DAY – 49 ( INSTA REVISION TEST – 49)INSTA REVISION PLAN 3.0, 2021

Solution: C

Solution: D

The Rule of Law has been a core civilisational value of Indian society since ages. India has been cherishing values of trust and faith towards justice that inspire our Constitution. About 1500 archaic laws have been repealed. And speed has been demonstrated not only in doing away with irrelevant laws but also in enacting new legislations aimed at strengthening the social fabric. The architect of our Constitution, Dr. B. R. Ambedkar had said: “Constitution is not a mere lawyer’s document, it is a vehicle of life, and its spirit is always a spirit of age.”

Solution: D

By 1966, the United Nations General Assembly adopted two important covenants which are at the same time both general and universal, one dealing with civil and political rights and the other with economic, social and cultural rights. Both the covenants principally deal with rights which were to be enjoyed by individuals.

The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966 and the Optional Protocol dealt with the rights of equality, personal liberty, freedom from arbitrary arrest and detention, freedom from rendering compulsory personal service, freedom of expression and conscience, right to participate in the administration of the country etc.

The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, 1966 deals with the right to work, the right to fair wages, the right to collective bargaining, the right to carry on trade or profession, the right to establish institutions to conserve culture etc. As human rights and fundamental freedoms are indivisible and interdependent, equal attention and urgent consideration should be given to the implementation, promotion and protection of all the rights.

Solution: D

The 86^th amendment to the constitution of India in 2002, provided Right to Education as a fundamental right in part-III of the Constitution.

It brought alteration and modification in Article 45 and substituted as the state shall endeavors to assure early childhood care and free and compulsory education for all children until they complete the age of 6 years.

Article 51A(k) was introduced as a fundamental duty in 2002, along with Article 21A as a fundamental right.

Solution: B

In striking down Section 66 A of the Information Technology Act in Shreya Singhal _Vs_ Union of India the Court once again assertively established its constitutional role as protector of freedom of speech and expression. Section 66A empowered authorities to punish for sening “offensive” messages through a computer or any other communication device.

Solution: A

Solution: D

Elements of the Basic Structure
The present position is that the Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
However, the Supreme Court is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. From the various judgements, the following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution or elements/ components / ingredients of the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution:

1. Supremacy of the Constitution
   2. Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
   3. Secular character of the Constitution
   4. Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
   5. Federal character of the Constitution
   6. Unity and integrity of the nation
   7. Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
   8. Judicial review
   9. Freedom and dignity of the individual
   10. Parliamentary system
   11. Rule of law
   12. Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
   13. Principle of equality
   14. Free and fair elections
   15. Independence of Judiciary
   16. Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
   17. Effective access to justice
   18. Principle of reasonableness

Solution: D

The Sulbasutras are appendices to the Vedas which give rules for constructing altars. If the ritual sacrifice was to be successful then the altar had to conform to very precise measurements.

The Baudhayana sutras are a group of Vedic Sanskrit texts which cover dharma, daily ritual, mathematics, etc.

The mathematics given in the Sulbasutras is there to enable the accurate construction of altars needed for sacrifices. It is clear from the writing that Baudhayana, as well as being a priest, must have been a skilled craftsman. He must have been himself skilled in the practical use of the mathematics he described as a craftsman who himself constructed sacrificial altars of the highest quality.

They belong to the Taittiriya branch of the Krishna Yajurveda school and are among the earliest texts of the sutra genre.

The Baudhayana Sulbasutra is noted for containing several early mathematical results, including an approximation of the square root of 2 and the statement of a version of the Pythagorean theorem.

The Sulbasutra of Baudhayana contains geometric solutions (but not algebraic ones) of a linear equation in a single unknown.

Solution: C

The Sannyasi rebellion or Sannyasi Revolt (1770-1820) were the activities of sannyasis and fakirs in Bengal against the East India Company rule in the late 18th century.

The reminder of the Rebellion is in literature, in the Bengali novel Anandamath, written by India’s first modern novelist Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.

Solution: D

Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. He is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.

The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. In both the cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker. He also presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, in
case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting.

It should be noted here that the Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House

The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montague–Chelmsford Reforms).

At that time, the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were called the President and Deputy President respectively and the same nomenclature continued till 1947.

Solution: C

National Afforestation and Eco-Development Board set up in August 1992, is responsible for promoting afforestation, tree planting, ecological restoration and eco-development activities in the country, with special attention to the degraded forest areas and lands adjoining the forest areas, national parks, sanctuaries and other protected areas as well as the ecologically fragile areas like the Western Himalayas, Aravallis, Western Ghats, etc.

