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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
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- Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the drainage system of India:
- Hemavati River is a left bank tributary of River Kaveri.
- River Malaprabha is a tributary of River Krishna.
- River Pranahita is a tributary of River Godavari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
The Hemavati is a river in Karnataka, southern India, an important left bank tributary of the Kaveri.
The Malaprabha River is a tributary of the Krishna River and flows through the state of Karnataka in India. It rises in the Western Ghats at an altitude of 792.4 m in the state’s Belgaum district. The river joins Krishna River at Kudalasangama in Bagalkot district.
The Pranhita River is the largest tributary of Godavari River covering about 34% of its drainage basin conveying the combined waters of the Penganga River, the Wardha River, and the Wainganga River.
IncorrectSolution: D
The Hemavati is a river in Karnataka, southern India, an important left bank tributary of the Kaveri.
The Malaprabha River is a tributary of the Krishna River and flows through the state of Karnataka in India. It rises in the Western Ghats at an altitude of 792.4 m in the state’s Belgaum district. The river joins Krishna River at Kudalasangama in Bagalkot district.
The Pranhita River is the largest tributary of Godavari River covering about 34% of its drainage basin conveying the combined waters of the Penganga River, the Wardha River, and the Wainganga River.
- Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to the Stockholm Convention:
- Parties must take measures to restrict the production and use of the chemicals listed under Annex A.
- Parties must take measures to reduce the unintentional releases of chemicals listed under Annex B into the environment.
- Mercury is a persistent organic pollutant listed under this convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
There’s an exclusive convention to address the adverse effects of mercury – the Minamata Convention. Mercury is not listed under the Stockholm Convention.
POPs in Stockholm Convention:
- Annex A (Elimination): Parties must take measures to eliminate the production and use of the chemicals listed under Annex A. Specific exemptions for use or production are listed in the Annex and apply only to Parties that register for them. PCBs are listed in Annex A.
- Annex B (Restriction): Parties must take measures to restrict the production and use of the chemicals listed under Annex B in light of any applicable acceptable purposes and/or specific exemptions listed in the Annex.
- Annex C (Unintentional production): Parties must take measures to reduce the unintentional releases of chemicals listed under Annex C with the goal of continuing minimization and, where feasible, ultimate elimination.
IncorrectSolution: D
There’s an exclusive convention to address the adverse effects of mercury – the Minamata Convention. Mercury is not listed under the Stockholm Convention.
POPs in Stockholm Convention:
- Annex A (Elimination): Parties must take measures to eliminate the production and use of the chemicals listed under Annex A. Specific exemptions for use or production are listed in the Annex and apply only to Parties that register for them. PCBs are listed in Annex A.
- Annex B (Restriction): Parties must take measures to restrict the production and use of the chemicals listed under Annex B in light of any applicable acceptable purposes and/or specific exemptions listed in the Annex.
- Annex C (Unintentional production): Parties must take measures to reduce the unintentional releases of chemicals listed under Annex C with the goal of continuing minimization and, where feasible, ultimate elimination.
- Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Line of Actual Control
- The Line of Actual Control (LAC) is clarified and confirmed by India and China similar to Line of Control (LOC) by India and Pakistan.
- The LAC mostly passes on the land, but Pangong Tso is a unique place where it passes through the water as well.
- The Line of Actual Control (LAC) was recognised as ceasefire line by the United Nations (UN) after Sino-India War of 1962.
- The border between India and China is not fully demarcated.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Line of Actual Control:
- The Line of Actual Control (LAC) is a notional demarcation line that separates Indian-controlled territory from Chinese-controlled territory in the Sino-Indian border dispute.
- The term is said to have been used by Zhou Enlai in a 1959 letter to Jawaharlal Nehru
- It subsequently referred to the line formed after the 1962 Sino-Indian War, and is part of the Sino-Indian border dispute and it is not recognized by UN.
- The border between India and China is not fully demarcated. As of 2020, India continues to maintain that the McMahon Line is the legal border in the east. China has never accepted that border, stating that Tibet was never independent when it signed the Simla Convention.
- India and China share a boundary that stretches 3,488 km from Ladakh to Arunachal Pradesh. The border dispute still stands unresolved. The border between India and China is not fully demarcated and the Line of Actual Control (LAC) is neither clarified nor confirmed by the two countries.
- The LAC mostly passes on the land, but Pangong Tso is a unique case where it passes through the water as well. Even these points in the water are not mutually agreed upon by India and China.
- The LoC emerged from the 1948 ceasefire line negotiated by the United Nations (UN) after the Kashmir War but LAC was not recognized by UN.
IncorrectSolution: B
Line of Actual Control:
- The Line of Actual Control (LAC) is a notional demarcation line that separates Indian-controlled territory from Chinese-controlled territory in the Sino-Indian border dispute.
- The term is said to have been used by Zhou Enlai in a 1959 letter to Jawaharlal Nehru
- It subsequently referred to the line formed after the 1962 Sino-Indian War, and is part of the Sino-Indian border dispute and it is not recognized by UN.
- The border between India and China is not fully demarcated. As of 2020, India continues to maintain that the McMahon Line is the legal border in the east. China has never accepted that border, stating that Tibet was never independent when it signed the Simla Convention.
- India and China share a boundary that stretches 3,488 km from Ladakh to Arunachal Pradesh. The border dispute still stands unresolved. The border between India and China is not fully demarcated and the Line of Actual Control (LAC) is neither clarified nor confirmed by the two countries.
- The LAC mostly passes on the land, but Pangong Tso is a unique case where it passes through the water as well. Even these points in the water are not mutually agreed upon by India and China.
- The LoC emerged from the 1948 ceasefire line negotiated by the United Nations (UN) after the Kashmir War but LAC was not recognized by UN.
- Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Partners in Population and Development (PPD)
- It is an Inter-governmental Alliance of 27 developed and developing countries.
