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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
Post your comments, queries, scores, feedback or suggestions in the comments section. Explode(i.e. bring positivity) this platform with your participation.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements,
- Gandhiji attended the INC session of 1916 at Lucknow where, he met Rajkumar Shukla.
- Gandhiji admired Balgangadhar Tilak and his ideals so he signed up for the membership of the Home Rule League led by Tilak.
- Rowlatt Act imposed restrictions on press and paved way for arresting Nationalists without Trial and imposition of Martial law all across the country, during the Non Cooperation Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Gandhiji attended the INC session of 1916 at Lucknow where, he met Rajkumar Shukla who took him to participate in Champaran Satyagraha.
Gandhiji didn’t take the membership of the Home Rule League.
Rowlatt law didn’t provide for imposition of Martial Law all across the country.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Gandhiji attended the INC session of 1916 at Lucknow where, he met Rajkumar Shukla who took him to participate in Champaran Satyagraha.
Gandhiji didn’t take the membership of the Home Rule League.
Rowlatt law didn’t provide for imposition of Martial Law all across the country.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following list of inscriptions:
- Madhuban inscription
- Allahabad prashasti
- Ravikirti’s inscription
- Eran boar inscription
What is the correct chronological order of the creation of the above inscriptions?
Correct
Solution: C
- Allahabad prashasti: Samudragupta, 4th Century
- Eran boar inscription: Early 6th century inscription of Huna ruler Toramana
- Madhuban inscription: Inscription of Harshavardhana in his 25th regnal year (631 AD)
- Ravikirti’s inscription: A prashasti of Pulakeshin II (Chalukyas of Badami), 634 AD
Apart from the schism edict of Ashoka, the Allahabad-Kosam pillar has the famous Allahabad prashasti of the Gupta emperor Samudragupta. It also has an inscription giving the genealogy of the Mughal emperor Jahangir. This pillar, carrying three emperors’ inscriptions, ranging across some 2,000 years, is unique.
The Banskhera (628 AD) and Madhuban (631 AD)inscriptions refer to Harshavardhana’s camp of victory containing boats, elephants, and horses. It is possible that the king himself composed the text of the Banskhera and Madhuban inscriptions. The Banskhera inscription has the king’s signature and shows his calligraphic skills.
The Meguti temple at Aihole (Bagalkot district, Karnataka) stands on top of a hill, commanding a panoramic view of the surrounding countryside, including a large crop of megaliths nearby. Embedded in the eastern wall of this Jaina temple is a 19-line inscription in Sanskrit verse, written in the southern script typical of the 7th century. The inscription is dated in the year 556 (of the Shaka era), i.e., 634–35 CE. The composer, a poet named Ravikirti, was also the one who had the temple built. The inscription is a prashasti of the Chalukyas, especially the reigning king Pulakeshin II, who is referred to as Satyashraya (the abode of truth). It contains many details about the history of this dynasty, but its literary merits are also great.
The Eran boar inscription is a colossal, free standing image of the god in his boar incarnation, depicted here in entirely animal form. The boar’s body is completely covered with row after row of miniature sages, who are supposed to have taken refuge in his bristles. The earth-goddess clings to one of his tusks. An inscription on the sculpture indicates that it was executed during the reign of the Huna ruler Toramana.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Allahabad prashasti: Samudragupta, 4th Century
- Eran boar inscription: Early 6th century inscription of Huna ruler Toramana
- Madhuban inscription: Inscription of Harshavardhana in his 25th regnal year (631 AD)
- Ravikirti’s inscription: A prashasti of Pulakeshin II (Chalukyas of Badami), 634 AD
Apart from the schism edict of Ashoka, the Allahabad-Kosam pillar has the famous Allahabad prashasti of the Gupta emperor Samudragupta. It also has an inscription giving the genealogy of the Mughal emperor Jahangir. This pillar, carrying three emperors’ inscriptions, ranging across some 2,000 years, is unique.
The Banskhera (628 AD) and Madhuban (631 AD)inscriptions refer to Harshavardhana’s camp of victory containing boats, elephants, and horses. It is possible that the king himself composed the text of the Banskhera and Madhuban inscriptions. The Banskhera inscription has the king’s signature and shows his calligraphic skills.
The Meguti temple at Aihole (Bagalkot district, Karnataka) stands on top of a hill, commanding a panoramic view of the surrounding countryside, including a large crop of megaliths nearby. Embedded in the eastern wall of this Jaina temple is a 19-line inscription in Sanskrit verse, written in the southern script typical of the 7th century. The inscription is dated in the year 556 (of the Shaka era), i.e., 634–35 CE. The composer, a poet named Ravikirti, was also the one who had the temple built. The inscription is a prashasti of the Chalukyas, especially the reigning king Pulakeshin II, who is referred to as Satyashraya (the abode of truth). It contains many details about the history of this dynasty, but its literary merits are also great.
The Eran boar inscription is a colossal, free standing image of the god in his boar incarnation, depicted here in entirely animal form. The boar’s body is completely covered with row after row of miniature sages, who are supposed to have taken refuge in his bristles. The earth-goddess clings to one of his tusks. An inscription on the sculpture indicates that it was executed during the reign of the Huna ruler Toramana.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements,
- Gandhiji and Jawaharlal Nehru were named as the leaders of the struggle during the AICC Meeting at Gowalia Tank in Bombay, 1942.
- There were widespread Hindu Muslim Communal Clashes during the Quit India Movement and Bengal was worst-hit.
- Indians occupying higher Bureaucratic positions actively supported the Quit India Movement.
- Gandhiji condemned the widespread violence during the Quit India movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Only Gandhi was declared as the leader of the Movement
There was no communal violence during the Quit India Movement
Indian bureaucracy largely remained loyal to the British Indian Govt.
Gandhi didn’t condemn the violence during the Quit India Movement, he was of the opinion that Violence by the masses was a reaction to the greater violence by the Government.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Only Gandhi was declared as the leader of the Movement
There was no communal violence during the Quit India Movement
Indian bureaucracy largely remained loyal to the British Indian Govt.