The detailed role and functions of the NAEB are given below.

• Evolve mechanisms for ecological restoration of degraded forest areas and adjoining lands through systematic planning and implementation, in a cost effective manner;
• Restore through natural regeneration or appropriate intervention the forest cover in the country for ecological security and to meet the fuelwood, fodder and other needs of the rural communities;
• Restore fuelwood, fodder, timber and other forest produce on the degraded forest and adjoining lands in order to meet the demands for these items;
• Sponsor research and extension of research findings to disseminate new and proper technologies for the regeneration and development of degraded forest areas and adjoining lands;
• Create general awareness and help foster people’s movement for promoting afforestation and eco-development with the assistance of voluntary agencies, non-government organisations, Panchayati Raj institutions and others and promote participatory and sustainable management of degraded forest areas and adjoining lands;
• Coordinate and monitor the Action Plans for afforestation, tree planting, ecological restoration and eco-development and
• Undertake all other measures necessary for promoting afforestation, tree planting, ecological restoration and eco-development activities in the country.

Solution: C

Plants generally take up nitrates and nitrites and convert them into amino acids which are used to make proteins.

These proteins and other complex compounds are subsequently consumed by animals.

Once the animal or the plant dies, other bacteria in the soil convert the various compounds of nitrogen back into nitrates and nitrites. A different type of bacteria converts the nitrates and nitrites into elemental nitrogen.

Thus, there is a nitrogen-cycle in nature in which nitrogen passes from its elemental form in the atmosphere into simple molecules in the soil and water, which get converted to more complex molecules in living beings and back again to the simple nitrogen molecule in the atmosphere.

Solution: B

The Mayar River is one of the tributaries of the Bhavani in Tamil Nadu. The Mayar river originates from a small town called Mayar off the Masinagudi–Ooty road.

The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project or KLIP is a multi-purpose irrigation project on the Godavari River in Kaleshwaram, Bhoopalpally, Telangana state. Currently the world’s largest multi-stage lift irrigation project, its farthest upstream influence is at the confluence of the Pranhita and Godavari rivers. 

Nongkhnum River Island is the biggest river island in the Indian state of Meghalaya and the second biggest river island in Asia, after Majuli Island in Assam. The island is formed by the river Wah Kynshi on the west and south and river Namiliang on the north and east.

Solution: A

For the purposes of registration, a clinical trial is any research study that prospectively assigns human participants or groups of humans to one or more health-related interventions to evaluate the effects on health outcomes.

The mission of the WHO International Clinical Trials Registry Platform is to ensure that a complete view of research is accessible to all those involved in health care decision making. This will improve research transparency and will ultimately strengthen the validity and value of the scientific evidence base. It is NOT a central register of all trials, rather it facilitates their numbering and registration.

WHO regards trial registration as the publication of an internationally-agreed set of information about the design, conduct and administration of clinical trials.

These details are published on a publicly-accessible website managed by a registry conforming to WHO standards.

The registration of all interventional trials is a scientific, ethical and moral responsibility.

What is the ICTRP?

The ICTRP is a global initiative that aims to make information about all clinical trials involving humans publicly available. It also aims to:

• To improve the comprehensiveness, completeness and accuracy of registered clinical trial data
• To communicate and raise awareness of the need to register clinical trials
• To ensure the accessibility of registered data
• To build capacity for clinical trial registration
• To encourage the utilization of registered data
• To ensure the sustainability of the ICTRP

What does the ICTRP do?

The ICTRP:

• Publishes the ICTRP Search Portal
• Supports the WHO Registry Network
• Supports countries and regions wanting to establish WHO-compliant clinical trial registries or policies on trial registration.

The aim of the Universal Trial Number (UTN) is to facilitate the unambiguous identification of clinical trials. The UTN is not a registration number.

The registration of all interventional trials is considered to be a scientific, ethical and moral responsibility because:

There is a need to ensure that decisions about health care are informed by all of the available evidence

It is difficult to make informed decisions if publication bias and selective reporting are present

The Declaration of Helsinki states that “Every clinical trial must be registered in a publicly accessible database before recruitment of the first subject”.

Improving awareness of similar or identical trials will make it possible for researchers and funding agencies to avoid unnecessary duplication

Describing clinical trials in progress can make it easier to identify gaps in clinical trials research

Solution: C

1. What are the different categories under priority sector?

Priority Sector includes the following categories:

(i) Agriculture

(ii) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

(iii) Export Credit

(iv) Education

(v) Housing

(vi) Social Infrastructure

(vii) Renewable Energy

(viii) Others.