- It aims to expand and improve South-South collaboration in the fields of family planning and reproductive health.
- The Secretariat of PPD is located in UN Observer’s Office, New York.
- It was created at the International Conference on Population and Development (ICPD) in Cairo in 1994.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: B
Partners in Population and Development (PPD) is an Inter-governmental Alliance of 27 developing countries with a mission to expand and improve South-South collaboration in the fields of family planning and reproductive health, population and development through the governments, NGOs and private sector organizations. It was created at the International Conference on Population and Development (ICPD) in Cairo in 1994.
PPD Members are developing countries committed to the implementation of the ICPD Programme of Action, willing to provide political, technical and financial support to South-South Cooperation.
While there were only 10 developing countries at the time of formation of the Organization in 1994, over the years PPD’s membership has increased to 27 developing countries across Asia, Middle East and North Africa, Sub-Saharan Africa and Latin America covering nearly 60% of total world population.
The Secretariat of PPD is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh. However, it has a Regional Office located in Kampala, Uganda, a UN Observer’s Office, located in New York and a Program Office located in Taicang, China. PPD country offices are located within the Health Ministry of the respective member country.
IncorrectSolution: B
Partners in Population and Development (PPD) is an Inter-governmental Alliance of 27 developing countries with a mission to expand and improve South-South collaboration in the fields of family planning and reproductive health, population and development through the governments, NGOs and private sector organizations. It was created at the International Conference on Population and Development (ICPD) in Cairo in 1994.
PPD Members are developing countries committed to the implementation of the ICPD Programme of Action, willing to provide political, technical and financial support to South-South Cooperation.
While there were only 10 developing countries at the time of formation of the Organization in 1994, over the years PPD’s membership has increased to 27 developing countries across Asia, Middle East and North Africa, Sub-Saharan Africa and Latin America covering nearly 60% of total world population.
The Secretariat of PPD is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh. However, it has a Regional Office located in Kampala, Uganda, a UN Observer’s Office, located in New York and a Program Office located in Taicang, China. PPD country offices are located within the Health Ministry of the respective member country.
- Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- River Amazon drains into the Pacific Ocean.
- St. Louis is located at the confluence of the River Mississippi and the River Missouri.
- The Grand Igna Dam is a proposed hydroelectric dam on the Congo River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
The Amazon River in South America is the largest river by discharge volume of water in the world. The Amazon enters Brazil with only one-fifth of the flow it finally discharges into the Atlantic Ocean.
The Mississippi River is the second-longest river and chief river of the second-largest drainage system on the North American continent. It joins the River Missouri at St. Louis.
The Grand Inga Dam is a proposed hydroelectric dam on the Congo River at Inga Falls in the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
IncorrectSolution: B
The Amazon River in South America is the largest river by discharge volume of water in the world. The Amazon enters Brazil with only one-fifth of the flow it finally discharges into the Atlantic Ocean.
The Mississippi River is the second-longest river and chief river of the second-largest drainage system on the North American continent. It joins the River Missouri at St. Louis.
The Grand Inga Dam is a proposed hydroelectric dam on the Congo River at Inga Falls in the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
- Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the religious practices in India, the “Panchastupanikaya” sect belongs to
CorrectSolution: B
Harishena’s Brihatkathakosha decribes the founding of the five stupas at Mathura. The term ‘Panchastupanikaya’ refers to a Jaina sect that initially developed its base in Varanasi and Mathura, and spread to other areas, including Bengal. Jinasena, famous author of the Adipurana, belonged to this sect.
IncorrectSolution: B
Harishena’s Brihatkathakosha decribes the founding of the five stupas at Mathura. The term ‘Panchastupanikaya’ refers to a Jaina sect that initially developed its base in Varanasi and Mathura, and spread to other areas, including Bengal. Jinasena, famous author of the Adipurana, belonged to this sect.
- Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs):
- Buruli ulcer is caused by Mycobacterium.
- Chagas disease, is a potentially life-threatening illness caused by the protozoan parasite Trypanosoma cruzi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
Buruli ulcer is a chronic debilitating disease that mainly affects the skin and sometimes bones. Buruli ulcer is caused by Mycobacterium and belongs to the family of bacteria that causes tuberculosis and leprosy. Although the causative organism of Buruli ulcer is an environmental bacterium, the mode of transmission to humans remains unknown. The organism produces a unique toxin – mycolactone – that causes the damage to the skin. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to minimizing morbidity, costs and prevent long-term disability.
Chagas disease, also known as American trypanosomiasis, is a potentially life-threatening illness caused by the protozoan parasite Trypanosoma cruzi.
An estimated 6 to 7 million people worldwide are infected with T. cruzi. Chagas disease is found mainly in endemic areas of 21 continental Latin American countries, where it is mostly transmitted when humans come into contact with faeces and/or urine of infected blood-sucking triatomine bugs (vector-borne transmission).
IncorrectSolution: C
Buruli ulcer is a chronic debilitating disease that mainly affects the skin and sometimes bones. Buruli ulcer is caused by Mycobacterium and belongs to the family of bacteria that causes tuberculosis and leprosy. Although the causative organism of Buruli ulcer is an environmental bacterium, the mode of transmission to humans remains unknown. The organism produces a unique toxin – mycolactone – that causes the damage to the skin. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to minimizing morbidity, costs and prevent long-term disability.
Chagas disease, also known as American trypanosomiasis, is a potentially life-threatening illness caused by the protozoan parasite Trypanosoma cruzi.
An estimated 6 to 7 million people worldwide are infected with T. cruzi. Chagas disease is found mainly in endemic areas of 21 continental Latin American countries, where it is mostly transmitted when humans come into contact with faeces and/or urine of infected blood-sucking triatomine bugs (vector-borne transmission).
- Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ancient book Jyotisha Vedanga:
- It is one of the earliest treatises on Astronomy written in lucid Sanskrit.
- It talks about auspicious occasions for conducting rituals and ceremonies.
- It mentions the way to calculate position of full moon and new moon as well as all of the 27 Nakshatras.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
The earliest source dealing exclusively with astronomy is the JyotishaVedanga; from this work, the text of which is corrupt and condensed form.
One learns the rules for calculating the position of the new and full moon amongst the 27 nakshatras, and of the ayanaswhich fall in cycles of 5 years each of 366 days. In 5 solar years were have 67 lunar months, so that if these are taken as equivalent to 62 synodic months, Then a year of 12 months may be retained if the 31st and 62nd months are omitted from each cycle.
The book does not talk about auspicious occasions for conducting rituals and ceremonies, rather it talks about position of astronomical bodies. Based on the position of the astronomical bodies, the occasions are decided. The book directly does not mention auspicious occasions.
IncorrectSolution: C
The earliest source dealing exclusively with astronomy is the JyotishaVedanga; from this work, the text of which is corrupt and condensed form.
One learns the rules for calculating the position of the new and full moon amongst the 27 nakshatras, and of the ayanaswhich fall in cycles of 5 years each of 366 days. In 5 solar years were have 67 lunar months, so that if these are taken as equivalent to 62 synodic months, Then a year of 12 months may be retained if the 31st and 62nd months are omitted from each cycle.
The book does not talk about auspicious occasions for conducting rituals and ceremonies, rather it talks about position of astronomical bodies. Based on the position of the astronomical bodies, the occasions are decided. The book directly does not mention auspicious occasions.
- Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statement s regarding Election Laws
- Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with Delimitation of constituencies.
- Representation of the People Act, 1950 deals with Registration of political parties.
- Petitions regarding electoral disputes shall be filed with respective High court.
- RPA Act 1951, deals with electoral rolls.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
Representation of the People Act, 1950 sought to confer on the President the powers to delimit, after consultation with the Election Commission, the various constituencies for the purpose of elections to fill seats in the House of the People and in the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of States
Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with Registration of political parties.
Petitions regarding electoral disputes shall be filed with respective High court. Appeals lie with supreme court
Representation of the People Act, 1950 provided for the registration of electors for Parliamentary Constituencies and for the Assembly and Council Constituencies, and the qualifications and disqualifications for such registration
IncorrectSolution: C
Representation of the People Act, 1950 sought to confer on the President the powers to delimit, after consultation with the Election Commission, the various constituencies for the purpose of elections to fill seats in the House of the People and in the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of States
Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with Registration of political parties.
Petitions regarding electoral disputes shall be filed with respective High court. Appeals lie with supreme court
Representation of the People Act, 1950 provided for the registration of electors for Parliamentary Constituencies and for the Assembly and Council Constituencies, and the qualifications and disqualifications for such registration
- Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with regard to special mention accounts
- Special Mention Accounts are those assets/accounts that shows symptoms of bad asset quality in the first 90 days itself or before it being identified as NPA.
- The classification of Special Mention Accounts (SMA) was introduced by the RBI in 2017, to identify those accounts that have the potential to become an NPA/Stressed Asset.
- ‘Special Mention’ category of assets is not only on the basis of non-repayment or overdue position but also due to other factors that reflect sickness/irregularities in the account. There will not be any particular provisioning for SMA assets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
The classification of Special Mention Accounts (SMA) was introduced by the RBI in 2014 (not 2017), to identify those accounts that have the potential to become an NPA/Stressed Asset
The other two statements are correct
IncorrectSolution: D
The classification of Special Mention Accounts (SMA) was introduced by the RBI in 2014 (not 2017), to identify those accounts that have the potential to become an NPA/Stressed Asset
The other two statements are correct
- Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian energy exchange limited
- It is the first and largest energy exchange in India.
- It is the trading platform for physical delivery of electricity, Renewable Energy Certificates and Energy Saving Certificates.
- IEX is regulated by Central Electricity Authority (CEA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
INDIAN ENERGY EXCHANGE LIMITED (IEX)
Indian energy exchange limited is the first and largest energy exchange in India providing a nationwide, automated trading platform for physical delivery of electricity, Renewable Energy Certificates and Energy Saving Certificates. The exchange platform enables efficient price discovery and increases the accessibility and transparency of the power market in India while also enhancing the speed and efficiency of trade execution.
Today, more than 6600 participants are registered on our exchange from 29 States, 5 Union Territories (UTs). Over 4,800 registered participants were eligible to trade electricity contracts and over 4,400 registered participants were eligible to trade RECs, as of February 2020. Out of participants registered to trade electricity contacts include 56 distribution companies, over 500 electricity generators and over 4,200 open access consumers. As of February, 2020, in addition to participants who traded electricity contracts, participants registered to trade RECs included over 1,100 renewable energy generators and over 3,200 industry and corporate customers. The benefiting open access consumers belong to various industries such as metal, food processing, textile, cement, ceramic, chemicals, automobiles, information technology industries, institutional, housing and real estate and commercial entities.
The Exchange is a publicly listed company with NSE and BSE. IEX is approved and regulated by Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) and has been operating since 27 June 2008. In August 2016, IEX received three ISO Certifications – ISO 9001:2015 for quality management, ISO 27001:2013 for Information security management and ISO 14001:2015 for environment management.
IncorrectSolution: A
INDIAN ENERGY EXCHANGE LIMITED (IEX)
Indian energy exchange limited is the first and largest energy exchange in India providing a nationwide, automated trading platform for physical delivery of electricity, Renewable Energy Certificates and Energy Saving Certificates. The exchange platform enables efficient price discovery and increases the accessibility and transparency of the power market in India while also enhancing the speed and efficiency of trade execution.
