be the deciding factor in the ensuing general elections in which the peasant section of voters constituted the absolute majority.
IncorrectSolution: B
Floud Commission a land revenue commission established by the government of Bengal in 1938. Fazlul huq, a leader of the nikhil banga praja samiti (est. 1929), and subsequently the leader of the krishak praja party (est.1935) was committed to the abolition of the zamindari system and restoring the rights of peasants. This was one of the major items of the KPP 21-point manifesto for the general elections of 1937. The Congress and the muslim league were also highly sympathetic to the peasantry. However, this sympathy was politically grounded on the fact that the peasant vote would be the deciding factor in the ensuing general elections in which the peasant section of voters constituted the absolute majority.
- Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Lebanon Reform, Recovery and Reconstruction Framework (3RF)
- It was launched by European Union (EU), the United Nations (UN) and the World Bank Group (WBG).
- It is a people-centered recovery and reconstruction framework focusing on a period of 5 years.
- It was launched in response to the massive explosion on the Port of Beirut.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Four months after the tragic August 4 explosion that rocked the Port of Beirut, the European Union (EU), the United Nations (UN) and the World Bank Group (WBG) launched, in a virtual press conference, a landmark ‘people-centered’ response plan to help Lebanon address the urgent needs of the affected population as well as tackle the related governance, recovery and reconstruction challenges.
The Lebanon Reform, Recovery and Reconstruction Framework (3RF) is part of a comprehensive response to the massive explosion on the Port of Beirut on August 4, 2020. It is a people-centered recovery and reconstruction framework focusing on a period of 18 months that will bridge the immediate humanitarian response and the medium-term recovery and reconstruction efforts to put Lebanon on a path of sustainable development.
The 3RF aims to help Lebanon achieve three central goals in response to the Beirut port explosion. First, a people-centered recovery that returns sustainable livelihoods to the affected population; improves social justice for all, including women, the poor, and other vulnerable groups; and ensures participatory decision making. Second, the reconstruction of critical assets, services, and infrastructure that provides equal access for all to quality basic services and enables sustainable economic recovery. Third, the implementation of reform to support reconstruction and to help restore people’s trust in governmental institutions by improving governance.
To promote a different way of working, the 3RF is designed as a collaborative process that is based on the participation of the government, civil society, the private sector as well as development partners. It is also guided by the overarching principles of transparency, accountability, and inclusion.
IncorrectSolution: B
Four months after the tragic August 4 explosion that rocked the Port of Beirut, the European Union (EU), the United Nations (UN) and the World Bank Group (WBG) launched, in a virtual press conference, a landmark ‘people-centered’ response plan to help Lebanon address the urgent needs of the affected population as well as tackle the related governance, recovery and reconstruction challenges.
The Lebanon Reform, Recovery and Reconstruction Framework (3RF) is part of a comprehensive response to the massive explosion on the Port of Beirut on August 4, 2020. It is a people-centered recovery and reconstruction framework focusing on a period of 18 months that will bridge the immediate humanitarian response and the medium-term recovery and reconstruction efforts to put Lebanon on a path of sustainable development.
The 3RF aims to help Lebanon achieve three central goals in response to the Beirut port explosion. First, a people-centered recovery that returns sustainable livelihoods to the affected population; improves social justice for all, including women, the poor, and other vulnerable groups; and ensures participatory decision making. Second, the reconstruction of critical assets, services, and infrastructure that provides equal access for all to quality basic services and enables sustainable economic recovery. Third, the implementation of reform to support reconstruction and to help restore people’s trust in governmental institutions by improving governance.
To promote a different way of working, the 3RF is designed as a collaborative process that is based on the participation of the government, civil society, the private sector as well as development partners. It is also guided by the overarching principles of transparency, accountability, and inclusion.
- Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsThe general rise in Gini Coefficient may indicate
CorrectSolution: A
Gini Coefficient is a popular statistical measure to gauge the rich-poor income or wealth divide. It measures inequality of a distribution — be it of income or wealth — within nations or States. Its value varies anywhere from zero to 1; zero indicating perfect equality and one indicating the perfect inequality.
Gini Coefficients can be used to compare income distribution of a country over time as well. An increasing trend indicates that income inequality is rising independent of absolute incomes.