Gandhi didn’t condemn the violence during the Quit India Movement, he was of the opinion that Violence by the masses was a reaction to the greater violence by the Government.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements,
- Sardar Patel played a prominent role during Kheda Satyagraha (1917) and Bardoli Satyagraha (1928).
- Sardar Patel led the Satyagraha movement in Nagpur (1923) against the British Law of Banning the hoisting of Indian Law.
- Sardar Patel was not in favour of resignation of INC Provincial ministries, in 1939.
- Sardar Patel Advocated the progressive income tax on Agricultural income above a fixed level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Sardar Patel played a prominent role during Kheda Satyagraha (1917) and Bardoli Satyagraha (1928).
Sardar Patel led the Satyagraha movement in Nagpur (1923) against the British Law of Banning the hoisting of Indian Law
Patel supported Nehru’s stance of asking the INC Provincial Ministries to resign.
Sardar Patel Advocated the progressive income tax on Agricultural income above a fixed level (Source: Karachi Resolution, 1931).
Incorrect
Solution: B
Sardar Patel played a prominent role during Kheda Satyagraha (1917) and Bardoli Satyagraha (1928).
Sardar Patel led the Satyagraha movement in Nagpur (1923) against the British Law of Banning the hoisting of Indian Law
Patel supported Nehru’s stance of asking the INC Provincial Ministries to resign.
Sardar Patel Advocated the progressive income tax on Agricultural income above a fixed level (Source: Karachi Resolution, 1931).
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements,
- Shyamji Krishna Verma was the founder of Indian Home rule society and he also founded India House at London with the help of V D Savarkar.
- C Rajagopalachari served as the editor of Young India newspaper
- Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya played a prominent role in putting an end to Indian Indenture system in the Caribbean region.
- Motilal Nehru was the main architect behind formulation of Nehru Report (1928) and he presided the INC annual session only once in Calcutta, 1928.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
SK Verma alone founded India house and V D Savarkar joined India House later as a student.
C Rajagopalachari served as the editor of Young India newspaper
Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya played a prominent role in putting an end to Indian Indenture system in the Caribbean region
Motilal Nehru presided the INC annual sessions twice 1919 (Amritsar) and 1928 (Calcutta).
Incorrect
Solution: C
SK Verma alone founded India house and V D Savarkar joined India House later as a student.
C Rajagopalachari served as the editor of Young India newspaper
Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya played a prominent role in putting an end to Indian Indenture system in the Caribbean region
Motilal Nehru presided the INC annual sessions twice 1919 (Amritsar) and 1928 (Calcutta).
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements,
- During its 28 Months rule, Congress Provincial Ministries got the complete support of the Second Chamber (Legislative Council), with regard to the Agrarian reforms though it was dominated by Zamindars, Money lenders and Capitalists.
- Congress didn’t accept the Wavell’s proposal as it proposed equal representation of both Hindu and Muslims in Viceroy’s Executive Council, which if agreed would reduce the status of INC as a “Hindu organization”.
- As per the Cabinet Mission plan, Provinces were to be given complete autonomy and residuary powers were given to the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Legislative council created numerous hurdles for passage of Agrarian reforms
Congress didn’t accept the Wavell’s proposal as it proposed equal representation of both Hindu and Muslims in Viceroy’s Executive Council, which if agreed would reduce the status of INC as a “Hindu organization”.
Residuary powers were also given to the Provinces, not Centre.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Legislative council created numerous hurdles for passage of Agrarian reforms
Congress didn’t accept the Wavell’s proposal as it proposed equal representation of both Hindu and Muslims in Viceroy’s Executive Council, which if agreed would reduce the status of INC as a “Hindu organization”.
Residuary powers were also given to the Provinces, not Centre.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to British Land Revenue Policies in India,
- In Permanent Settlement, with an intention to secure maximum amount of Land Revenue, the initial fixation of Land Revenue was made in consultation with Zamindars in Bengal region.
- In Ryotwari Settlement, land revenue was considered as a rent and not a tax. Also, British retained the right to enhance land revenue at will.
- In Mahalwari Settlement, Revenue settlements were made with Landlords of the Village (Mahals) or the Estate and the land revenue was Permanently fixed in this system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Initial fixation of Land Revenue was made arbitrarily, without consulting the Zamindars.
In Ryotwari Settlement, land revenue was considered as a rent and not a tax. Also, British retained the right to enhance land revenue at will.
Even though other features of this settlement are similar to Zamindari or Permanent Settlement, Land Revenue was not permanently fixed. British had the right to revise it periodically
Incorrect
Solution: B
Initial fixation of Land Revenue was made arbitrarily, without consulting the Zamindars.
In Ryotwari Settlement, land revenue was considered as a rent and not a tax. Also, British retained the right to enhance land revenue at will.
Even though other features of this settlement are similar to Zamindari or Permanent Settlement, Land Revenue was not permanently fixed. British had the right to revise it periodically
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the Following statements with reference to Lord Cornwallis,
- During his reign, Indian Civil services were rigid and Indians were completely excluded from it, as the higher Administrative positions with Salary more than 500 pounds a year, were reserved for Englishmen.
- Lord Cornwallis established College in Fort Williams at Calcutta for the education of Young recruits of Civil Services.
- He established and modernized the regular police force in India to maintain law and order and Indian Police system was better organized than British System of Police.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
During Lord Cornwallis’ reign, Indian Civil services were rigid and Indians were completely excluded from it, as the higher Administrative positions with Salary more than 500 pounds a year, were reserved for Englishmen.
Lord Wellesley established College in Fort Williams at Calcutta for the education of Young recruits of Civil Services.
Due to the reforms of Cornwallis Indian Police system was better organized than any contemporary police forces.
Incorrect
Solution: B
During Lord Cornwallis’ reign, Indian Civil services were rigid and Indians were completely excluded from it, as the higher Administrative positions with Salary more than 500 pounds a year, were reserved for Englishmen.
