Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
Post your comments, queries, scores, feedback or suggestions in the comments section. Explode(i.e. bring positivity) this platform with your participation.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The length of the India’s land frontier is more than the total length of the coastline of the India’s mainland, Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
- Sri Lanka is separated from India by a narrow channel of sea formed by the Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Lying entirely in the northern hemisphere, the mainland extends between latitudes 8°4’ and 37°6’ north, longitudes 68°7’ and 97°25’ east and measures about 3,214 km from north to south between the extreme latitudes and about 2,933 km from east to west between the extreme longitudes. It has a land frontier of about 15,200 km. The total length of the coastline of the mainland, Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar Islands is 7,516.6 km.
Sri Lanka is separated from India by a narrow channel of sea formed by the Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Lying entirely in the northern hemisphere, the mainland extends between latitudes 8°4’ and 37°6’ north, longitudes 68°7’ and 97°25’ east and measures about 3,214 km from north to south between the extreme latitudes and about 2,933 km from east to west between the extreme longitudes. It has a land frontier of about 15,200 km. The total length of the coastline of the mainland, Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar Islands is 7,516.6 km.
Sri Lanka is separated from India by a narrow channel of sea formed by the Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The Parliament should meet at least twice a year.
- Speaker and Chairman from time to time summons each House of Parliament to meet.
- Once the Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of its normal tenure, the dissolution can be revocable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The president from time to time summons each House of Parliament to meet.
But, the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months. In other words, the Parliament should meet at least twice a year.
Whenever the President decides to dissolve the House, which he is authorised to do. Once the Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of its normal tenure, the dissolution is irrevocable.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The president from time to time summons each House of Parliament to meet.
But, the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months. In other words, the Parliament should meet at least twice a year.
Whenever the President decides to dissolve the House, which he is authorised to do. Once the Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of its normal tenure, the dissolution is irrevocable.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The U.S. dollar index (USDX) is a measure of the value of the U.S. dollar relative to the value of a basket of currencies of the majority of the U.S.’s most significant trading partners.
- Index is calculated by factoring in the exchange rates of six major world currencies the euro, Japanese yen, Chinese Renminbi, British pound, South Korean won and Swiss franc.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
About US Dollar Index:
The U.S. dollar index (USDX) is a measure of the value of the U.S. dollar relative to the value of a basket of currencies of the majority of the U.S.’s most significant trading partners.
Index is calculated by factoring in the exchange rates of six major world currencies the euro, Japanese yen, Canadian dollar, British pound, Swedish krona and Swiss franc.
The euro holds the most weight versus the dollar in the index, constituting about 58% of the weighting followed by the yen with about 14%.
The index started in 1973 with a base of 100, and values since then are relative to this base.
Incorrect
Solution: A
About US Dollar Index:
The U.S. dollar index (USDX) is a measure of the value of the U.S. dollar relative to the value of a basket of currencies of the majority of the U.S.’s most significant trading partners.
Index is calculated by factoring in the exchange rates of six major world currencies the euro, Japanese yen, Canadian dollar, British pound, Swedish krona and Swiss franc.
The euro holds the most weight versus the dollar in the index, constituting about 58% of the weighting followed by the yen with about 14%.
The index started in 1973 with a base of 100, and values since then are relative to this base.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsMahatma Gandhi Marine National Park is situated in:
Correct
Solution: C
Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park is a national park of India near Wandoor on the Andaman Islands. It belongs to the South Andaman administrative district, part of the Indian union territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park is a national park of India near Wandoor on the Andaman Islands. It belongs to the South Andaman administrative district, part of the Indian union territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Nirbhaya Fund, consider the following statements:
- The fund is created by Ministry of Women and Child Development
- It is a non-lapsable corpus fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
About Nirbhaya Fund
The fund is created by Ministry of Finance in 2013.
It dedicated for implementation of initiatives aimed at enhancing the safety and security for women in the country.
It is a non-lapsable corpus fund.
Ministry of Women and Child Development is the nodal Ministry to appraise schemes under Nirbhaya Fund and also to review and monitor the progress of sanctioned Schemes in conjunction with the line Ministries/Departments.
