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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
Post your comments, queries, scores, feedback or suggestions in the comments section. Explode(i.e. bring positivity) this platform with your participation.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding script of Harappans
- Most inscriptions are short.
- The script was written from right to left.
- Motif were used to convey a meaning to those who could not read.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- An enigmatic script Harappan seals usually have a line of writing, probably containing the name and title of the owner.
- Scholars have also suggested that the motif (generally an animal) conveyed a meaning to those who could not read.
- Most inscriptions are short, the longest containing about 26 signs.
- Although the script remains undeciphered to date, it was evidently not alphabetical (where each sign stands for a vowel or a consonant) as it has just too many signs – somewhere between 375 and 400.
- It is apparent that the script was written from right to left as some seals show a wider spacing on the right and cramping on the left, as if the engraver began working from the right and then ran out of space.
Consider the variety of objects on which writing has been found: seals, copper tools, rims of jars, copper and terracotta tablets, jewellery, bone rods, even an ancient signboard! Remember, there may have been writing on perishable materials too
Incorrect
Solution: D
- An enigmatic script Harappan seals usually have a line of writing, probably containing the name and title of the owner.
- Scholars have also suggested that the motif (generally an animal) conveyed a meaning to those who could not read.
- Most inscriptions are short, the longest containing about 26 signs.
- Although the script remains undeciphered to date, it was evidently not alphabetical (where each sign stands for a vowel or a consonant) as it has just too many signs – somewhere between 375 and 400.
- It is apparent that the script was written from right to left as some seals show a wider spacing on the right and cramping on the left, as if the engraver began working from the right and then ran out of space.
Consider the variety of objects on which writing has been found: seals, copper tools, rims of jars, copper and terracotta tablets, jewellery, bone rods, even an ancient signboard! Remember, there may have been writing on perishable materials too
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Spirulina
- It is a processed nutribar developed in laboratory atmosphere.
- It is a source of antioxidants and protect against oxidative damage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Spirulina is an organism that grows in both fresh and salt water.
- It is a type of cyanobacteria, which is a family of single-celled microbes that are often referred to as blue-green algae.
- Just like plants, cyanobacteria can produce energy from sunlight via a process called photosynthesis.
- Spirulina was consumed by the ancient Aztecs but became popular again when NASA proposed that it could be grown in space for use by astronauts
- A standard daily dose of spirulina is 1–3 grams, but doses of up to 10 grams per day have been used effectively.
This tiny alga is packed with nutrients. Namely
Protein: 4 grams
Vitamin B1 (thiamine):
Vitamin B2 (riboflavin):
Vitamin B3 (niacin):
Copper:
Iron:
It also contains decent amounts of magnesium, potassium and manganese and small amounts of almost every other nutrient that you need.
Spirulina is a fantastic source of antioxidants, which can protect against oxidative damage.
Its main active component is called phycocyanin. This antioxidant substance also gives spirulina its unique blue-green color.
Phycocyanin can fight free radicals and inhibit production of inflammatory signaling molecules, providing impressive antioxidant and anti-inflammatory effects.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Spirulina is an organism that grows in both fresh and salt water.
- It is a type of cyanobacteria, which is a family of single-celled microbes that are often referred to as blue-green algae.
- Just like plants, cyanobacteria can produce energy from sunlight via a process called photosynthesis.
- Spirulina was consumed by the ancient Aztecs but became popular again when NASA proposed that it could be grown in space for use by astronauts
- A standard daily dose of spirulina is 1–3 grams, but doses of up to 10 grams per day have been used effectively.
This tiny alga is packed with nutrients. Namely
Protein: 4 grams
Vitamin B1 (thiamine):
Vitamin B2 (riboflavin):
Vitamin B3 (niacin):
Copper:
Iron:
It also contains decent amounts of magnesium, potassium and manganese and small amounts of almost every other nutrient that you need.
Spirulina is a fantastic source of antioxidants, which can protect against oxidative damage.
Its main active component is called phycocyanin. This antioxidant substance also gives spirulina its unique blue-green color.
Phycocyanin can fight free radicals and inhibit production of inflammatory signaling molecules, providing impressive antioxidant and anti-inflammatory effects.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following with respect to Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)
- It is a zoonotic viral respiratory disease caused by a novel coronavirus.
- It was first identified in Saudi Arabia in 2012
- The outbreak of this disease has been restricted to Middle east.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) is a viral respiratory disease caused by a novel coronavirus (Middle East respiratory syndrome coronavirus, or MERS‐CoV) that was first identified in Saudi Arabia in 2012.