Today, more than 6600 participants are registered on our exchange from 29 States, 5 Union Territories (UTs). Over 4,800 registered participants were eligible to trade electricity contracts and over 4,400 registered participants were eligible to trade RECs, as of February 2020. Out of participants registered to trade electricity contacts include 56 distribution companies, over 500 electricity generators and over 4,200 open access consumers. As of February, 2020, in addition to participants who traded electricity contracts, participants registered to trade RECs included over 1,100 renewable energy generators and over 3,200 industry and corporate customers. The benefiting open access consumers belong to various industries such as metal, food processing, textile, cement, ceramic, chemicals, automobiles, information technology industries, institutional, housing and real estate and commercial entities.
The Exchange is a publicly listed company with NSE and BSE. IEX is approved and regulated by Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) and has been operating since 27 June 2008. In August 2016, IEX received three ISO Certifications – ISO 9001:2015 for quality management, ISO 27001:2013 for Information security management and ISO 14001:2015 for environment management.
- Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of Gulfs and their connecting water bodies:
Gulf: Connecting Water Bodies:
- Gulf of Martaban Arabian Sea
- Gulf of Riga Red Sea
- Gulf of Bo Hai South China Sea
Which of the pairs given above is/are not correctly matched?
CorrectSolution: D
The Gulf of Martaban or the Gulf of Mottama is an arm of the Andaman Sea in the southern part of Myanmar. The gulf is named after the port city of Mottama. The Sittaung, Salween and Yangon rivers empty into it. A characteristic feature of the Gulf of Martaban is that it has a tide-dominated coastline.
The Gulf of Riga, Bay of Riga, or Gulf of Livonia is a bay of the Baltic Sea between Latvia and Estonia. The island of Saaremaa partially separates it from the rest of the Baltic Sea. The main connection between the gulf and the Baltic Sea is the Irbe Strait.
Bohai Gulf, Bo Gulf or Pohai Bay, is a marginal sea approximately 78,000 km² in area on the east coast of mainland China. It is the northwestern and innermost extension of the Yellow Sea, to which it connects to the east via the Bohai Strait.
IncorrectSolution: D
The Gulf of Martaban or the Gulf of Mottama is an arm of the Andaman Sea in the southern part of Myanmar. The gulf is named after the port city of Mottama. The Sittaung, Salween and Yangon rivers empty into it. A characteristic feature of the Gulf of Martaban is that it has a tide-dominated coastline.
The Gulf of Riga, Bay of Riga, or Gulf of Livonia is a bay of the Baltic Sea between Latvia and Estonia. The island of Saaremaa partially separates it from the rest of the Baltic Sea. The main connection between the gulf and the Baltic Sea is the Irbe Strait.
Bohai Gulf, Bo Gulf or Pohai Bay, is a marginal sea approximately 78,000 km² in area on the east coast of mainland China. It is the northwestern and innermost extension of the Yellow Sea, to which it connects to the east via the Bohai Strait.
- Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- NABARD is responsible for the assignment of ‘Lead bank’ responsibility to a designated bank.
- A Lead Bank responsibility is to be designated in every district of India.
- As of now, no private sector bank has been assigned the lead bank responsibility.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: B
The assignment of lead bank responsibility to a designated bank in every district is done by the Reserve Bank.
As at end-June 2020, 12 public sector banks and one private sector bank were assigned lead bank responsibility in 726 districts across the country.
IncorrectSolution: B
The assignment of lead bank responsibility to a designated bank in every district is done by the Reserve Bank.
As at end-June 2020, 12 public sector banks and one private sector bank were assigned lead bank responsibility in 726 districts across the country.
- Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsKholongchhu project, sometimes seen in news, is located in:
CorrectSolution: A
India and Bhutan have signed concession agreement on the 600 MW Kholongchhu hydroelectric project (KHEL).
The 600 MW run-of-the-river project is located on the lower course of the Kholongchhu River in Trashiyangtse district in eastern Bhutan
The project will be the first-ever Joint Venture project to be implemented in Bhutan. The partners of the project are India’s Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam Limited(SJVNL) and Druk Green Power Corporation Limited (DGPC).
India recently completed 720 MW Mangdechhu Hydro Electric Power Project and both sides are in process of expediting the completion of other ongoing projects including the1200MW Punatsangchhu-1 & 1020MW Punatsangchhu-2.
During PM Modi’s visit to Bhutan in August 2019, he along with Bhutan’s PM inaugurated the 720 MW Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project.
IncorrectSolution: A
India and Bhutan have signed concession agreement on the 600 MW Kholongchhu hydroelectric project (KHEL).
The 600 MW run-of-the-river project is located on the lower course of the Kholongchhu River in Trashiyangtse district in eastern Bhutan
The project will be the first-ever Joint Venture project to be implemented in Bhutan. The partners of the project are India’s Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam Limited(SJVNL) and Druk Green Power Corporation Limited (DGPC).
India recently completed 720 MW Mangdechhu Hydro Electric Power Project and both sides are in process of expediting the completion of other ongoing projects including the1200MW Punatsangchhu-1 & 1020MW Punatsangchhu-2.
During PM Modi’s visit to Bhutan in August 2019, he along with Bhutan’s PM inaugurated the 720 MW Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project.
- Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Prime Minister
- Procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister is mentioned in Article 75.
- Term of Prime minister is 5 years.
- Resignation or death of Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers.
- Prime minister takes both oaths of office and secrecy.
- President can appoint only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president,
The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president.
Resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum.
Before the Prime Minister enters upon his office, the president administers to him the oaths of office and secrecy.
Prime Minister recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the president. The President can appoint only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Prime Minister.
IncorrectSolution: C
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president,
The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president.
Resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum.
Before the Prime Minister enters upon his office, the president administers to him the oaths of office and secrecy.
Prime Minister recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the president. The President can appoint only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Prime Minister.
- Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the PM Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PM FME) scheme:
- It has been launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
- It is a central sector scheme.
- It is to be implemented over a period of three years from 2020-21 to 2022-23.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
With a view to providing financial, technical and business support for upgradation of existing micro food processing enterprises, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI) has launched an all India “Centrally Sponsored PM Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PM FME) scheme” to be implemented over a period of five years from 2020-21 to 2024-25 with an outlay of Rs 10,000 crore. The expenditure under the scheme would to be shared in 60:40 ratio between Central and State Governments, in 90:10 ratio with North Eastern and Himalayan States, 60:40 ratio with UTs with legislature and 100% by Centre for other UTs.
The Scheme adopts One District One Product (ODODP) approach to reap benefit of scale in terms of procurement of inputs, availing common services and marketing of products. The States would identify food product for a district keeping in view the existing clusters and availability of raw material.
Existing Individual micro food processing units desirous of upgradation of their unit can avail credit-linked capital subsidy @35% of the eligible project cost with a maximum ceiling of Rs.10 lakh per unit.
The Scheme places special focus on capacity building and research. NIFTEM and IIFPT, two academic and research institutions under MOFPI along with State Level Technical Institutions selected by the States would be provided support for training of units, product development, appropriate packaging and machinery for micro units.
IncorrectSolution: D
With a view to providing financial, technical and business support for upgradation of existing micro food processing enterprises, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI) has launched an all India “Centrally Sponsored PM Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PM FME) scheme” to be implemented over a period of five years from 2020-21 to 2024-25 with an outlay of Rs 10,000 crore. The expenditure under the scheme would to be shared in 60:40 ratio between Central and State Governments, in 90:10 ratio with North Eastern and Himalayan States, 60:40 ratio with UTs with legislature and 100% by Centre for other UTs.
The Scheme adopts One District One Product (ODODP) approach to reap benefit of scale in terms of procurement of inputs, availing common services and marketing of products. The States would identify food product for a district keeping in view the existing clusters and availability of raw material.
Existing Individual micro food processing units desirous of upgradation of their unit can avail credit-linked capital subsidy @35% of the eligible project cost with a maximum ceiling of Rs.10 lakh per unit.
The Scheme places special focus on capacity building and research. NIFTEM and IIFPT, two academic and research institutions under MOFPI along with State Level Technical Institutions selected by the States would be provided support for training of units, product development, appropriate packaging and machinery for micro units.
- Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- A high value of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) helps decrease the value of Reserve Deposit Ratio.
- Higher values of Reserve Deposit Ratio lower the value of the Money Multiplier in the economy.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: B
Justification: Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and StatutoryLiquidity Ratio (SLR) also work through the rdr-route. A high (or low) value ofCRR or SLR helps increase (or decrease) the value of reserve deposit ratio, thusdiminishing (or increasing) the value of the money multiplier and money supplyin the economy in a similar fashion.
Background: RBI can affect the reserve deposit ratio of commercial banks by adjusting the value of the bank rate – which is the rate of interest commercial banks have to pay RBI – if they borrow money from it in case of shortage of reserves. A low (or high) bank rate encourages banks to keep smaller (or greater) proportion of their deposits as reserves, since borrowing from RBI is now less (or more) costly than before. As a result banks use a greater (or smaller) proportion of their resources for giving out loans to borrowers or investors, thereby enhancing (or depressing) the multiplier process via assisting (or resisting) secondary money creation. In short, a low (or high) bank rate reduces (or increases) rdr and hence increases (or decreases) the value of the money multiplier, which is (1 + cdr)/(cdr + rdr). Thus, for any given amount of high powered money, H, total money supply goes up
IncorrectSolution: B
Justification: Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and StatutoryLiquidity Ratio (SLR) also work through the rdr-route. A high (or low) value ofCRR or SLR helps increase (or decrease) the value of reserve deposit ratio, thusdiminishing (or increasing) the value of the money multiplier and money supplyin the economy in a similar fashion.
Background: RBI can affect the reserve deposit ratio of commercial banks by adjusting the value of the bank rate – which is the rate of interest commercial banks have to pay RBI – if they borrow money from it in case of shortage of reserves. A low (or high) bank rate encourages banks to keep smaller (or greater) proportion of their deposits as reserves, since borrowing from RBI is now less (or more) costly than before. As a result banks use a greater (or smaller) proportion of their resources for giving out loans to borrowers or investors, thereby enhancing (or depressing) the multiplier process via assisting (or resisting) secondary money creation. In short, a low (or high) bank rate reduces (or increases) rdr and hence increases (or decreases) the value of the money multiplier, which is (1 + cdr)/(cdr + rdr). Thus, for any given amount of high powered money, H, total money supply goes up
- Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about parliamentary privileges
- Parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president, even though he/she is an integral part of the Parliament.
- Constitution does not expressly mention any parliamentary privilege.
- Parliament has not made any special law to exhaustively codify all the privileges.
- Committee on privileges exists in both the houses of parliament.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
CorrectSolution: A
The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees. These include the attorney general of India and Union ministers. It must be clarified here that the parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president who is also an integral part of the Parliament.
The Constitution (Article 105) expressed mentioned two privileges, that is, freedom of speech in Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings.
Parliament, till now, has not made any special law to exhaustively codify all the privileges. They are based on five sources, namely,
- Constitutional provisions,
- Various laws made by Parliament,
- Rules of both the Houses,
- Parliamentary conventions, and
- Judicial interpretations.
In the Lok Sabha, the Speaker nominates a committee of privileges consisting of 15 members as per respective party strengths. A report is then presented to the House for its consideration. The Speaker may permit a half-hour debate while considering the report. The Speaker may then pass final orders or direct that the report be tabled before the House.
A resolution may then be moved relating to the breach of privilege that has to be unanimously passed. In the Rajya Sabha, the deputy chairperson heads the committee of privileges, that consists of 10 members.