It is being monitored by Empowered Committee of Officers under Secretary of Women and Child Development Ministry.
Empowered Committee of Officers: It is an inter-ministerial committee which appraises and recommends various projects (schemes) proposed by different ministries to be funded from Nirbhaya Fund
Incorrect
Solution: B
About Nirbhaya Fund
The fund is created by Ministry of Finance in 2013.
It dedicated for implementation of initiatives aimed at enhancing the safety and security for women in the country.
It is a non-lapsable corpus fund.
Ministry of Women and Child Development is the nodal Ministry to appraise schemes under Nirbhaya Fund and also to review and monitor the progress of sanctioned Schemes in conjunction with the line Ministries/Departments.
It is being monitored by Empowered Committee of Officers under Secretary of Women and Child Development Ministry.
Empowered Committee of Officers: It is an inter-ministerial committee which appraises and recommends various projects (schemes) proposed by different ministries to be funded from Nirbhaya Fund
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs of Newspapers/Magazine and people associated with them:
Newspaper/Magazine Founder/Editor
- The Independent Motilal Nehru
- Nav Jeevan Mahatma Gandhi
- Al Hilal Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: D
The Independent was an Allahabad based newspaper begun by Motilal Nehru in 1919. The paper closed down under British repression two years later.
The first issue of Navjivan with Gandhi as the editor came out on 7 September 1919. Explaining “Our Aim”, Gandhi noted that “If anyone asks why, if I wished to serve India, I should not pour out my soul through English, I would say in reply that, being a Gujarati by birth and way of life, I can serve India best only by identifying myself completely with the life of Gujarat”.
The Al-Hilal was a weekly Urdu language newspaper established by the Indian leader Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and used as a medium for criticism of the British Raj in India. The first issue came out on 13 July 1912.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Independent was an Allahabad based newspaper begun by Motilal Nehru in 1919. The paper closed down under British repression two years later.
The first issue of Navjivan with Gandhi as the editor came out on 7 September 1919. Explaining “Our Aim”, Gandhi noted that “If anyone asks why, if I wished to serve India, I should not pour out my soul through English, I would say in reply that, being a Gujarati by birth and way of life, I can serve India best only by identifying myself completely with the life of Gujarat”.
The Al-Hilal was a weekly Urdu language newspaper established by the Indian leader Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and used as a medium for criticism of the British Raj in India. The first issue came out on 13 July 1912.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Scheduled Area
- The fifth schedule of the constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Nagaland.
- The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area.
- The governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of Parliament or the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The fifth schedule of the constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
The governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of Parliament or the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such re-designation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
The governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of Parliament or the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. He can also make regulations for the peace and good government of a scheduled area after consulting the tribes advisory council.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The fifth schedule of the constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
The governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of Parliament or the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such re-designation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
The governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of Parliament or the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. He can also make regulations for the peace and good government of a scheduled area after consulting the tribes advisory council.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following diseases:
- Down Syndrome
- Thalassaemia
- Sickle Cell Anemia
Which of the above given diseases is/are genetic disorders?
Correct
Solution: D
Down Syndrome is a type of mental retardation caused by extra genetic material in chromosome. It is associated with intellectual and learning disabilities.
Thalassaemia is a blood related genetic disorder which involves the absence of or errors in genes responsible for production of haemoglobin.
Sickle Cell Anemia is a blood related disorder that affects the haemoglobin molecule, and causes the entire blood cell to change shape(sickle shape) under stressed conditions.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Down Syndrome is a type of mental retardation caused by extra genetic material in chromosome. It is associated with intellectual and learning disabilities.
Thalassaemia is a blood related genetic disorder which involves the absence of or errors in genes responsible for production of haemoglobin.
Sickle Cell Anemia is a blood related disorder that affects the haemoglobin molecule, and causes the entire blood cell to change shape(sickle shape) under stressed conditions.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements the species Blackbuck:
- It is naturally found in India only.
- Hunting of blackbuck is prohibited under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The blackbuck, also known as the Indian antelope, is an antelope found in India, Nepal, and Pakistan. The blackbuck is the sole extant member of the genus Antilope.