Health care associated outbreaks have occurred in several countries, with the largest outbreaks seen in Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, and the Republic of Korea.
MERS-CoV is a zoonotic virus, which means it is a virus that is transmitted between animals and people. Studies have shown that humans are infected through direct or indirect contact with infected dromedary camels.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) is a viral respiratory disease caused by a novel coronavirus (Middle East respiratory syndrome coronavirus, or MERS‐CoV) that was first identified in Saudi Arabia in 2012.
Health care associated outbreaks have occurred in several countries, with the largest outbreaks seen in Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, and the Republic of Korea.
MERS-CoV is a zoonotic virus, which means it is a virus that is transmitted between animals and people. Studies have shown that humans are infected through direct or indirect contact with infected dromedary camels.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsIn which of the following fields 3D printing has its applications?
- Bio-printers
- Manufacturing
- Dentistry
- Health
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
3D printing or additive manufacturing is a process of making three dimensional solid objects from a digital file.
The creation of a 3D printed object is achieved using additive processes. In an additive process an object is created by laying down successive layers of material until the object is created. Each of these layers can be seen as a thinly sliced horizontal cross-section of the eventual object
Incorrect
Solution: D
3D printing or additive manufacturing is a process of making three dimensional solid objects from a digital file.
The creation of a 3D printed object is achieved using additive processes. In an additive process an object is created by laying down successive layers of material until the object is created. Each of these layers can be seen as a thinly sliced horizontal cross-section of the eventual object
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Angel tax was introduced in the 2012 budget.
- Angel tax is an income tax payable on capital raised by unlisted companies from investors
- An angel investor is an affluent individual who provides capital for a business start-up, usually in exchange for convertible debt or ownership equity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Angel tax was introduced in the 2012 budget by the then finance minister Pranab Mukherjee to arrest laundering of funds.
Angel tax is an income tax payable on capital raised by unlisted companies from investors (mostly angel investors) via issue of shares if the sold share price is excess of the fair market value of the shares.
An angel investor is an affluent individual who provides capital for a business start-up, usually in exchange for convertible debt or ownership equity.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Angel tax was introduced in the 2012 budget by the then finance minister Pranab Mukherjee to arrest laundering of funds.
Angel tax is an income tax payable on capital raised by unlisted companies from investors (mostly angel investors) via issue of shares if the sold share price is excess of the fair market value of the shares.
An angel investor is an affluent individual who provides capital for a business start-up, usually in exchange for convertible debt or ownership equity.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsFamous industrialists such as Mr. JRD Tata, GD Birla, Purshottamdas Thakurdas were associated with formulation of:
Correct
Solution: C
‘A Plan of Economic Development for India’ aka The Bombay Plan was published in two parts in 1944 and 1945 with the efforts of innumerable business leaders and technocrats in the form of J.R.D Tata, G.D Birla, Purshottamdas Thakurdas, Kasturbhai Lalbhai, Ardeshir Dalal, Lala Shri Ram, John Mathai and A.D. Shroff
Incorrect
Solution: C
‘A Plan of Economic Development for India’ aka The Bombay Plan was published in two parts in 1944 and 1945 with the efforts of innumerable business leaders and technocrats in the form of J.R.D Tata, G.D Birla, Purshottamdas Thakurdas, Kasturbhai Lalbhai, Ardeshir Dalal, Lala Shri Ram, John Mathai and A.D. Shroff
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (NWR):
- They enable Farmers to get loans from banks against NWRs
- Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (NWR) System is implemented in the country by Food Corporation of India (FCI)
- All registered warehouses are mandated to issue only e-NWRs
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
NWR are issued by registered warehouses to enable Farmers to get loans from banks against NWRs.
The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) was setup by the Government of India on 26.10.2010 to ensure implementation of the provisions of the Warehousing (Development & Regulation) Act, 2007. The main objective of WDRA is to implement Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (NWR) System in the country, which would help farmers to store their produce in scientific storage godowns near by their farms and to seek loan from banks against their NWR.
The Government announced a Transformation Plan for WDRA to streamline its activities and introduce IT based platform for registration and monitoring of warehouses. Under the plan, WDRA has setup a portal for online registration of warehouses. It has also setup two Repositories, namely, M/s National Electronic Repository Limited (NERL) and CDSL Commodity Repository Limited (CCRL) for creation and management of electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (e-NWRs). The repositories have provided access to all stakeholders including warehouses, repository-participants, commodity exchanges and banks. Both the repositories and the portal have started functioning w.e.f. 26.09.2017. In the transformed system, the process of warehouse registration with WDRA and pledge financing against the deposited goods have been made simpler, safer and more transparent.