Lord Wellesley established College in Fort Williams at Calcutta for the education of Young recruits of Civil Services.
Due to the reforms of Cornwallis Indian Police system was better organized than any contemporary police forces.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements,
- Raja Rammohan Roy demanded the permanent fixation of maximum rent paid by the cultivators under the Permanent settlement of 1793 and condemned the oppressive practices of Zamindars on Peasants.
- Derozians advocated the promotion of Women education and also, they took up the cause of peasants and condemned the ruthless methods of revenue collection by some Zamindars.
- Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar played a prominent role in passage of Hindu Widow Remarriage Act (1856) and Lord Canning implemented it, in letter and spirit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Raja Rammohan Roy demanded the permanent fixation of maximum rent paid by the cultivators under the Permanent settlement of 1793 and condemned the oppressive practices of Zamindars on Peasants
Derozians didn’t take up the cause of Peasants as they Couldn’t find support for their cause from any section of the society.
Hindu Widow Remarriage Act (1856) was passed during times of Lord Dalhousie but was implemented by Lord Canning.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Raja Rammohan Roy demanded the permanent fixation of maximum rent paid by the cultivators under the Permanent settlement of 1793 and condemned the oppressive practices of Zamindars on Peasants
Derozians didn’t take up the cause of Peasants as they Couldn’t find support for their cause from any section of the society.
Hindu Widow Remarriage Act (1856) was passed during times of Lord Dalhousie but was implemented by Lord Canning.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following Statements,
- Birsa Munda was influenced by Sermons of Christian Missionaries and Vaishnava Preachings, in his early days.
- Birsa Munda wanted to reform the tribal society and therefore, he urged Munda’s to stop the consumption of liquor, improve Cleanliness in their surroundings and stop believing in Superstitions.
- Birsa Munda and his followers targeted the symbols of Diku’s and European powers like police stations.
- Munda’s used ‘Red’ flag as the symbol of “Birsa Raj” and urged their fellow tribesmen to recover their lost glory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Birsa Munda was influenced by Sermons of Christian Missionaries and Vaishnava Preachings, in his early days.
Birsa Munda wanted to reform the tribal society and therefore, he urged Munda’s to stop the consumption of liquor, improve Cleanliness in their surroundings and stop believing in Superstitions.
Birsa Munda and his followers targeted the symbols of Diku’s and European powers like police stations.
Munda’s used White flags as the symbol of Birsa Raj.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Birsa Munda was influenced by Sermons of Christian Missionaries and Vaishnava Preachings, in his early days.
Birsa Munda wanted to reform the tribal society and therefore, he urged Munda’s to stop the consumption of liquor, improve Cleanliness in their surroundings and stop believing in Superstitions.
Birsa Munda and his followers targeted the symbols of Diku’s and European powers like police stations.
Munda’s used White flags as the symbol of Birsa Raj.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Malik Ambar served as an officer under Mughals.
- Mughal Prince Khurram revolted against Jahangir.
- Jahanghir executed Sikh Guru Arjan Singh.
- Nur Jahan was considered to be the virtual ruler during the reign of Jahangir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Malik Ambar, however, fought his first face to face battle with the Mughuls in 1601-1602 A.D. at Mander where he was seriously injured though escaped from death. But Malik Ambar could not cooperate with Malik Raju as he proved his contender to capture power and influence at the court of Ahmadnagar. Therefore, he accepted the service of the Mughuls twice but realised that his future did not lie with them.
In 1606, Jahangir’s eldest son Khusrav and an aspirant of the throne revolted but was defeated. The revolt of Khusrav resulted in some other revolts but all of them were of a minor nature and were suppressed. But this revolt seriously disturbed the relations of the Mughuls with the Sikhs. Jahangir imposed a fine of rupees two lakhs on the Sikh Guru Arjun Singh as he had blessed prince Khusrav. He refused to pay the fine and was punished by death by Jahangir. The Sikhs regarded it as an oppression of their religion which resulted in the beginning of bitter relations between the Sikhs and the Mughuls.
Jahangir ruled for about 22 years but for about 16 years he was only a ruler in name only as during this period, his wife Nur Jahan was the virtual ruler.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Malik Ambar, however, fought his first face to face battle with the Mughuls in 1601-1602 A.D. at Mander where he was seriously injured though escaped from death. But Malik Ambar could not cooperate with Malik Raju as he proved his contender to capture power and influence at the court of Ahmadnagar. Therefore, he accepted the service of the Mughuls twice but realised that his future did not lie with them.
In 1606, Jahangir’s eldest son Khusrav and an aspirant of the throne revolted but was defeated. The revolt of Khusrav resulted in some other revolts but all of them were of a minor nature and were suppressed. But this revolt seriously disturbed the relations of the Mughuls with the Sikhs. Jahangir imposed a fine of rupees two lakhs on the Sikh Guru Arjun Singh as he had blessed prince Khusrav. He refused to pay the fine and was punished by death by Jahangir. The Sikhs regarded it as an oppression of their religion which resulted in the beginning of bitter relations between the Sikhs and the Mughuls.
Jahangir ruled for about 22 years but for about 16 years he was only a ruler in name only as during this period, his wife Nur Jahan was the virtual ruler.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with regard to 18th Century India,
- Though 18th Century India was renowned all across the world for its textiles and Handicrafts, it suffered from food shortages owing to the technological backwardness and stagnant production.
- Ship building industry flourished in Maharashtra, Andhra and Bengal, Indian technology was backward and inferior compared to the Europeans
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
India was self sufficient in food production despite technological backwardness, thanks to the hardwork of our farmers.
European Companies bought many Indian-made ships for their use.
Incorrect
Solution: D
India was self sufficient in food production despite technological backwardness, thanks to the hardwork of our farmers.
European Companies bought many Indian-made ships for their use.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsIn the last three years, not only has the number of credit cards issued have increased by over 50%, but also the total value transacted through these credit cards has also increased by 50%. How has this affected India’s money supply if we assume all other factors to have remained constant?