Until India’s independence in 1947, blackbuck and chinkara were hunted in many princely states with specially trained captive Asiatic cheetahs. By the 1970s, blackbuck was locally extinct in several areas.
The blackbuck is listed under Appendix III of CITES. In India, hunting of blackbuck is prohibited under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
It has been categorized least concerned in IUCN Red Data Book.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The blackbuck, also known as the Indian antelope, is an antelope found in India, Nepal, and Pakistan. The blackbuck is the sole extant member of the genus Antilope.
Until India’s independence in 1947, blackbuck and chinkara were hunted in many princely states with specially trained captive Asiatic cheetahs. By the 1970s, blackbuck was locally extinct in several areas.
The blackbuck is listed under Appendix III of CITES. In India, hunting of blackbuck is prohibited under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
It has been categorized least concerned in IUCN Red Data Book.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- A minister belonging to the Lok Sabha can participate in the proceedings of the Rajya Sabha and vice-versa.
- The last session of the existing Lok Sabha, after a new Lok Sabha
has been elected is referred as Lame-Duck session.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
In addition to the members of a House, every minister and the attorney
general of India have the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of
either House, any joint sitting of both the Houses and any committee of
Parliament of which he is a member, without being entitled to vote.Lame –Duck Session refers to the last session of the existing Lok Sabha, after a new Lok Sabha has been elected. Those members of the existing Lok Sabha who could not get re-elected to the new Lok Sabha are called lame-ducks.
Incorrect
Solution: C
In addition to the members of a House, every minister and the attorney
general of India have the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of
either House, any joint sitting of both the Houses and any committee of
Parliament of which he is a member, without being entitled to vote.Lame –Duck Session refers to the last session of the existing Lok Sabha, after a new Lok Sabha has been elected. Those members of the existing Lok Sabha who could not get re-elected to the new Lok Sabha are called lame-ducks.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The period spanning between the prorogation of a House of parliament and its reassembly in a new session is called ‘recess’.
- When the House of parliament is adjourned without naming a day for reassembly, it is called adjournment sine die.
- President can prorogue the House while in session.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
A ‘session’ of Parliament is the period spanning between the first sitting of
a House and its prorogation (or dissolution in the case of the Lok Sabha).
During a session, the House meets everyday to transact business. The period
spanning between the prorogation of a House and its reassembly in a new
session is called ‘recess’.Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an
indefinite period. In other words, when the House is adjourned without
naming a day for reassembly, it is called adjournment sine die. The power of adjournment as well as adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the House.The presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares the House adjourned
sine die, when the business of a session is completed. Within the next few
days, the President issues a notification for prorogation of the session.
However, the President can also prorogue the House while in session.Incorrect
Solution: D
A ‘session’ of Parliament is the period spanning between the first sitting of
a House and its prorogation (or dissolution in the case of the Lok Sabha).
During a session, the House meets everyday to transact business. The period
spanning between the prorogation of a House and its reassembly in a new
session is called ‘recess’.Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an
indefinite period. In other words, when the House is adjourned without
naming a day for reassembly, it is called adjournment sine die. The power of adjournment as well as adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the House.The presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares the House adjourned
sine die, when the business of a session is completed. Within the next few
days, the President issues a notification for prorogation of the session.
However, the President can also prorogue the House while in session. -
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsArticle 1(1) of our Constitution says – “India that is Bharat, shall be a Union of states”. This declaration signifies
- That the Union of India has resulted out of an agreement between the states.
- The component units/states have no right to secede from the Union.
Select the correct answer using codes given below
Correct
Solution: B
Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a
‘Federation of States’.According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of
States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: one, the
Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is an Union because it is indestructible. The
country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the
convenience of administrationIncorrect
Solution: B
Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a
‘Federation of States’.According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of
States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: one, the
Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is an Union because it is indestructible. The
country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the
convenience of administration -
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
State Dance/Traditions
- Tamil Nadu Karakkatam
- Mizoram Tamang Selo
- Maharashtra Koli
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
Karakattam is an ancient folk dance of Tamil Nadu performed in praise of the rain goddess Mariamman. The ancient Tamil epic says that this type of dance has derived from Bharatham and a mixture of multiple forms of Tamil Dance forms like Bharatanatyam postures,mudras. The performers balance a pot on their head. Traditionally, this dance is categorized into two types- Aatta Karakam is danced with decorated pots on the head and symbolizes joy and happiness. It is mainly performed to entertain the audience. The Sakthi Karakam is performed only in temples as a spiritual offering.