What are Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs)?

Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs) are a mechanism to enable banks to achieve the priority sector lending target and sub-targets by purchase of these instruments in the event of shortfall. This also incentivizes surplus banks as it allows them to sell their excess achievement over targets thereby enhancing lending to the categories under priority sector. Under the PSLC mechanism, the seller sells fulfilment of priority sector obligation and the buyer buys the obligation with no transfer of risk or loan assets.

Solution: D

All the statements given above are correct.
Apart from the Directives included in Part IV, there are some other Directives
contained in other Parts of the Constitution. They are:
1. Claims of SCs and STs to Services: The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or a State (Article 335 in Part XVI).

2. Instruction in mother tongue: It shall be the endeavor of every state and every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups (Article 350-A in Part XVII).
3. Development of the Hindi Language: It shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India (Article 351 in Part XVII)

Solution: C

Nation-states can have small or large areas, small or large polities, or be fascists or democratic or monarchical; there is no set-rule.

Even a political party of its affiliates are political entities. So, B is wrong.

A nation-state is a mix of several ethnicities.

• A nation refers only to a socio-cultural entity, a union of people sharing who can identify culturally and linguistically. This concept does not necessarily consider formal political unions.
• A state refers to a legal/political entity that is comprised of the following: a) a permanent population; b) a defined territory; c) a government; and d) the capacity to enter into relations with other states.
• Combination of both is known as a nation-state.

Even political parties like INC have constitution, but they can’t be called as nation-state.

Solution: B

An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: C

All the statements given above are correct.

From the various judgements, the following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution or elements / components / ingredients of the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution:

1. Supremacy of the Constitution
   2. Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
   3. Secular character of the Constitution
   4. Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
   5. Federal character of the Constitution
   6. Unity and integrity of the nation
   7. Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
   8. Judicial review
   9. Freedom and dignity of the individual
   10. Parliamentary system
   11. Rule of law
   12. Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
   13. Principle of equality
   14. Free and fair elections
   15. Independence of Judiciary
   16. Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
   17. Effective access to justice
   18. Principle of reasonableness
   19. Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142

Solution: D

From the various judgements, the following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution or elements / components / ingredients of the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution:

1. Supremacy of the Constitution
   2. Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
   3. Secular character of the Constitution
   4. Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
   5. Federal character of the Constitution
   6. Unity and integrity of the nation
   7. Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
   8. Judicial review
   9. Freedom and dignity of the individual
   10. Parliamentary system
   11. Rule of law
   12. Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
   13. Principle of equality
2. Free and fair elections
   15. Independence of Judiciary
   16. Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
   17. Effective access to justice
   18. Principle of reasonableness
   19. Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32.

Harmony between Union and State is not a part of basic structure of constitution.

Solution: A

Charter Act of 1853

This was the last of the series of Charter Acts passed by the British Parliament between 1793 and 1853. It was a significant constitutional landmark.

The features of this Act were as follows:

1. It separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s council. It provided for addition of six new members called legislative councillors to the council. In other words, it established a separate Governor-General’s legislative council which came to be known as the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. This legislative wing of the council functioned as a mini- Parliament, adopting the same procedures as the British Parliament. Thus, legislation, for the first time, was treated as a special function of the government, requiring special machinery and special process. Hence, option (a) is correct.

2. It introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. The covenanted civil service was, thus, thrown open to the Indians also. Accordingly, the Macaulay Committee (the Committee on the Indian Civil Service) was appointed in 1854.

3. It extended the Company’s rule and allowed it to retain the possession of Indian territories on trust for the British Crown. But, it did not specify any particular period, unlike the previous Charters. This was a clear indication that the Company’s rule could be terminated at any time the Parliament liked.

4. It introduced, for the first time, local representation in the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. Of the six new legislative members of the Governor General’s council, four members were appointed by the local (provincial) governments of Madras, Bombay, Bengal and Agra.

Solution: D

What is the Ariel Space Mission adopted by the European Space Agency?

The European Space Agency (ESA) has formally adopted Ariel. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

What is Ariel?

Ariel (Atmospheric Remote-sensing Infrared Exoplanet Large-survey) will be launched in 2029.

• It will perform a large-scale survey of over a thousand exoplanets over a period of four years.
• The explorer that will study the nature, formation and evolution of exoplanets.