Correct
Solution: B
There is a difference between money supply (which is an asset) and credit (which is a liability).
What we know as money supply is essentially bank deposits + cash/currency with public and some other variables.
When calculating the money supply, the RBI includes financial assets like currency and deposits. In contrast, credit card debts are liabilities. Each credit card transaction creates a new loan from the credit card issuer. Eventually the loan needs to be repaid with a financial asset—money. To households, the line of credit associated with a credit card is not a financial asset, only a convenient vehicle for borrowing to finance a purchase.
So, the Money supply does not change if the public borrows more or borrows less with banks. This is because the money that you spent with your credit card ultimately goes back in the same economy and therefore the total money supply remains constant. You also need to pay back this money to the bank, and this money also comes from the same economy. So, all that is happening in between is that you get more time in between spending and purchasing than you had earlier.
If the money supply depended on total credit in the economy, RBI would not have published M0, M1, M2 and M3 indicators without including total credit.
Think of this the other way – if you borrow from the bank, does the money supply increase? No. If you withdraw money from the bank, does the money supply increase? No. In the former case, more credit is created. In the latter case, no extra credit is created.
You might confuse credit creation with money supply and mark A, C or D as the answer, but this is not correct.
What does happen with using more credit cards is that the money multiplier increases since the velocity of money increases, i.e. banks can now lend more quickly and therefore earn more profits. In other words, money changes hand more quickly and this is profitable not only for the banks (because they get to keep their physical cash plus earn interest/fees on credit card), but also for the consumer since he gets to spend quickly and much more easily.
Incorrect
Solution: B
There is a difference between money supply (which is an asset) and credit (which is a liability).
What we know as money supply is essentially bank deposits + cash/currency with public and some other variables.
When calculating the money supply, the RBI includes financial assets like currency and deposits. In contrast, credit card debts are liabilities. Each credit card transaction creates a new loan from the credit card issuer. Eventually the loan needs to be repaid with a financial asset—money. To households, the line of credit associated with a credit card is not a financial asset, only a convenient vehicle for borrowing to finance a purchase.
So, the Money supply does not change if the public borrows more or borrows less with banks. This is because the money that you spent with your credit card ultimately goes back in the same economy and therefore the total money supply remains constant. You also need to pay back this money to the bank, and this money also comes from the same economy. So, all that is happening in between is that you get more time in between spending and purchasing than you had earlier.
If the money supply depended on total credit in the economy, RBI would not have published M0, M1, M2 and M3 indicators without including total credit.
Think of this the other way – if you borrow from the bank, does the money supply increase? No. If you withdraw money from the bank, does the money supply increase? No. In the former case, more credit is created. In the latter case, no extra credit is created.
You might confuse credit creation with money supply and mark A, C or D as the answer, but this is not correct.
What does happen with using more credit cards is that the money multiplier increases since the velocity of money increases, i.e. banks can now lend more quickly and therefore earn more profits. In other words, money changes hand more quickly and this is profitable not only for the banks (because they get to keep their physical cash plus earn interest/fees on credit card), but also for the consumer since he gets to spend quickly and much more easily.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding The High-Biodiversity Wilderness Areas (HBWA)
- It has been developed by Conservation International (CI).
- It outlines five vast wilderness areas of particularly dense and important levels of biodiversity
- Western Ghats is one of five High Biodiversity Wilderness Areas (HBWA) of the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The High Biodiversity Wilderness Areas (HBWA) approach has been developed by Conservation International (CI). HBWAs consist of 5 major wilderness areas that hold globally significant levels of biodiversity.
The 5 HBWAs are Amazonia, the Congo forests of Central Africa, New Guinea, the Miombo-Mopane woodlands of Southern Africa (including the Okavango Delta), and the North American desert complex of northern Mexico and the Southwestern part of the United States of America. India has no High-Biodiversity Wilderness Areas.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The High Biodiversity Wilderness Areas (HBWA) approach has been developed by Conservation International (CI). HBWAs consist of 5 major wilderness areas that hold globally significant levels of biodiversity.
The 5 HBWAs are Amazonia, the Congo forests of Central Africa, New Guinea, the Miombo-Mopane woodlands of Southern Africa (including the Okavango Delta), and the North American desert complex of northern Mexico and the Southwestern part of the United States of America. India has no High-Biodiversity Wilderness Areas.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about model code of conduct (MCC)
- It is a set of guidelines issued by the ECI to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections
- It is operational from the date on which the election schedule is announced until the day of elections.
- It is part of conduct of elections rules 1961
- According to MCC, district magistrate shall appoint observers to whom any candidates may report problems regarding the conduct of the election.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution : C
MCC is a set of guidelines issued by the EC to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections.
MCC is operational from the date on which the election schedule is announced until the date of result announcement.
MCC does not have any statutory backing, it has come to acquire strength in the past decade because of its strict enforcement by the EC.
The ECI will appoint observers to whom any candidates may report problems regarding the conduct of the election.
Incorrect
Solution : C
MCC is a set of guidelines issued by the EC to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections.
MCC is operational from the date on which the election schedule is announced until the date of result announcement.
MCC does not have any statutory backing, it has come to acquire strength in the past decade because of its strict enforcement by the EC.
The ECI will appoint observers to whom any candidates may report problems regarding the conduct of the election.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsThe National Biofuels Policy 2018 recognized ‘Advanced biofuels’ distinctly from bio-diesel or drop-in fuels. Advanced biofuels are such
- that cannot be used in an automobile without modifications in the engine systems
- that are largely produced from lignocellulosic feedstocks that do not necessarily compete with food resources
- that they are primarily methyl or ethyl ester of fatty acids produced from non-edible vegetable oils
- that they incorporate third generation algae based biofuels
- that they are not derived from industrial waste
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: D
Here are some of the fuels mentioned by the policy:
‘Biodiesel’: a methyl or ethyl ester of fatty acids produced from non-edible vegetable oils, acid oil, used cooking oil or animal fat and bio-oil;
‘Advanced biofuels’: Fuels which are (1) produced from lignocellulosic feedstocks (i.e. agricultural and forestry residues, e.g. rice & wheat straw/corn cobs & stover/bagasse, woody biomass), non-food crops (i.e. grasses, algae), or industrial waste and residue streams, (2) having low CO2 emission or high GHG reduction and do not compete with food crops for land use.