A general rise in Gini Coefficient indicates that government policies are not inclusive and may be benefiting the rich more than the poor.
IncorrectSolution: A
Gini Coefficient is a popular statistical measure to gauge the rich-poor income or wealth divide. It measures inequality of a distribution — be it of income or wealth — within nations or States. Its value varies anywhere from zero to 1; zero indicating perfect equality and one indicating the perfect inequality.
Gini Coefficients can be used to compare income distribution of a country over time as well. An increasing trend indicates that income inequality is rising independent of absolute incomes.
A general rise in Gini Coefficient indicates that government policies are not inclusive and may be benefiting the rich more than the poor.
- Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mini Mum Frog:
- It lives in the leaf litters of lowland forests.
- It is one of the smallest frogs in the world
- It is endemic to Western Ghats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Mini mum frog is found in eastern Madagascar, it lives in the leaf litters of lowland forests.
It is one of the smallest frogs in the world, reaching an adult body size of 9.7 mm in males and 11.3 mm in females, it could sit on a thumbtack.
These frogs belong to the subfamily Cophylinae which is endemic to Madagascar.
IncorrectSolution: B
Mini mum frog is found in eastern Madagascar, it lives in the leaf litters of lowland forests.
It is one of the smallest frogs in the world, reaching an adult body size of 9.7 mm in males and 11.3 mm in females, it could sit on a thumbtack.
These frogs belong to the subfamily Cophylinae which is endemic to Madagascar.
- Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsIn the Balance of Payments (BOP), the balance of current account includes
- Balance of trade
- Balance of services and remittances
- Investment and borrowing
Select the correct answer code:
CorrectSolution: A
A country’s current account is one of the two components of its balance of payments, the other being the capital account (also known as the financial account). The current account consists of the balance of trade, balance of services and remittances.
IncorrectSolution: A
A country’s current account is one of the two components of its balance of payments, the other being the capital account (also known as the financial account). The current account consists of the balance of trade, balance of services and remittances.
- Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following national parks/wildlife sanctuaries is/are located along Krishna Basin?
- Bandipur National Park
- Kudremukh National Park
- Nagarjunsagar- Srisailam Tiger reserve
Select the correct answer using the code given below
CorrectSolution: B
Bandipur National Park: The Park is located between the Kabini river in the north and the Moyar river in the south. The Nugu river runs through the park.
IncorrectSolution: B
Bandipur National Park: The Park is located between the Kabini river in the north and the Moyar river in the south. The Nugu river runs through the park.
- Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsRT-PCR is considered to be the gold standard for testing of the novel Coronavirus. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to RT-PCR test?
1.It tests for the presence of antigen in the infected patient making it possible to detect the infection early.
2.It uses polymerase chain reaction to multiply the RNA of SARS-COV2 for molecular testing.
3.It has a test sensitivity of more than 90% making it the gold standard.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: A
- In order to detect the presence of a viral infection the PCR test is used which detects the genetic material from the samples collected from the patients.
- Usually the DNA from the patient’s sample is collected and multiplied manifold using
- PCR which is then detected by a probe.
- However SAR-COV 2 is an RNA virus which cannot be replicated using PCR.
- RNA is reverse-transcripted into DNA which can then be multiplied and then be used for detection using molecular testing.
- The test sensitivity of RT-PCR is around 70%.
IncorrectSolution: A
- In order to detect the presence of a viral infection the PCR test is used which detects the genetic material from the samples collected from the patients.
- Usually the DNA from the patient’s sample is collected and multiplied manifold using
- PCR which is then detected by a probe.
- However SAR-COV 2 is an RNA virus which cannot be replicated using PCR.
- RNA is reverse-transcripted into DNA which can then be multiplied and then be used for detection using molecular testing.
- The test sensitivity of RT-PCR is around 70%.
- Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Siddi Tribes
- They are originated from Africa.
- They are largely living in Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra states.
- They are included in the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
The Siddi community is also known by different synonyms such as Habshi and Badsha. It is believed that they are of African origin because they clearly show the Negroid racial strain in their physical features. Descendants of Bantu people of East Africa, Siddi ancestors were largely brought to India as slaves by Arabs as early as the 7th Century, followed by the Portuguese and the British later on.