Tamang Selo is a genre of Nepali Folk song sung by the Tamang people and widely popular amongst the Nepali speaking community in Nepal, India and around the world. It is usually accompanied by Tamang instruments, the Damphu, Madal and Tungna.
Koli dance is the folk dance of fisher community of Maharashtra. In this dance, we can see the dance movements of girls are inspired from their daily life of fishing. Sea waves, throwing net in the sea, catching fishes are some of those movements
Incorrect
Solution: B
Karakattam is an ancient folk dance of Tamil Nadu performed in praise of the rain goddess Mariamman. The ancient Tamil epic says that this type of dance has derived from Bharatham and a mixture of multiple forms of Tamil Dance forms like Bharatanatyam postures,mudras. The performers balance a pot on their head. Traditionally, this dance is categorized into two types- Aatta Karakam is danced with decorated pots on the head and symbolizes joy and happiness. It is mainly performed to entertain the audience. The Sakthi Karakam is performed only in temples as a spiritual offering.
Tamang Selo is a genre of Nepali Folk song sung by the Tamang people and widely popular amongst the Nepali speaking community in Nepal, India and around the world. It is usually accompanied by Tamang instruments, the Damphu, Madal and Tungna.
Koli dance is the folk dance of fisher community of Maharashtra. In this dance, we can see the dance movements of girls are inspired from their daily life of fishing. Sea waves, throwing net in the sea, catching fishes are some of those movements
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Etikoppaka Bommalu, toys made of wood in the region of Andhra Pradesh.
- Kurumba Painting is traditionally practiced by tribes located in Nilgiri Hills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Located on the banks of the river Varaha in Vishakhapatnam district of AP, is a small village called Etikoppaka. Made in the Etikoppaka region of Andhra Pradesh, these toys are made with lacquer color and are traditionally known as Etikoppaka toys or Etikoppaka Bommalu. The village is very famous for its toys made of wood. The toys are also called as lacquer toys because of application of lacquer coating
Kurumba painting are the art form of Kurumba tribes from Nilgiris of TamilNadu. The art related to the tribal rituals, describes various facets of tribal life in the forests of the Nilgiris. C.P.Ramaswami Aiyar Foundation in Chennai took efforts for the revival of this age old art form and presented in to the world.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Located on the banks of the river Varaha in Vishakhapatnam district of AP, is a small village called Etikoppaka. Made in the Etikoppaka region of Andhra Pradesh, these toys are made with lacquer color and are traditionally known as Etikoppaka toys or Etikoppaka Bommalu. The village is very famous for its toys made of wood. The toys are also called as lacquer toys because of application of lacquer coating
Kurumba painting are the art form of Kurumba tribes from Nilgiris of TamilNadu. The art related to the tribal rituals, describes various facets of tribal life in the forests of the Nilgiris. C.P.Ramaswami Aiyar Foundation in Chennai took efforts for the revival of this age old art form and presented in to the world.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsUnder Article 243-D, which one of the following categories enjoys reservation for Panchayat membership in proportion to their population?
Correct
Solution: A
The Article 243-d provides for the reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in every panchayat (i.e., at all the three levels) in proportion of their population to the total population in the panchayat area. Further, the state legislature shall provide for the reservation of offices of chairperson in the panchayat at the village or any other level for the SCs and STs.
It provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of the total
number of seats for women (including the number of seats reserved for
women belonging the SCs and STs). Further, not less than one-third of the
total number of offices of chairpersons in the panchayats at each level shall
be reserved for womenIncorrect
Solution: A
The Article 243-d provides for the reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in every panchayat (i.e., at all the three levels) in proportion of their population to the total population in the panchayat area. Further, the state legislature shall provide for the reservation of offices of chairperson in the panchayat at the village or any other level for the SCs and STs.
It provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of the total
number of seats for women (including the number of seats reserved for
women belonging the SCs and STs). Further, not less than one-third of the
total number of offices of chairpersons in the panchayats at each level shall
be reserved for women -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), consider the following statements:
- UPSC is a regulatory body
- It conducts examinations for appointments to the services of the union, which includes all India services, central services and public services of the union territories.
- The Chairman and the members of the commission hold office for the period of the 6 years or until the age of 65 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Union Public Service Commission is India’s premier central recruiting agency. It is responsible for appointments to and examinations for All India services and group A & group B of Central services. While Department of Personnel and Training is the central personnel agency in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
UPSC is a constitutional body, it has been established under Article 315 of the Constitution of India and consists of a Chairman and ten Members, who are appointed and removed by President. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The chairman and members of the commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. The members can resign in between the term by addressing their resignation to the president. They can also be removed by the president following the procedure provided in the constitution. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Union Public Service Commission is India’s premier central recruiting agency. It is responsible for appointments to and examinations for All India services and group A & group B of Central services. While Department of Personnel and Training is the central personnel agency in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
UPSC is a constitutional body, it has been established under Article 315 of the Constitution of India and consists of a Chairman and ten Members, who are appointed and removed by President. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The chairman and members of the commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. The members can resign in between the term by addressing their resignation to the president. They can also be removed by the president following the procedure provided in the constitution. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the
chairman and members of the UPSC are subjected to vote of Parliament. - The conditions of service of the chairman or a member cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
- The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the chairman and members of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to vote of Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The conditions of service of the chairman or a member, though determined by the president, cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The additional functions relating to the services of the Union can be conferred on UPSC by the Parliament. It can also place the personnel system of any authority, corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of the UPSC. Thus, the jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by an act made by the Parliament. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the chairman and members of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to vote of Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The conditions of service of the chairman or a member, though determined by the president, cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The additional functions relating to the services of the Union can be conferred on UPSC by the Parliament. It can also place the personnel system of any authority, corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of the UPSC. Thus, the jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by an act made by the Parliament. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about State Finance Commissions (SFCs).
- They are constitutional bodies.
- Their mandate is to recommend devolution of tax funds from the Consolidated Fund of State Government to local bodies.
- Their recommendations must be approved by the Union Finance Commission, in order to be effective.
- They are established by the President from time to time.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: C
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: As per 73rd and 74th CA, under Part XI and XII and Article 243(I) and 243 (Y) of the Constitution, a State Finance Commission(SFC), is to be appointed after every 5 years, to;
- Recommend devolution of tax funds from the Consolidated Fund of State Government to Local Bodies
- Suggest measures for augmenting their Own Resources by determining which Taxes, Duties, Tolls and Fees which may be assigned to or appropriated by PRIs and ULBs
- The Grants-in-Aid to Local Bodies from the consolidated fund of the state
- The measures needed to improve the financial position of the Local Bodies
- Estimation of Revenue Gap of Local Bodies, separately for PRIs and ULBs,
Statement 3: The Union FC does not play any role with respect to either constitution or working of the SFCs. It may only help guide the overall functioning of the SFCs by specific recommendations (that are not binding on the SFCs).
Statement 4: The Governor constitutes them. President constitutes the UFC.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: As per 73rd and 74th CA, under Part XI and XII and Article 243(I) and 243 (Y) of the Constitution, a State Finance Commission(SFC), is to be appointed after every 5 years, to;
- Recommend devolution of tax funds from the Consolidated Fund of State Government to Local Bodies
- Suggest measures for augmenting their Own Resources by determining which Taxes, Duties, Tolls and Fees which may be assigned to or appropriated by PRIs and ULBs
- The Grants-in-Aid to Local Bodies from the consolidated fund of the state
- The measures needed to improve the financial position of the Local Bodies
- Estimation of Revenue Gap of Local Bodies, separately for PRIs and ULBs,
Statement 3: The Union FC does not play any role with respect to either constitution or working of the SFCs. It may only help guide the overall functioning of the SFCs by specific recommendations (that are not binding on the SFCs).