Fuels such as Second Generation (2G) Ethanol, Drop-in fuels, algae based 3G biofuels, bio-CNG, bio-methanol, Di Methyl Ether (DME) derived from bio-methanol, biohydrogen, drop in fuels with MSW as the source / feedstock material will qualify as “Advanced Biofuels”.
‘Drop-in fuels’: Any liquid fuel produced from Biomass, agri-residues, wastes such as Municipal Solid Wastes (MSW), Plastic wastes, Industrial wastes etc. which meets the Indian standards for MS, HSD and Jet fuel, in pure or blended form, for its subsequent utilization in vehicles without any modifications in the engine systems and can utilize existing petroleum distribution system.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Here are some of the fuels mentioned by the policy:
‘Biodiesel’: a methyl or ethyl ester of fatty acids produced from non-edible vegetable oils, acid oil, used cooking oil or animal fat and bio-oil;
‘Advanced biofuels’: Fuels which are (1) produced from lignocellulosic feedstocks (i.e. agricultural and forestry residues, e.g. rice & wheat straw/corn cobs & stover/bagasse, woody biomass), non-food crops (i.e. grasses, algae), or industrial waste and residue streams, (2) having low CO2 emission or high GHG reduction and do not compete with food crops for land use.
Fuels such as Second Generation (2G) Ethanol, Drop-in fuels, algae based 3G biofuels, bio-CNG, bio-methanol, Di Methyl Ether (DME) derived from bio-methanol, biohydrogen, drop in fuels with MSW as the source / feedstock material will qualify as “Advanced Biofuels”.
‘Drop-in fuels’: Any liquid fuel produced from Biomass, agri-residues, wastes such as Municipal Solid Wastes (MSW), Plastic wastes, Industrial wastes etc. which meets the Indian standards for MS, HSD and Jet fuel, in pure or blended form, for its subsequent utilization in vehicles without any modifications in the engine systems and can utilize existing petroleum distribution system.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following species is/are critically endangered species in India?
- Himalayan Brown Bear
- Asiatic Lion
- Malabar Civet
- Namdapha Flying Squirrel
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
Himalayan Brown Bear: Range: North-western and central Himalaya, including India, Pakistan, Nepal, the Tibetan Autonomous Region of China and Bhutan. Habitat of it is High altitude open valleys and pastures. Status: IUCN Red List- Critically endangered.
Asiatic Lions: Listed as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List. Its population is restricted to the state of Gujarat in India.
Malabar Civet: Malabar Civet is a nocturnal and elusive animal. It is endemic to Western Ghats of India. IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Himalayan Brown Bear: Range: North-western and central Himalaya, including India, Pakistan, Nepal, the Tibetan Autonomous Region of China and Bhutan. Habitat of it is High altitude open valleys and pastures. Status: IUCN Red List- Critically endangered.
Asiatic Lions: Listed as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List. Its population is restricted to the state of Gujarat in India.
Malabar Civet: Malabar Civet is a nocturnal and elusive animal. It is endemic to Western Ghats of India. IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
- It is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation.
- It is a Eurasian political, economic and security organisation aiming to maintain peace, security and stability.
- The SCO is seen as a counter-balance to the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).
- The SCO covers 40% of the global population, nearly 20% of the global GDP and 22% of the world’s land mass.
- Currently, SCO comprises of fourteen observer states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
- It is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation.
- Its creation was announced on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai (China) by the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, and the Republic of Uzbekistan.
- It’s a Eurasian political, economic and military organisation aiming to maintain peace, security and stability in the region.
- It was preceded by the Shanghai Five mechanism.
- The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation Charter was signed during the St.Petersburg SCO Heads of State meeting in June 2002, and entered into force on 19 September 2003.
- The SCO’s official languages are Russian and Chinese.
- The SCO is seen as a counter-balance to the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).
The SCO’s main goals are as follows:
- Strengthening mutual trust and neighbourliness among the member states; promoting their effective cooperation in politics, trade, the economy, research, technology and culture, as well as in education, energy, transport, tourism, environmental protection, and other areas; making joint efforts to maintain and ensure peace, security and stability in the region; and moving towards the establishment of a democratic, fair and rational new international political and economic order.
Strengths of SCO:
- The SCO covers 40%of the global population, nearly 20% of the global GDP and 22% of the world’s land mass.
- The SCO has a strategically important role in Asia due to its geographical significance – this enables it to control the Central Asia and limit the American influence in region.
Bodies under SCO:
- Heads of State Council (HSC) is the supreme decision-making body in the SCO. It meets once a year and adopts decisions and guidelines on all important matters of the organisation.
- SCO Heads of Government Council (HGC) meets once a year to discuss the organisation’s multilateral cooperation strategy and priority areas, to resolve current important economic and other cooperation issues, and also to approve the organisation’s annual budget.
- The organisation has two permanent bodies — the SCO Secretariat based in Beijing and the Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in Tashkent.
- The SCO Secretary-General and the Director of the Executive Committee of the SCO RATS are appointed by the Council of Heads of State for a term of three years.
Currently:
- SCO comprises eight member states, namely the Republic of India, the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Islamic Republic of Pakistan, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, and the Republic of Uzbekistan;
- SCO counts four observer states, namely the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan, the Republic of Belarus, the Islamic Republic of Iran and the Republic of Mongolia.
- SCO has six dialogue partners, namely the Republic of Azerbaijan, the Republic of Armenia, the Kingdom of Cambodia, the Federal Democratic Republic of Nepal, the Republic of Turkey, and the Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
- It is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation.