There is no law enacted by the Parliament, breach of privileges are governed by the British Parliamentary conventions
IncorrectSolution: A
The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees. These include the attorney general of India and Union ministers. It must be clarified here that the parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president who is also an integral part of the Parliament.
The Constitution (Article 105) expressed mentioned two privileges, that is, freedom of speech in Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings.
Parliament, till now, has not made any special law to exhaustively codify all the privileges. They are based on five sources, namely,
- Constitutional provisions,
- Various laws made by Parliament,
- Rules of both the Houses,
- Parliamentary conventions, and
- Judicial interpretations.
In the Lok Sabha, the Speaker nominates a committee of privileges consisting of 15 members as per respective party strengths. A report is then presented to the House for its consideration. The Speaker may permit a half-hour debate while considering the report. The Speaker may then pass final orders or direct that the report be tabled before the House.
A resolution may then be moved relating to the breach of privilege that has to be unanimously passed. In the Rajya Sabha, the deputy chairperson heads the committee of privileges, that consists of 10 members.
There is no law enacted by the Parliament, breach of privileges are governed by the British Parliamentary conventions
- Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsGravitation wave astronomy is said to change our understanding of universe in multiple ways. In light of this statement which of the following could be potentially proved with the study of gravitational waves
- Cosmic Inflation
- Unification of fundamental forces
- General theory of relativity
- Dark matter
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: B
Explanation
- Gravitational waves are ripples in space-time produced by oscillation of massive objects like blackholes, neutron stars etc.
- Einstein in his general theory of relativity had redefined the conception of space which was thought to be static background in Newtonian physics.
- According to general theory of relativity space is dynamic in nature modified by and modifying the objects that contain in it. Since the ripples are oscillation of space-time (just like water ripples), it is an evidence for general theory of relativity.
- Within a fraction of second from the big bang the universe expanded rapidly at a stage called cosmic inflation.
- Since all that made up the universe was confined in a small space before this stage, the expansion of such highly dense space should have generated ripples in space-time. Thus if we can detect these ripples from earliest times it will act as an evidence to cosmic inflation.
- Further at this stage the fundamental forces that we know of including gravity, electromagnetic force, strong and weak nuclear forces were unified. Thus studying these ripples will reveal some details about the same.
Gravitational waves also explain dark energy that is responsible for acceleration of the universe today and not dark matter.
IncorrectSolution: B
Explanation
- Gravitational waves are ripples in space-time produced by oscillation of massive objects like blackholes, neutron stars etc.
- Einstein in his general theory of relativity had redefined the conception of space which was thought to be static background in Newtonian physics.
- According to general theory of relativity space is dynamic in nature modified by and modifying the objects that contain in it. Since the ripples are oscillation of space-time (just like water ripples), it is an evidence for general theory of relativity.
- Within a fraction of second from the big bang the universe expanded rapidly at a stage called cosmic inflation.
- Since all that made up the universe was confined in a small space before this stage, the expansion of such highly dense space should have generated ripples in space-time. Thus if we can detect these ripples from earliest times it will act as an evidence to cosmic inflation.
- Further at this stage the fundamental forces that we know of including gravity, electromagnetic force, strong and weak nuclear forces were unified. Thus studying these ripples will reveal some details about the same.
Gravitational waves also explain dark energy that is responsible for acceleration of the universe today and not dark matter.
- Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Name of the Dam River
- Kariba Dam Caroni
- Grand Coulee Columbia
- Guri Dam Zambezi
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
CorrectSolution: C
The Kariba Dam is a double curvature concrete arch dam in the Kariba Gorge of the Zambezi river basin between Zambia and Zimbabwe.
Grand Coulee Dam is a concrete gravity dam on the Columbia River in the U.S. state of Washington, built to produce hydroelectric power and provide irrigation water.
The Simón Bolívar Hydroelectric Plant, also Guri Dam, is a concrete gravity and embankment dam in Bolívar State, Venezuela on the Caroni River.
IncorrectSolution: C
The Kariba Dam is a double curvature concrete arch dam in the Kariba Gorge of the Zambezi river basin between Zambia and Zimbabwe.
Grand Coulee Dam is a concrete gravity dam on the Columbia River in the U.S. state of Washington, built to produce hydroelectric power and provide irrigation water.
The Simón Bolívar Hydroelectric Plant, also Guri Dam, is a concrete gravity and embankment dam in Bolívar State, Venezuela on the Caroni River.
- Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct regarding Pakke Tiger reserve?
- It is bounded by Bhareli or Kameng River in the west and north, and by Pakke River in the east.
- It falls within the Western Himalaya Biodiversity Hotspot.
- Habitat types are lowland semi-evergreen, evergreen forest and broadleaf forests.
- Government is planning to build a highway named North – South Industrial Corridor.
CorrectSolution: B
Pakke Tiger Reserve lies in the foothills of the eastern Himalaya in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.
It is also known as Pakhui Tiger Reserve. It falls within the Eastern Himalaya Biodiversity Hotspot. Habitat types are lowland semi-evergreen, evergreen forest and broadleaf forests.
Arunachal Pradesh government is planning to build a highway named East-West Industrial Corridor which includes a 40-km elevated stretch through the core areas of Pakhui or Pakke Tiger Reserve (PTR).
IncorrectSolution: B
Pakke Tiger Reserve lies in the foothills of the eastern Himalaya in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.
It is also known as Pakhui Tiger Reserve. It falls within the Eastern Himalaya Biodiversity Hotspot. Habitat types are lowland semi-evergreen, evergreen forest and broadleaf forests.
Arunachal Pradesh government is planning to build a highway named East-West Industrial Corridor which includes a 40-km elevated stretch through the core areas of Pakhui or Pakke Tiger Reserve (PTR).
- Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsRecently, artificial photosynthesis using ‘photosheet technology’ is increasingly being explored in pursuit of alternative cleaner source of energy. In this regard consider the following statements with respect to ‘photosheet technology’.
- Unlike artificial leaf, it produces liquid fuel making it better in terms of storage and transport.
- The main limitation of photosheet technology is that it produces by-products that are difficult to separate.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
- Artificial photosynthesis is the process of converting energy from sunlight into chemical energy which is what happens in primary producers like plants.
- Recently there have been efforts to mimic photosynthesis artificially and thus it is emerging as an alternative source of energy, clean and renewable.
- Currently there are two types of technologies performing artificial photosynthesis namely artificial leaf which produces syngas and photosheet technology which produces formic acid.
- While artificial leaf is a cleaner way to produce syngas their main limitation is it produces gas and takes an extra effort to store it in the form of liquid.
- In September 2020 scientists have developed photosheet technology which produces formic acid using sunlight and water
- The fuel is stored as liquid and the process has almost no by-products.
IncorrectSolution: A
- Artificial photosynthesis is the process of converting energy from sunlight into chemical energy which is what happens in primary producers like plants.
- Recently there have been efforts to mimic photosynthesis artificially and thus it is emerging as an alternative source of energy, clean and renewable.
- Currently there are two types of technologies performing artificial photosynthesis namely artificial leaf which produces syngas and photosheet technology which produces formic acid.
- While artificial leaf is a cleaner way to produce syngas their main limitation is it produces gas and takes an extra effort to store it in the form of liquid.
- In September 2020 scientists have developed photosheet technology which produces formic acid using sunlight and water
- The fuel is stored as liquid and the process has almost no by-products.
- Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Apex Committee for Implementation of Paris Agreement (AIPA)
- It is a high-level inter-ministerial chaired by Cabinet Secretary.
- It was constituted by government under section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
- It will formulate guidelines for consideration of projects or activities under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement.
- It will function as a National Authority to regulate carbon markets in India, under Article 2 of the Paris Agreement.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: B
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has constituted a high-level inter-ministerial Apex Committee for Implementation of Paris Agreement (AIPA) under the chairmanship of Secretary, MoEFCC.
The purpose of AIPA is to generate a coordinated response on climate change matters that ensures India is on track towards meeting its obligations under the Paris Agreement including its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC).
Senior officials from fourteen ministries will serve as Members to AIPA who will oversee the progress in implementation of India’s NDC and receive periodic information updates to monitor, review and revisit climate goals to fulfil the requirements of the Paris Agreement.
Another key function of AIPA would be to operate as a National Authority to regulate carbon markets in India under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement, formulate guidelines for consideration of projects or activities under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement, issue guidelines on carbon pricing, market mechanism, and other similar instruments that have a bearing on climate change and NDCs. It will take note of the contributions of the private sector as well as multi-/bi-lateral agencies in the field of climate change and provide guidance for aligning their climate actions with national priorities.
The year 2021 would mark the beginning of implementation of the Paris Agreement and constitution of AIPA is central to strengthening the national systems and institutional arrangements for implementation and monitoring of climate actions. It will also ensure that India maintains its climate leadership as one the few countries in the world whose climate actions are consistent with the goals of the Paris Agreement.
In exercise of the powers conferred under sub-section (3) of section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (29 of 1986), the Central Government constituted the ‘Apex Committee for Implementation of Paris Agreement (AIPA)’.
The Apex Committee for Implementation of Paris Agreement (AIPA) shall exercise and perform the following functions, namely:-
(i) take measures with respect to matters referred to in the clauses (i), (ii) and (iii) of subsection (2) of section 3 of the aforesaid Act and may issue directions under section 5 thereof;
(ii) coordinate communication and reporting of NDCs to UNFCCC;
(iii) define responsibilities of concerned ministries for achieving India’s NDC goals and receive periodic information updates to monitor, review and revisit climate goals to fulfill the requirements of the Paris Agreement;
(iv) develop policies and programmes, if required, to make India’s domestic climate actions compliant with its international obligations;
(v) develop Monitoring, Reporting and Verification (MRV) protocol for National Inventory Management System (NIMS) as per the requirements under the enhanced Transparency Framework of Paris Agreement;
(vi) coordinate communication of National Communications, Biennial Update Reports and Biennial Transparency Reports to UNFCCC;
(vii) function as a National Authority to regulate carbon markets in India, under Article 6.2, Article 6.4 and Article 6.8 of the Paris Agreement in the post-2020 period;
(viii) formulate guidelines for consideration of projects or activities under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement;
IncorrectSolution: B
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has constituted a high-level inter-ministerial Apex Committee for Implementation of Paris Agreement (AIPA) under the chairmanship of Secretary, MoEFCC.
The purpose of AIPA is to generate a coordinated response on climate change matters that ensures India is on track towards meeting its obligations under the Paris Agreement including its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC).
Senior officials from fourteen ministries will serve as Members to AIPA who will oversee the progress in implementation of India’s NDC and receive periodic information updates to monitor, review and revisit climate goals to fulfil the requirements of the Paris Agreement.
Another key function of AIPA would be to operate as a National Authority to regulate carbon markets in India under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement, formulate guidelines for consideration of projects or activities under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement, issue guidelines on carbon pricing, market mechanism, and other similar instruments that have a bearing on climate change and NDCs. It will take note of the contributions of the private sector as well as multi-/bi-lateral agencies in the field of climate change and provide guidance for aligning their climate actions with national priorities.
The year 2021 would mark the beginning of implementation of the Paris Agreement and constitution of AIPA is central to strengthening the national systems and institutional arrangements for implementation and monitoring of climate actions. It will also ensure that India maintains its climate leadership as one the few countries in the world whose climate actions are consistent with the goals of the Paris Agreement.