Statement 4: The Governor constitutes them. President constitutes the UFC.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following functions have been specified for the National Commission for STs with relation to the protection and welfare of STs?
- Measures to be taken to promote the traditional practice of shifting cultivation
- Measures to be taken over conferring ownership rights in respect of minor forest produce to STs living in forest areas
- Measures to be taken to safeguard rights of the tribal communities over mineral resources
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: B
In 2005, the President specified the following other functions of the Commission in relation to the protection, welfare and development and advancement of the STs.
Statement 1: As per the notification, the commission should strive to reduce and eliminate shifting cultivation, not encourage it, that lead to their continuous disempowerment and degradation of land and the environment.
Learning: Others measures (apart from statements 2 and 3 are):
- Development of tribals and to work for more viable livelihood strategies
- Improve the efficacy of relief and rehabilitation measures for tribal groups displaced by development projects
- Prevent alienation of tribal people from land and to effectively rehabilitate such people in whose case alienation has already taken place
- Elicit maximum cooperation and involvement of tribal communities for protecting forests and undertaking social afforestation
- Ensure full implementation of the Provisions of Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
The Commission presents an annual report to the President. It can also submit a report as and when it thinks necessary.
Incorrect
Solution: B
In 2005, the President specified the following other functions of the Commission in relation to the protection, welfare and development and advancement of the STs.
Statement 1: As per the notification, the commission should strive to reduce and eliminate shifting cultivation, not encourage it, that lead to their continuous disempowerment and degradation of land and the environment.
Learning: Others measures (apart from statements 2 and 3 are):
- Development of tribals and to work for more viable livelihood strategies
- Improve the efficacy of relief and rehabilitation measures for tribal groups displaced by development projects
- Prevent alienation of tribal people from land and to effectively rehabilitate such people in whose case alienation has already taken place
- Elicit maximum cooperation and involvement of tribal communities for protecting forests and undertaking social afforestation
- Ensure full implementation of the Provisions of Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
The Commission presents an annual report to the President. It can also submit a report as and when it thinks necessary.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- Attorney General of India is a full time Government servant and not allowed to take up private practice.
- He is entitled to vote on crucial national resolutions and motions in Rajya Sabha, excluding legislations.
- He can be made a member of any parliamentary committee but without the right to vote.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: He is the first law officer of the government of India and acts as top advocate for Union Government. He is responsible for giving advice to President/ Union Government upon legal matters.
Statement 1: Attorney General of India is not a full time Government servant. He is an advocate of the government and is allowed to take up private practice, provided the other party is not the state. Further, without permission of the government he cannot defend the accused persons in criminal matters.
Statement 2 and 3: He has the right to speak and take part in proceedings of both the houses of parliament including joint sittings. But cannot vote in parliament.
He can also be made a member of any parliamentary committee but in the committee also, he has no power to vote. He has all the powers and privileges that of a member of parliament.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: He is the first law officer of the government of India and acts as top advocate for Union Government. He is responsible for giving advice to President/ Union Government upon legal matters.
Statement 1: Attorney General of India is not a full time Government servant. He is an advocate of the government and is allowed to take up private practice, provided the other party is not the state. Further, without permission of the government he cannot defend the accused persons in criminal matters.
Statement 2 and 3: He has the right to speak and take part in proceedings of both the houses of parliament including joint sittings. But cannot vote in parliament.
He can also be made a member of any parliamentary committee but in the committee also, he has no power to vote. He has all the powers and privileges that of a member of parliament.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWith reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the following statements
- NHRC is an independent statutory body
- NHRC investigates grievances regarding the violation of human rights either suo moto or after receiving a petition.