- Its creation was announced on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai (China) by the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, and the Republic of Uzbekistan.
- It’s a Eurasian political, economic and military organisation aiming to maintain peace, security and stability in the region.
- It was preceded by the Shanghai Five mechanism.
- The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation Charter was signed during the St.Petersburg SCO Heads of State meeting in June 2002, and entered into force on 19 September 2003.
- The SCO’s official languages are Russian and Chinese.
- The SCO is seen as a counter-balance to the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).
The SCO’s main goals are as follows:
- Strengthening mutual trust and neighbourliness among the member states; promoting their effective cooperation in politics, trade, the economy, research, technology and culture, as well as in education, energy, transport, tourism, environmental protection, and other areas; making joint efforts to maintain and ensure peace, security and stability in the region; and moving towards the establishment of a democratic, fair and rational new international political and economic order.
Strengths of SCO:
- The SCO covers 40%of the global population, nearly 20% of the global GDP and 22% of the world’s land mass.
- The SCO has a strategically important role in Asia due to its geographical significance – this enables it to control the Central Asia and limit the American influence in region.
Bodies under SCO:
- Heads of State Council (HSC) is the supreme decision-making body in the SCO. It meets once a year and adopts decisions and guidelines on all important matters of the organisation.
- SCO Heads of Government Council (HGC) meets once a year to discuss the organisation’s multilateral cooperation strategy and priority areas, to resolve current important economic and other cooperation issues, and also to approve the organisation’s annual budget.
- The organisation has two permanent bodies — the SCO Secretariat based in Beijing and the Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in Tashkent.
- The SCO Secretary-General and the Director of the Executive Committee of the SCO RATS are appointed by the Council of Heads of State for a term of three years.
Currently:
- SCO comprises eight member states, namely the Republic of India, the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Islamic Republic of Pakistan, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, and the Republic of Uzbekistan;
- SCO counts four observer states, namely the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan, the Republic of Belarus, the Islamic Republic of Iran and the Republic of Mongolia.
- SCO has six dialogue partners, namely the Republic of Azerbaijan, the Republic of Armenia, the Kingdom of Cambodia, the Federal Democratic Republic of Nepal, the Republic of Turkey, and the Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Paintings with themes of royalty are found at Bhimbetka.
- No paintings are found at Brihadeswara temple.
- Vijayanagara paintings are found at Hampi as well as Lepakshi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The themes of paintings found at Bhimbetka are of great variety, ranging from mundane events of daily life in those times to sacred and royal images. These include hunting, dancing, music, horse and elephant riders, animal fighting, honey collection, decoration of bodies, and other household scenes.
Artwork as recent as from 400 years ago has been found. It is comparatively modern, showing kings on horseback, and sword- and shield-wielding soldiers.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The themes of paintings found at Bhimbetka are of great variety, ranging from mundane events of daily life in those times to sacred and royal images. These include hunting, dancing, music, horse and elephant riders, animal fighting, honey collection, decoration of bodies, and other household scenes.
Artwork as recent as from 400 years ago has been found. It is comparatively modern, showing kings on horseback, and sword- and shield-wielding soldiers.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following statements about the site of Sannati is true?
Correct
Solution: C
Major rock edicts of Ashoka are found at Sannati. It is the largest stupa site excavated in Karnataka. The occupation of Sannati seems to have begun in the Maurya period (there is no evidence of earlier occupation)
Incorrect
Solution: C
Major rock edicts of Ashoka are found at Sannati. It is the largest stupa site excavated in Karnataka. The occupation of Sannati seems to have begun in the Maurya period (there is no evidence of earlier occupation)
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWith reference to major religious teachers of Medieval India, which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Basava (12th century) was a Hindu religious reformer, teacher, theologian, and administrator of the royal treasury of the Kalachuri dynasty King Bijjala I (1156–67).
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsThat the central government shall not borrow from the Reserve Bank of India except by way of advances to meet temporary excess of cash disbursements over cash receipts is a provision found under the
Correct
Solution: c)
The Act mandates the central government to take appropriate measures to reduce fiscal deficit and revenue deficits so as to eliminate the revenue deficit by March 31, 2009 and thereafter build up adequate revenue surplus.
- It requires the reduction in fiscal deficit by 0.3 per cent of GDP each year and the revenue deficit by 0.5 per cent. If this is not achieved through tax revenues, the necessary adjustment has to come from a reduction in expenditure.
- The actual deficits may exceed the targets specified only on grounds of national security or natural calamity or such other exceptional grounds as the central government may specify.
- The central government shall not borrow from the Reserve Bank of India except by way of advances to meet temporary excess of cash disbursements over cash receipts.
- The Reserve Bank of India must not subscribe to the primary issues of central government securities from the year 2006-07.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The Act mandates the central government to take appropriate measures to reduce fiscal deficit and revenue deficits so as to eliminate the revenue deficit by March 31, 2009 and thereafter build up adequate revenue surplus.
- It requires the reduction in fiscal deficit by 0.3 per cent of GDP each year and the revenue deficit by 0.5 per cent. If this is not achieved through tax revenues, the necessary adjustment has to come from a reduction in expenditure.
- The actual deficits may exceed the targets specified only on grounds of national security or natural calamity or such other exceptional grounds as the central government may specify.
- The central government shall not borrow from the Reserve Bank of India except by way of advances to meet temporary excess of cash disbursements over cash receipts.
- The Reserve Bank of India must not subscribe to the primary issues of central government securities from the year 2006-07.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following organisations were formed by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar?
- Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha
- All-India Depressed Classes League
- Harijan Sevak Sangh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution: C
Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha is a central institution formed by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar for removing difficulties of the untouchables and placing their grievances before government. In order to bring about a new socio-political awareness among the untouchables, Dr.Babasaheb Ambedkar established “Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabaha” on 20 July 1924 at Bombay.
Babu Jagjivan Ram played a role in the founding (1935) of the All-India Depressed Classes League, an organization dedicated to attaining equality for Dalits.