All registered warehouses are mandated to issue only e-NWRs w.e.f 1stAugust 2019.
The Recognized Stock Exchanges like National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange (NCDEX), Multi Commodity Exchange (MCX), Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE), National Multi Commodity Exchange (NMCE/ICEX) are using e-NWRs for settlement of derivative contracts.
The e-NWR has been integrated with electronic National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) platform by providing interface between e-NAM and repositories.
Incorrect
Solution: D
NWR are issued by registered warehouses to enable Farmers to get loans from banks against NWRs.
The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) was setup by the Government of India on 26.10.2010 to ensure implementation of the provisions of the Warehousing (Development & Regulation) Act, 2007. The main objective of WDRA is to implement Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (NWR) System in the country, which would help farmers to store their produce in scientific storage godowns near by their farms and to seek loan from banks against their NWR.
The Government announced a Transformation Plan for WDRA to streamline its activities and introduce IT based platform for registration and monitoring of warehouses. Under the plan, WDRA has setup a portal for online registration of warehouses. It has also setup two Repositories, namely, M/s National Electronic Repository Limited (NERL) and CDSL Commodity Repository Limited (CCRL) for creation and management of electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (e-NWRs). The repositories have provided access to all stakeholders including warehouses, repository-participants, commodity exchanges and banks. Both the repositories and the portal have started functioning w.e.f. 26.09.2017. In the transformed system, the process of warehouse registration with WDRA and pledge financing against the deposited goods have been made simpler, safer and more transparent.
All registered warehouses are mandated to issue only e-NWRs w.e.f 1stAugust 2019.
The Recognized Stock Exchanges like National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange (NCDEX), Multi Commodity Exchange (MCX), Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE), National Multi Commodity Exchange (NMCE/ICEX) are using e-NWRs for settlement of derivative contracts.
The e-NWR has been integrated with electronic National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) platform by providing interface between e-NAM and repositories.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
- It can be maintained in form of Gold, Cash and other securities approved by RBI
- Banks don’t earn any interest on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Under cash reserve ratio (CRR), the commercial banks have to hold a certain minimum amount of deposit as reserves with the central bank. The percentage of cash required to be kept in reserves as against the bank’s total deposits, is called the Cash Reserve Ratio. And Banks don’t earn any interest on that money.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Under cash reserve ratio (CRR), the commercial banks have to hold a certain minimum amount of deposit as reserves with the central bank. The percentage of cash required to be kept in reserves as against the bank’s total deposits, is called the Cash Reserve Ratio. And Banks don’t earn any interest on that money.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following types of grants has been recommended by 15th Finance Commission (15th FC)?
- Revenue Deficit Grants
- State Specific Grants
- Sector Specific Grants
- Disaster Management Grants
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Ways and Means Advances:
- They are temporary loan facilities provided by RBI to the government to enable it to meet temporary mismatches between revenue and expenditure.
- The government do not pay interest to the central bank
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The WMA scheme for the Central Government was introduced on April 1, 1997, after putting an end to the four-decade old system of adhoc (temporary) Treasury Bills to finance the Central Government deficit.
What are Ways and Means Advances?
- They are temporary loan facilities provided by RBI to the government to enable it to meet temporary mismatches between revenue and expenditure.
- The government makes an interest payment to the central bank when it borrows money.
- The rate of interest is the same as the repo rate, while the tenure is three months.
- The limits for WMA are mutually decided by the RBI and the Government of India.
- States are allowed an overdraft facility (to borrow in excess of WMA limit) of 21 days.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The WMA scheme for the Central Government was introduced on April 1, 1997, after putting an end to the four-decade old system of adhoc (temporary) Treasury Bills to finance the Central Government deficit.
What are Ways and Means Advances?
- They are temporary loan facilities provided by RBI to the government to enable it to meet temporary mismatches between revenue and expenditure.
- The government makes an interest payment to the central bank when it borrows money.
- The rate of interest is the same as the repo rate, while the tenure is three months.
- The limits for WMA are mutually decided by the RBI and the Government of India.
- States are allowed an overdraft facility (to borrow in excess of WMA limit) of 21 days.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsThe term ‘Prompt Corrective Action (PCA)’ sometimes seen in news, is associated with:
Correct
Solution: A
What is Prompt Corrective Action (PCA)?
- PCA is a framework under which banks with weak financial metrics are put under watch by the RBI.
- The RBI introduced the PCA framework in 2002 as a structured early-intervention mechanism for banks that become undercapitalised due to poor asset quality, or vulnerable due to loss of profitability
- It aims to check the problem of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) in the Indian banking sector.