- The chairman of NHRC must be a retired chief justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The National Human Rights Commission of India is a Statutory public body constituted on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September 1993. It was given a statutory basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
NHRC comprises of a chairman and four members. The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 provides that a person who has been a Judge of the Supreme Court is also made eligible to be appointed as Chairperson of the Commission in addition to the person who has been the Chief Justice of India; Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
NHRC investigates grievances regarding the violation of human rights either suo moto or after receiving a petition. It has the power to interfere in any judicial proceedings involving any allegation of violation of human rights. It can visit any jail or any other institution under the control of the State Government to see the living conditions of the inmates and to make recommendations thereon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The National Human Rights Commission of India is a Statutory public body constituted on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September 1993. It was given a statutory basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
NHRC comprises of a chairman and four members. The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 provides that a person who has been a Judge of the Supreme Court is also made eligible to be appointed as Chairperson of the Commission in addition to the person who has been the Chief Justice of India; Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
NHRC investigates grievances regarding the violation of human rights either suo moto or after receiving a petition. It has the power to interfere in any judicial proceedings involving any allegation of violation of human rights. It can visit any jail or any other institution under the control of the State Government to see the living conditions of the inmates and to make recommendations thereon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Central Vigilance Commissioner, consider the following statements:
- It is an investigating agency.
- The Central Vigilance Commissioner holds the office for 5 years
- It submits its report to the president of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Central Vigilance Commission is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. In 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. It is not an investigating agency. The CVC either gets the investigation done through the CBI or through chief vigilance officers (CVO) in government offices. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Central Vigilance Commissioner is to be appointed by the President of India. He holds the office for 4 years. He can be removed or suspended from the office by the President on the ground of misbehavior but only after the Supreme Court has held an inquiry into his case and recommended action against him. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
It submits its report to the President of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Central Vigilance Commission is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. In 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. It is not an investigating agency. The CVC either gets the investigation done through the CBI or through chief vigilance officers (CVO) in government offices. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Central Vigilance Commissioner is to be appointed by the President of India. He holds the office for 4 years. He can be removed or suspended from the office by the President on the ground of misbehavior but only after the Supreme Court has held an inquiry into his case and recommended action against him. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
It submits its report to the President of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs.
- The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) has supervisory powers over CBI.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: CBI is under administrative control of DoPT.
This means that, the powers to appoint, transfer, suspend CBI officers lie with DoPT.
CVC has supervisory powers over CBI.
However, CVC does not have the power to call for any file from CBI or to direct CBI to investigate any case in a particular manner.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: CBI is under administrative control of DoPT.
This means that, the powers to appoint, transfer, suspend CBI officers lie with DoPT.
CVC has supervisory powers over CBI.
However, CVC does not have the power to call for any file from CBI or to direct CBI to investigate any case in a particular manner.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Criteria for the status of Classical Language, the language should be
- High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
- A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers.
- The literary tradition is original and not borrowed from another speech community.
- The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
A classical language is a language with a literature that is classical. The languages are generally taken to have a “classical” stage. Such a stage is limited in time and is considered “classical” if it comes to be regarded as a literary “golden age” retrospectively. The Government of India in 2004 declared that languages to meet certain requirements could be accorded the status of a ‘Classical Languages in India’.
Criteria for the status of a ‘Classical Languages in India’
- High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The literary tradition is original and not borrowed from another speech community. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between language and its later forms or its offshoots. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
A classical language is a language with a literature that is classical. The languages are generally taken to have a “classical” stage. Such a stage is limited in time and is considered “classical” if it comes to be regarded as a literary “golden age” retrospectively. The Government of India in 2004 declared that languages to meet certain requirements could be accorded the status of a ‘Classical Languages in India’.
Criteria for the status of a ‘Classical Languages in India’
- High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The literary tradition is original and not borrowed from another speech community. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between language and its later forms or its offshoots. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- In the first Lok Sabha, the singlelargest party in the oppositionwas the Swatantra Party.
- The Bharatiya Jana Sangh was formed in 1951 with Deen Dayal Upadhyaya as its founder-President.