Significance:

Ariel is the first mission of its kind dedicated to measuring the chemical composition and thermal structures of hundreds of exoplanets. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

It will also help to answer one of the key questions of ESA’s Cosmic Vision Plan, which is, “What are the conditions for planet formation and the emergence of life?”

How exoplanets are found?

As per NASA, only a handful of exoplanets have been found using telescopes and the rest have been detected using indirect methods. These include:

• Tracking the dimming of a star that happens when a planet passes in front of it. NASA’s Kepler Space telescope uses this method to spot thousands of planets.
• Gravitational lensing and the “wobbling method”, which is based on the idea that an orbiting planet will cause its parent star to orbit slightly off-centre.

Why study exoplanets?

The search for exoplanets is driven by the possibility that life may exist beyond Earth and even if there is no evidence for this, scientists believe that their hunt for an answer will reveal details about where humans came from and where we’re headed.

Key Points:

• As of now the existence of more than 4,000 exoplanets is considered confirmed, while there are thousands of other candidate exoplanets that need further observations to say for certain if they are exoplanets.
• Proxima Centauri b is the closest exoplanet to Earth and is four light-years away and inhabits the “habitable zone” of its star, which means that it could possibly have liquid water on its surface.

Solution: C

Quo-Warranto

In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.

The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Solution: B

Martial Law

1. It affects only Fundamental Rights. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
2. It suspends the government and ordinary law courts.
3. It is imposed to restore the breakdown of law and order due to any reason.
4. It is imposed in some specific area of the country.

National Emergency

1. It affects not only Fundamental Rights but also Centre-state relations, distribution of revenues and legislative powers between centre and states and may extend the tenure of the Parliament.
2. It continues the government and ordinary law courts.
3. I t can be imposed only on three grounds–war, external aggression or armed rebellion.
4. It is imposed either in the whole country or in any part of it.

Solution: D

All the above statements are correct.

Originally, the right to property was one of the seven fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution. It was dealt by Article 19(1) (f) and Article 31. Article 19(1)(f) guaranteed to every citizen the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property. Article 31, on the other hand, guaranteed to every person, whether citizen or non-citizen, right against deprivation of his property. It provided that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law. It empowered the State to acquire or requisition the property of a person on two conditions:

(a) it should be for public purpose, and

(b) it should provide for payment of compensation (amount) to the owner.

The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right by repealing Article 19(1) (f) and Article 31 from Part III. Instead, the Act inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII under the heading ‘Right to Property’. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law. Thus, the right to property still remains a legal right or a constitutional right, though no longer a fundamental right. It is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

The right to property as a legal right (as distinct from the Fundamental Rights) has the following implications:

(a) It can be regulated ie, curtailed, abridged or modified without constitutional amendment by an ordinary law of the Parliament.

(b) It protects private property against executive action but not against legislative action.

(c) In case of violation, the aggrieved person cannot directly move the Supreme Court under Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies including writs) for its enforcement. He can move the High Court under Article 226.

(d) No guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition or requisition of the private property by the state.

Answer: A

According to the passage:

1. Dignity of all should be protected
2. Rule of law has a role to play in ensuring SJ

Therefore A is correct.

B is wrong because there is no mention of political justice.

C is relevant but not as comprehensive as A

D is absurd in the context of the passage which sees economic justice as a means to social justice.

Answer: C

Human welfare is founded on social justice as per the passage. Hence 1 is correct.

The passagè clearly talks about role of legislation in this context, hence 2 can be assumed undoubtedly

Both 1 and 2 are correct.

C is the answer.

Answer: D

As per the passage targeting is the most crucial problem of Indian welfare schemes

1. A is wrong since passage does not confine itself to migrants
2. B is also wrong for the same reason
3. UBI is no where hinted by the pasaage it is utmost an assumption not inference.
4. Thus D is the answer. It is necessary to plug the loophole in the system so that targeting becomes efficient.

D is the answer.

Answer: B

The passage is about role of 4^th IR in human development.

1. It is completely in positive tone about 4^th IR and so we can easily conclude that A is irrelevant
2. It is about merging of three worlds but it nowhere tells that is for the first time
3. D is relevant but not most crucial
4. Therefore B is the correct and most significant inference.

Thus B is the answer.

Answer: D

A is wrong since it is confined to Pacific ocean about which no specific information is given by the passage.

B is again wrong because the passage is applicable to every area not just to coastal areas.

The passage focuses on animal species of marine and also human needs like water. So D is correct, it does not focus on whole biosphere so C is wrong.

Thus D is the answer.