● The framework was reviewed in 2017 based on the recommendations of the working group of the Financial Stability and Development Council on Resolution Regimes for Financial Institutions in India and the Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission.
Incorrect
Solution: A
What is Prompt Corrective Action (PCA)?
- PCA is a framework under which banks with weak financial metrics are put under watch by the RBI.
- The RBI introduced the PCA framework in 2002 as a structured early-intervention mechanism for banks that become undercapitalised due to poor asset quality, or vulnerable due to loss of profitability
- It aims to check the problem of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) in the Indian banking sector.
● The framework was reviewed in 2017 based on the recommendations of the working group of the Financial Stability and Development Council on Resolution Regimes for Financial Institutions in India and the Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Naval Symposium
- IONS is a significant international maritime security initiative launched in 2018
- It is a voluntary initiativethat seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Indian Ocean Naval Symposium:
7th edition of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS), a biennial event, was hosted by the French Navy recently.
- IONS is a significant international maritime security initiative launched in February 2008.
- It provides a forum for discussion of regional maritime issues and promotes friendly relationships among member nations.
- It is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues.
- IONS includes 24 nations that permanently hold territory that abuts or lies within the Indian Ocean, and 8 observer nations.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Indian Ocean Naval Symposium:
7th edition of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS), a biennial event, was hosted by the French Navy recently.
- IONS is a significant international maritime security initiative launched in February 2008.
- It provides a forum for discussion of regional maritime issues and promotes friendly relationships among member nations.
- It is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues.
- IONS includes 24 nations that permanently hold territory that abuts or lies within the Indian Ocean, and 8 observer nations.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding India Industrial Land Bank (IILB):
- It acts as a one-stop repository of all industrial infrastructure-related information.
- It is under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
India Industrial Land Bank (IILB):
- It is a GIS-based portal with all industrial infrastructure-related information such as connectivity, infra, natural resources and terrain, plot-level information on vacant plots, line of activity, and contact details.
- It acts as a one-stop repository of all industrial infrastructure-related information.
- It serves as a decision support system for investors scouting for land remotely.
- It has around 4,000 industrial parks mapped across an area of 5.5 lakh hectare of land and is expected to achieve pan-India integration by December 2021.
- It is under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
Incorrect
Solution: C
India Industrial Land Bank (IILB):
- It is a GIS-based portal with all industrial infrastructure-related information such as connectivity, infra, natural resources and terrain, plot-level information on vacant plots, line of activity, and contact details.
- It acts as a one-stop repository of all industrial infrastructure-related information.
- It serves as a decision support system for investors scouting for land remotely.
- It has around 4,000 industrial parks mapped across an area of 5.5 lakh hectare of land and is expected to achieve pan-India integration by December 2021.
- It is under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Automated Clearing House (NACH):
- It was set up to facilitate interbank, high volume, electronic transactions which are repetitive and periodic in nature.
- It can be used for making bulk transactions towards distribution of subsidies, dividends, interest, salary, pension etc
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has implemented “National Automated Clearing House (NACH)” for Banks, Financial Institutions, Corporates and Government a web based solution to facilitate interbank, high volume, electronic transactions which are repetitive and periodic in nature.
NACH System can be used for making bulk transactions towards distribution of subsidies, dividends, interest, salary, pension etc. and also for bulk transactions towards collection of payments pertaining to telephone, electricity, water, loans, investments in mutual funds, insurance premium etc.
National Automated Clearing House (NACH) is a centralised system, launched with an aim to consolidate multiple ECS systems running across the country and provides a framework for the harmonization of standard & practices and removes local barriers/inhibitors. NACH system will provide a national footprint and is expected to cover the entire core banking enabled bank branches spread across the geography of the country irrespective of the location of the bank branch.
Incorrect
Solution: C
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has implemented “National Automated Clearing House (NACH)” for Banks, Financial Institutions, Corporates and Government a web based solution to facilitate interbank, high volume, electronic transactions which are repetitive and periodic in nature.
NACH System can be used for making bulk transactions towards distribution of subsidies, dividends, interest, salary, pension etc. and also for bulk transactions towards collection of payments pertaining to telephone, electricity, water, loans, investments in mutual funds, insurance premium etc.
National Automated Clearing House (NACH) is a centralised system, launched with an aim to consolidate multiple ECS systems running across the country and provides a framework for the harmonization of standard & practices and removes local barriers/inhibitors. NACH system will provide a national footprint and is expected to cover the entire core banking enabled bank branches spread across the geography of the country irrespective of the location of the bank branch.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Agriculture Infrastructure Fund
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme
- It shall provide a short debt financing facility (less than 1 year) for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management Infrastructure and community farming assets
- Farmer Producers Organizations (FPOs), Self Help Group (SHG) and Joint Liability Groups (JLG) are the beneficiaries under the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Agriculture Infrastructure Fund:
- It is a new pan India Central Sector Scheme.