At present, the Siddis are living on the western coast of Gujarat, Maharashtra and Karnataka states. In Karnataka, they mainly live in Dharwad, Belagavi and Uttar Kannada districts.
In India, the Union government in 2003, classified Siddis under the list of Scheduled Tribes. They are included in the Centre’s list of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
IncorrectSolution: A
The Siddi community is also known by different synonyms such as Habshi and Badsha. It is believed that they are of African origin because they clearly show the Negroid racial strain in their physical features. Descendants of Bantu people of East Africa, Siddi ancestors were largely brought to India as slaves by Arabs as early as the 7th Century, followed by the Portuguese and the British later on.
At present, the Siddis are living on the western coast of Gujarat, Maharashtra and Karnataka states. In Karnataka, they mainly live in Dharwad, Belagavi and Uttar Kannada districts.
In India, the Union government in 2003, classified Siddis under the list of Scheduled Tribes. They are included in the Centre’s list of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
- Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), consider the following statements:
- The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president.
- The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
- The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the chairman and members of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. It is an independent constitutional body in the sense that it has been directly created by the Constitution. Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment and removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC.
The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition.
The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of
six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
However, they can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing their
resignation to the president.The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the
chairman and members of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated
Fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to vote of Parliament.IncorrectSolution: D
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. It is an independent constitutional body in the sense that it has been directly created by the Constitution. Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment and removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC.
The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India. The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the president, who determines its composition.
The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of
six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
However, they can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing their
resignation to the president.The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the
chairman and members of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated
Fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to vote of Parliament. - Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of recently excavated archaeological sites and their respective states:
Archaeological sites: State:
- Keeladi Tamil Nadu
- Gottiprolu Andhra Pradesh
- Sanauli Uttar Pradesh
- Phupgaon Maharashtra
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
CorrectSolution: D
Excavations in the tiny hamlet of Keeladi prove that an urban civilisation existed in Tamil Nadu in the Sangam era on the banks of the river Vaigai.
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) in its recent excavations in the Gottiprolu village site of Andhra Pradesh has unearthed a large settlement dating back to 2nd century BCE – 1st century BCE. The site of Gottiprolu lies around 80 km from Nellore and 17 km from Naidupet, and is on the right bank of a distributary of the river Swarnamukhi. The excavations have revealed the remains of a huge brick wall that surrounded a large settlement. This huge wall, which forms to be among the more outstanding discoveries from this site, is made of baked bricks and is nearly 2m in height, with an average width of 3.4 m and a length that runs more than 75 m.
Life-sized Vishnu idol unearthed by ASI in Gottiprolu, Andhra Pradesh near Nellore. Based on certain iconographical characteristics, such as the crown or the headgear, the yajnopavita, and dress pattern, ASI has dated the Vishnu murti to be around 8th century CE of the Pallava era.
The Archaeological Survey of India’s (ASI) ongoing excavation of 4,000-year-old burial sites in Uttar Pradesh’s Sanauli has unearthed underground “sacred chambers”, decorated “legged coffins” as well as rice and dal in pots and animal bones buried with the bodies,
The recent excavation carried out by Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) at Maharashtra’s Phupgaon has revealed evidence of an Iron Age settlement in the Vidarbha region. The excavation at the site was taken up between December, 2018 and March, 2019.
The team of ASI took up an intensive survey in the region between Chandur Bazar to Dariyapur of Purna basin at Phupgaon (N 21° 24’ 00.6” E 77° 54’ 11.6”), Amravati district of Maharashtra. The site is situated in the vast meander of the river Purna, a major tributary of Tapi, which used to be a perennial river, but at present is completely dried-up due to the dam construction in the upper stream. The site is situated about 20 m away from the river bed and its one-third portion has been subjected to frequent erosion during the heavy water current in the earlier times.
IncorrectSolution: D
Excavations in the tiny hamlet of Keeladi prove that an urban civilisation existed in Tamil Nadu in the Sangam era on the banks of the river Vaigai.
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) in its recent excavations in the Gottiprolu village site of Andhra Pradesh has unearthed a large settlement dating back to 2nd century BCE – 1st century BCE. The site of Gottiprolu lies around 80 km from Nellore and 17 km from Naidupet, and is on the right bank of a distributary of the river Swarnamukhi. The excavations have revealed the remains of a huge brick wall that surrounded a large settlement. This huge wall, which forms to be among the more outstanding discoveries from this site, is made of baked bricks and is nearly 2m in height, with an average width of 3.4 m and a length that runs more than 75 m.