In exercise of the powers conferred under sub-section (3) of section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (29 of 1986), the Central Government constituted the ‘Apex Committee for Implementation of Paris Agreement (AIPA)’.
The Apex Committee for Implementation of Paris Agreement (AIPA) shall exercise and perform the following functions, namely:-
(i) take measures with respect to matters referred to in the clauses (i), (ii) and (iii) of subsection (2) of section 3 of the aforesaid Act and may issue directions under section 5 thereof;
(ii) coordinate communication and reporting of NDCs to UNFCCC;
(iii) define responsibilities of concerned ministries for achieving India’s NDC goals and receive periodic information updates to monitor, review and revisit climate goals to fulfill the requirements of the Paris Agreement;
(iv) develop policies and programmes, if required, to make India’s domestic climate actions compliant with its international obligations;
(v) develop Monitoring, Reporting and Verification (MRV) protocol for National Inventory Management System (NIMS) as per the requirements under the enhanced Transparency Framework of Paris Agreement;
(vi) coordinate communication of National Communications, Biennial Update Reports and Biennial Transparency Reports to UNFCCC;
(vii) function as a National Authority to regulate carbon markets in India, under Article 6.2, Article 6.4 and Article 6.8 of the Paris Agreement in the post-2020 period;
(viii) formulate guidelines for consideration of projects or activities under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement;
- Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs):
- Tribal groups have been categorized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s by Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Presently, PVTGs reside in 17 States and two Union Territories.
- Arunachal Pradesh do not have any Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
75 tribal groups have been categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s. PVTGs reside in 18 States and UT of A&N Islands.
- Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mammals from colder climates which generally have these adaptations to save from the brutal cold?
- Shorter ears
- Longer limbs
- Large body size
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: B
Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. (This is called the Allen’s Rule.) In the polar seas aquatic mammals like seals have a thick layer of fat (blubber) below their skin that acts as an insulator and reduces loss of body heat.
IncorrectSolution: B
Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. (This is called the Allen’s Rule.) In the polar seas aquatic mammals like seals have a thick layer of fat (blubber) below their skin that acts as an insulator and reduces loss of body heat.
- Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsA boy has six trousers and nine shirts. In how many different ways can he select a trouser and a shirt?
CorrectSolution: B
The boy can select one trouser in 6 ways.
The boy can select one shirt in 9 ways.
The number of ways in which he can select one trouser and one shirt is
= 6 * 9 = 54 ways.
IncorrectSolution: B
The boy can select one trouser in 6 ways.
The boy can select one shirt in 9 ways.
The number of ways in which he can select one trouser and one shirt is
= 6 * 9 = 54 ways.
- Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThe number of arrangements that can be made with the letters of the word MEADOWS so that the vowels occupy the even places?
CorrectSolution: D
The word MEADOWS has 7 letters of which 3 are vowels.
-V-V-V-
As the vowels have to occupy even places, they can be arranged in the 3 even places in 3! i.e., 6 ways. While the consonants can be arranged among themselves in the remaining 4 places in 4! i.e., 24 ways.
Hence the total ways are 24 * 6 = 144.
IncorrectSolution: D
The word MEADOWS has 7 letters of which 3 are vowels.
-V-V-V-
As the vowels have to occupy even places, they can be arranged in the 3 even places in 3! i.e., 6 ways. While the consonants can be arranged among themselves in the remaining 4 places in 4! i.e., 24 ways.
Hence the total ways are 24 * 6 = 144.
- Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsIf two dice are thrown together, what is the probability of getting an even number on one die and an odd number on the other dice?
CorrectSolution: A
The probability of getting an even number on one die and an odd number on the other dice is (Even number in first dice AND odd number in second dice) OR (Odd number in first dice AND even number in second dice)
= (1/2 * 1/2) + (1/2 * 1/2)
= ¼ + ¼
= 2/4 = ½
IncorrectSolution: A
The probability of getting an even number on one die and an odd number on the other dice is (Even number in first dice AND odd number in second dice) OR (Odd number in first dice AND even number in second dice)
= (1/2 * 1/2) + (1/2 * 1/2)
= ¼ + ¼
= 2/4 = ½
- Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsIf a card is drawn from a pack of cards, What is the probability of drawing a spade or a king?
CorrectSolution: B
Probability of getting spade = ¼
Probability of getting a King card = 1/13
Probability of getting King spade = 1/52
The probability of drawing a spade or a king = ¼ + 1/13 – 1/52
IncorrectSolution: B
Probability of getting spade = ¼
Probability of getting a King card = 1/13
Probability of getting King spade = 1/52
The probability of drawing a spade or a king = ¼ + 1/13 – 1/52
- Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsDirections for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
People are always less happy to accept scientific data they feel contradicts their preconceived beliefs. No surprise here; no human likes to be wrong. But science isn’t supposed to care about preconceived notions. Science, at least good science, tells us about the world as it is, and not as some wish it to be. Sometimes what science finds is consistent with a particular religion’s wishes. But usually it is not.
What can be inferred about good science? Select from the given options.
CorrectCorrect Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer to the above question is option B and this can be drawn on the basis of the line “But science isn’t supposed to care about preconceived notions. Science, at least good science, tells us about the world as it is and not as some wish it to be”.
Option A is wrong as there is no relevant point in the passage to draw this conclusion.
Option C is too farfetched and it may not be always true for science and religion to be same.
Option D is wrong as there is no fact in the passage to support this option.
IncorrectCorrect Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer to the above question is option B and this can be drawn on the basis of the line “But science isn’t supposed to care about preconceived notions. Science, at least good science, tells us about the world as it is and not as some wish it to be”.
Option A is wrong as there is no relevant point in the passage to draw this conclusion.
Option C is too farfetched and it may not be always true for science and religion to be same.
Option D is wrong as there is no fact in the passage to support this option.