Harijan Sevak Sangh is a non-profit organisation founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 to eradicate untouchability in India, working for Harijan or Dalit people and upliftment of scheduled castes of India.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha is a central institution formed by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar for removing difficulties of the untouchables and placing their grievances before government. In order to bring about a new socio-political awareness among the untouchables, Dr.Babasaheb Ambedkar established “Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabaha” on 20 July 1924 at Bombay.
Babu Jagjivan Ram played a role in the founding (1935) of the All-India Depressed Classes League, an organization dedicated to attaining equality for Dalits.
Harijan Sevak Sangh is a non-profit organisation founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 to eradicate untouchability in India, working for Harijan or Dalit people and upliftment of scheduled castes of India.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
- The Commission was set up on the recommendation of the K.Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
- CVC has the power to call for any file from CBI or to direct CBI to investigate any case in a particular manner.
- It submits its report to the parliament.
- The CVC is directly controlled by Ministry of Finance.
- The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office only the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Central Vigilance Commission:
- It is the apex vigilance institution created via executive resolution (based on the recommendations of Santhanam committee) in 1964 but was conferred with statutory status in 2003
- It submits its report to the President of India.
- Composition: Consists of central vigilance commissioner along with 2 vigilance commissioners.
- Appointment: They are appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a committee consisting of Prime Minister, Union Home Minister and Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha (if there is no LoP then the leader of the single largest Opposition party in the Lok Sabha).
- Term: Their term is 4 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier.
- Removal: The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office only by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed.
- The CVC is not controlled by any Ministry/Department. It is an independent body which is only responsible to the Parliament.
Limitations of CVC:
- CVC is only an advisory body. Central Government Departments are free to either accept or reject CVC’s advice in corruption cases.
- CVC does not have adequate resources compared with number of complaints that it receives. It is a very small set up with a sanctioned staff strength of 299. Whereas, it is supposed to check corruption in more than 1500 central government departments and ministries.
- CVC cannot direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer of the level of Joint Secretary and above on its own. Such a permission has to be obtained from the concerned department.
- However, this provision is declared unconstitutional by Supreme court in a 2014 judgement in case filed by Subramaniam Swamy. Hon’ble Supreme Court of India in its judgement stated that merely the post of a person cannot keep him above the law, stating the provision in CBI section 6 is violative of fundamental right Article 14.
- CVC does not have powers to register criminal case. It deals only with vigilance or disciplinary cases.
- CVC has supervisory powers over CBI. However, CVC does not have the power to call for any file from CBI or to direct CBI to investigate any case in a particular manner. CBI is under administrative control of Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), which means that, the powers to appoint, transfer, suspend CBI officers lie with DoPT.
- Appointments to CVC are indirectly under the control of Govt of India, though the leader of the Opposition (in Lok Sabha) is a member of the committee to select CVC and VCs. But the Committee considers candidates put up before it. These candidates are decided by the Government.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Central Vigilance Commission:
- It is the apex vigilance institution created via executive resolution (based on the recommendations of Santhanam committee) in 1964 but was conferred with statutory status in 2003
- It submits its report to the President of India.
- Composition: Consists of central vigilance commissioner along with 2 vigilance commissioners.
- Appointment: They are appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a committee consisting of Prime Minister, Union Home Minister and Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha (if there is no LoP then the leader of the single largest Opposition party in the Lok Sabha).
- Term: Their term is 4 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier.
- Removal: The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office only by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed.
- The CVC is not controlled by any Ministry/Department. It is an independent body which is only responsible to the Parliament.
Limitations of CVC:
- CVC is only an advisory body. Central Government Departments are free to either accept or reject CVC’s advice in corruption cases.
- CVC does not have adequate resources compared with number of complaints that it receives. It is a very small set up with a sanctioned staff strength of 299. Whereas, it is supposed to check corruption in more than 1500 central government departments and ministries.
- CVC cannot direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer of the level of Joint Secretary and above on its own. Such a permission has to be obtained from the concerned department.
- However, this provision is declared unconstitutional by Supreme court in a 2014 judgement in case filed by Subramaniam Swamy. Hon’ble Supreme Court of India in its judgement stated that merely the post of a person cannot keep him above the law, stating the provision in CBI section 6 is violative of fundamental right Article 14.
- CVC does not have powers to register criminal case. It deals only with vigilance or disciplinary cases.
- CVC has supervisory powers over CBI. However, CVC does not have the power to call for any file from CBI or to direct CBI to investigate any case in a particular manner. CBI is under administrative control of Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), which means that, the powers to appoint, transfer, suspend CBI officers lie with DoPT.
- Appointments to CVC are indirectly under the control of Govt of India, though the leader of the Opposition (in Lok Sabha) is a member of the committee to select CVC and VCs. But the Committee considers candidates put up before it. These candidates are decided by the Government.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the socio-religious movements in India during 19th century:
- G Subramania Iyer wrote a play titled ‘Brahmo Samaja Natakam’ to expound the ideas of the Brahmo Samaj.
- The Prarthana Samaj, was founded in 1867 in Bombay by M.G. Ranade.
- Savitri Phule started the Sharada Sadan (shelter for homeless) for the destitute widows.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
In Tamilnadu, Kasi Viswanatha Mudaliar was an adherent of the Brahmo Samaj and he wrote a play titled Brahmo Samaja Natakam to expound the ideas of the Samaj. He also wrote a tract in support of widow remarriage. In 1864, a Tamil journal titled Tathuva Bodhini was started for the cause of the Brahmo Samaja.