Life-sized Vishnu idol unearthed by ASI in Gottiprolu, Andhra Pradesh near Nellore. Based on certain iconographical characteristics, such as the crown or the headgear, the yajnopavita, and dress pattern, ASI has dated the Vishnu murti to be around 8th century CE of the Pallava era.
The Archaeological Survey of India’s (ASI) ongoing excavation of 4,000-year-old burial sites in Uttar Pradesh’s Sanauli has unearthed underground “sacred chambers”, decorated “legged coffins” as well as rice and dal in pots and animal bones buried with the bodies,
The recent excavation carried out by Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) at Maharashtra’s Phupgaon has revealed evidence of an Iron Age settlement in the Vidarbha region. The excavation at the site was taken up between December, 2018 and March, 2019.
The team of ASI took up an intensive survey in the region between Chandur Bazar to Dariyapur of Purna basin at Phupgaon (N 21° 24’ 00.6” E 77° 54’ 11.6”), Amravati district of Maharashtra. The site is situated in the vast meander of the river Purna, a major tributary of Tapi, which used to be a perennial river, but at present is completely dried-up due to the dam construction in the upper stream. The site is situated about 20 m away from the river bed and its one-third portion has been subjected to frequent erosion during the heavy water current in the earlier times.
- Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsOut of 3 girls and 6 boys a group of three members is to be formed in such a way that at least one member is a girl. In how many different ways can it be done?
CorrectSolution: D
Total number of possible ways = 9C3 = 84 ways
Required at least one girl in the group of three = total possible ways – ways in which none is girl
None of the members in the group is girl = 6C3 = 20
Therefore, number of ways that at least one girl member = 84-20 = 64 ways
IncorrectSolution: D
Total number of possible ways = 9C3 = 84 ways
Required at least one girl in the group of three = total possible ways – ways in which none is girl
None of the members in the group is girl = 6C3 = 20
Therefore, number of ways that at least one girl member = 84-20 = 64 ways
- Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA five digit number is formed with the digits 1,2,3, 4 and 5 without repetition. Find the probability that the number is divisible by 5?
CorrectSolution: B
5 digit number possible = 5! = 120
To be divisible by 5, the last digit should be 5.
By fixing 5 at unit digit we get 4 ! numbers = 24
Therefore, probability = 24/120 = 1/5
IncorrectSolution: B
5 digit number possible = 5! = 120
To be divisible by 5, the last digit should be 5.
By fixing 5 at unit digit we get 4 ! numbers = 24
Therefore, probability = 24/120 = 1/5
- Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsIf a number is chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, …., 50}, then what is the probability that the chosen number is a perfect square?
CorrectSolution: D
Sample size S = 50
Number of perfect square between 1 and 50 = 7
Probability = 7/50
IncorrectSolution: D
Sample size S = 50
Number of perfect square between 1 and 50 = 7
Probability = 7/50
- Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsIn how many different ways can four books A, B, C and D be arranged one above another in a vertical order such that the books A and B are never in continuous position?
CorrectSolution: B
The number of arrangement in which A and B are not together
= Total number of arrangement – Number of arrangement in which A and B are together
= 4! – 3! x 2! = 24 – 12 = 12IncorrectSolution: B
The number of arrangement in which A and B are not together
= Total number of arrangement – Number of arrangement in which A and B are together
= 4! – 3! x 2! = 24 – 12 = 12 - Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsDirections for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
In the last decade, the banking sector has been restructured with a high degree of automation and products that mainly serve middle-class and upper middle-class society. Today there is need for a new agenda for the banking and non-banking financial services that does not exclude the common man.
Which one of the following is the message that is essentially implied in the above passage?
CorrectSolution: D
Explanation:
The main idea of the passage is to promote the banking and non-banking financial services that do not exclude the common man.
Other options are just means to reach financial Inclusion.
IncorrectSolution: D
Explanation:
The main idea of the passage is to promote the banking and non-banking financial services that do not exclude the common man.
Other options are just means to reach financial Inclusion.