- Congress won a majority of seats in all the states including Travancore-Cochin, Madras and Orissa in first general elections.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
Congress party won 364 of the 489 seats in the first Lok Sabha and finished way ahead of any other challenger. The Communist Party of India that came next in terms of seats won only 16 seats. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
The state elections were held with the Lok Sabha elections. The Congress scored big victory in those elections as well. It won a majority of seats in all the states except Travancore-Cochin (part of today’s Kerala), Madras and Orissa. Finally even in these states the Congress formed the government. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
The Bharatiya Jana Sangh was formed in 1951 with Shyama Prasad Mukherjee as its founder-President. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Congress party won 364 of the 489 seats in the first Lok Sabha and finished way ahead of any other challenger. The Communist Party of India that came next in terms of seats won only 16 seats. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
The state elections were held with the Lok Sabha elections. The Congress scored big victory in those elections as well. It won a majority of seats in all the states except Travancore-Cochin (part of today’s Kerala), Madras and Orissa. Finally even in these states the Congress formed the government. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
The Bharatiya Jana Sangh was formed in 1951 with Shyama Prasad Mukherjee as its founder-President. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsDirection for the following 4 (four) items: Consider the given information and answer the four items that follow:
Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Candidates who appeared and passed in the test from four schools in six different yearsWhat was the total number of failed candidates from school C in the year 2008 and the number of candidates who appeared in the exam from school D in the year 2006?
Correct
Solution: B
Total failed in school C in 2008 = 354 – 258= 96
Total appeared in school D in 2006 = 235.
Therefore, total = 235 + 96 = 331
Hence, option (b) is correct.Incorrect
Solution: B
Total failed in school C in 2008 = 354 – 258= 96
Total appeared in school D in 2006 = 235.
Therefore, total = 235 + 96 = 331
Hence, option (b) is correct. -
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsDirection for the following 4 (four) items: Consider the given information and answer the four items that follow:
Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Candidates who appeared and passed in the test from four schools in six different yearsIn which year was the difference between the number of candidates who appeared and passed in the exam from school B is the second lowest?
Correct
Solution: B
The difference between the number of candidates who appeared and passed in the exam from school B is lowest in 2004 with the difference of 91.
The second lowest difference is year 2005 with the difference of 110.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The difference between the number of candidates who appeared and passed in the exam from school B is lowest in 2004 with the difference of 91.
The second lowest difference is year 2005 with the difference of 110.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsDirection for the following 4 (four) items: Consider the given information and answer the four items that follow:
Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Candidates who appeared and passed in the test from four schools in six different yearsWhat was the respective ratio between the number of candidates who appeared from school C in the year 2006 and the number of candidates who passed in the exam from school D in the year2009?
Correct
Solution: A
The number of candidates who appeared from school C inthe year 2006= 693.
The number of candidates who passed in the exam from school D in the year2009 = 252.
Therefore, the required ratio = 693/252 = 11/4
Incorrect
Solution: A
The number of candidates who appeared from school C inthe year 2006= 693.
The number of candidates who passed in the exam from school D in the year2009 = 252.
Therefore, the required ratio = 693/252 = 11/4
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsDirection for the following 4 (four) items: Consider the given information and answer the four items that follow:
Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Candidates who appeared and passed in the test from four schools in six different yearsNumber of candidates who passed in the exam from school B in the year 2005 was approximately what per cent of number of candidates who appeared from school A in the year 2008?
Correct
Solution: A
Number of candidates who passed from school B in the year 2005 = 435.
Number of candidates who appeared from school A in the year 2008 = 546.
Therefore, the required percent= (435/546) * 100 = 79. 6% or approximately 80%.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Number of candidates who passed from school B in the year 2005 = 435.
Number of candidates who appeared from school A in the year 2008 = 546.
Therefore, the required percent= (435/546) * 100 = 79. 6% or approximately 80%.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsRead the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only
If political leadership fails to emerge, there is likelihood of military taking over power in developing countries. Radical student groups or labour may try to raise revolution but they are not likely to compete with the military. Military intervention, rule, and withdrawal from politics is closely related to a society’s level of political development.”
In the context of political development, the assumption in the above passage is that
Correct
Answer. C.
A close reading of the passage suggests that the passage talks about the military filling in political vacuum in developing societies. Hence B is correct.
Incorrect
Answer. C.
A close reading of the passage suggests that the passage talks about the military filling in political vacuum in developing societies. Hence B is correct.