An off-shoot of the Brahmo Samaj, the Prarthana Samaj, was founded in 1867 in Bombay by Atmaram Pandurang (1823– 98). The Prarthana Samaj as an organization never had any great influence but its members, like M. G. Ranade (1852-1901), R. G. Bhandarkar, and K.T. Telang, were among the great leaders of nineteenthcentury Maharashtra and they became the
founders of the social reform movement in later years.Pandita Ramabai was foremost among the Indian leaders who worked for the
emancipation of women. Ramabai started the Sharada Sadan (shelter for homeless) for the destitute widows with the help of Ranade and Bhandarkar. But soon she was accused of converting Hindu women to Christianity and hence had to shift her activities to Khedgoan near Poona. She established a Mukti Sadan (freedom house) thereIncorrect
Solution: D
In Tamilnadu, Kasi Viswanatha Mudaliar was an adherent of the Brahmo Samaj and he wrote a play titled Brahmo Samaja Natakam to expound the ideas of the Samaj. He also wrote a tract in support of widow remarriage. In 1864, a Tamil journal titled Tathuva Bodhini was started for the cause of the Brahmo Samaja.
An off-shoot of the Brahmo Samaj, the Prarthana Samaj, was founded in 1867 in Bombay by Atmaram Pandurang (1823– 98). The Prarthana Samaj as an organization never had any great influence but its members, like M. G. Ranade (1852-1901), R. G. Bhandarkar, and K.T. Telang, were among the great leaders of nineteenthcentury Maharashtra and they became the
founders of the social reform movement in later years.Pandita Ramabai was foremost among the Indian leaders who worked for the
emancipation of women. Ramabai started the Sharada Sadan (shelter for homeless) for the destitute widows with the help of Ranade and Bhandarkar. But soon she was accused of converting Hindu women to Christianity and hence had to shift her activities to Khedgoan near Poona. She established a Mukti Sadan (freedom house) there -
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsA can finish a work in 24 days, B in 9 days and C in 12 days. B and C start the work but are forced to leave after 3 days. The remaining work was done by A in?
Correct
Solution: C
From the given data, we can get
A’s one day work = 1/24,
B’s one day work = 1/9 and
Cs one day work = 1/12.
Since, B and C start the work and left after 3 days, the work done by B and C is 3 *((1/9) +(1/12)) = 7/12.
Therefore, remaining work = 1- 7/12 =5/12.
Time taken by A to complete the remaining work = 24 * 5/12 =10 days.
Incorrect
Solution: C
From the given data, we can get
A’s one day work = 1/24,
B’s one day work = 1/9 and
Cs one day work = 1/12.
Since, B and C start the work and left after 3 days, the work done by B and C is 3 *((1/9) +(1/12)) = 7/12.
Therefore, remaining work = 1- 7/12 =5/12.
Time taken by A to complete the remaining work = 24 * 5/12 =10 days.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsAman can complete a piece of work in 5 days, but with the help of his son he can finish the same piece of work in 3 days. Find the time taken by the son alone to complete the work?
Correct
Solution: D
If A can do a work in ‘x’ days and A + B can do the same work in ‘y’ days, then the number of days required to complete the work if B works alone is given by the formula: ( x * y)/(x-y).
Aman alone takes 5 days (i.e x) to complete a piece of work and along with his son he can complete same of piece of work in 3 days(i.e y).
Therefore, his son alone takes ( x * y)/(x-y) days to complete the same piece of work. By substituting the given values in formula, his so will take
⇒(5 * 3)/(5-3)
⇒15/2
⇒5 days.
Incorrect
Solution: D
If A can do a work in ‘x’ days and A + B can do the same work in ‘y’ days, then the number of days required to complete the work if B works alone is given by the formula: ( x * y)/(x-y).
Aman alone takes 5 days (i.e x) to complete a piece of work and along with his son he can complete same of piece of work in 3 days(i.e y).
Therefore, his son alone takes ( x * y)/(x-y) days to complete the same piece of work. By substituting the given values in formula, his so will take
⇒(5 * 3)/(5-3)
⇒15/2
⇒5 days.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsDirections for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only.
The impact of environmental disasters is immense but unequal. Houses in poorer areas will often be less stable, storm barriers may be weaker, sanitation is often a problem, emergency services will be poorly resourced – and preventing disease outbreaks may be hindered by the poor state of public health services.
Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage?
Correct
Solution: C.
The focus of the passage is on bringing out how disasters unevenly impact the rich and poor. Hence C is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution: C.
The focus of the passage is on bringing out how disasters unevenly impact the rich and poor. Hence C is the correct answer.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThree taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If A is opened all the time and B and C are opened one hour each alternatively , the tank will be full in :
Correct
Solution: D
Tank filled in one hour when the taps A and B are open = (1/12)+(1/15)= 9/60= 3/20.
Tank filled in one hour when the taps A and C are open = (1/12) + (1/20) = 8/60 = 2/15
Therefore, part of the tank filled in two hours = (3/20) + (2/15) = 17/60.
Part filled in 6 hours = ( 17/60) * 3 = 51/60
Remaining part = 9/60 = 3/20
After 6 hours Now it is (A+B)’s turn
Time taken by the A+B to fill 3/20 part = 1 hour
Therefore, total time taken = 6+1 = 7 hoursIncorrect
Solution: D
Tank filled in one hour when the taps A and B are open = (1/12)+(1/15)= 9/60= 3/20.
Tank filled in one hour when the taps A and C are open = (1/12) + (1/20) = 8/60 = 2/15
Therefore, part of the tank filled in two hours = (3/20) + (2/15) = 17/60.
Part filled in 6 hours = ( 17/60) * 3 = 51/60
Remaining part = 9/60 = 3/20
After 6 hours Now it is (A+B)’s turn
Time taken by the A+B to fill 3/20 part = 1 hour
Therefore, total time taken = 6+1 = 7 hours -
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsIf a pipe A can fill a tank 3 times faster than pipe B. If both the pipes can fill the tank in 32 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in?
Correct
Solution: A
Let, the time is taken by pipe A = x
Then, time is taken by pipe B = x/3By substituting these values, we get:
1/x + 3/x = 1/32
x = 128 minutesIncorrect
Solution: A
Let, the time is taken by pipe A = x
Then, time is taken by pipe B = x/3By substituting these values, we get:
1/x + 3/x = 1/32
x = 128 minutes