- The scheme shall provide a medium – long term debt financing facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management Infrastructure and community farming assets through interest subvention and financial support.
- The duration of the Scheme shall be from FY2020 to FY2029 (10 years).
Eligibility:
Under the scheme, Rs. One Lakh Crore will be provided by banks and financial institutions as loans to Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS), Marketing Cooperative Societies, farmer producer organisations (FPOs), SHGs, Farmers, Joint Liability Groups (JLG), Multipurpose Cooperative Societies, Startups etc.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Agriculture Infrastructure Fund:
- It is a new pan India Central Sector Scheme.
- The scheme shall provide a medium – long term debt financing facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management Infrastructure and community farming assets through interest subvention and financial support.
- The duration of the Scheme shall be from FY2020 to FY2029 (10 years).
Eligibility:
Under the scheme, Rs. One Lakh Crore will be provided by banks and financial institutions as loans to Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS), Marketing Cooperative Societies, farmer producer organisations (FPOs), SHGs, Farmers, Joint Liability Groups (JLG), Multipurpose Cooperative Societies, Startups etc.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following pollutants is/are present in motor vehicle emission?
- Carbon Monoxide
- Particulate matters
- Hydrocarbons
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
The following are the major pollutants from motor vehicles:- Particulate matter (PM). One type of particulate matter is the soot seen in
vehicle exhaust. Fine particles — less than one-tenth the diameter of a human
hair — pose a serious threat to human health, as they can penetrate deep into
the lungs. PM can be a primary pollutant or a secondary pollutant from
hydrocarbons, nitrogen oxides, and sulfur dioxides. Diesel exhaust is a major
contributor to PM pollution. - Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs). These pollutants react with nitrogen
oxides in the presence of sunlight to form ground level ozone, a main ingredient
in smog. Though beneficial in the upper atmosphere, at the ground level this gas
irritates the respiratory system, causing coughing, choking, and reduced lung
capacity. VOCs emitted from cars, trucks and buses — which include the toxic
air pollutants benzene, acetaldehyde, and 1,3-butadiene — are linked to different
types of cancer. - Nitrogen oxides (NOx). These pollutants form ground level ozone and particulate
matter (secondary). Also harmful as a primary pollutant, NOx can cause lung
irritation and weaken the body’s defenses against respiratory infections such as pneumonia and influenza. - Carbon monoxide (CO). This odorless, colorless, and poisonous gas is formed
by the combustion of fossil fuels such as gasoline and is emitted primarily from
cars and trucks. When inhaled, CO blocks oxygen from the brain, heart, and
other vital organs. - Sulfur dioxide (SO2). Power plants and motor vehicles create this pollutant by
burning sulfur-containing fuels, especially diesel and coal. Sulfur dioxide can react in the atmosphere to form fine particles and, as other air pollutants, poses the largest health risk to young children and asthmatics. - Greenhouse gases. Motor vehicles also emit pollutants, predominantly carbon dioxide, that contribute to global climate change.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The following are the major pollutants from motor vehicles:- Particulate matter (PM). One type of particulate matter is the soot seen in
vehicle exhaust. Fine particles — less than one-tenth the diameter of a human
hair — pose a serious threat to human health, as they can penetrate deep into
the lungs. PM can be a primary pollutant or a secondary pollutant from
hydrocarbons, nitrogen oxides, and sulfur dioxides. Diesel exhaust is a major
contributor to PM pollution. - Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs). These pollutants react with nitrogen
oxides in the presence of sunlight to form ground level ozone, a main ingredient
in smog. Though beneficial in the upper atmosphere, at the ground level this gas
irritates the respiratory system, causing coughing, choking, and reduced lung
capacity. VOCs emitted from cars, trucks and buses — which include the toxic
air pollutants benzene, acetaldehyde, and 1,3-butadiene — are linked to different
types of cancer. - Nitrogen oxides (NOx). These pollutants form ground level ozone and particulate
matter (secondary). Also harmful as a primary pollutant, NOx can cause lung
irritation and weaken the body’s defenses against respiratory infections such as pneumonia and influenza. - Carbon monoxide (CO). This odorless, colorless, and poisonous gas is formed
by the combustion of fossil fuels such as gasoline and is emitted primarily from
cars and trucks. When inhaled, CO blocks oxygen from the brain, heart, and
other vital organs. - Sulfur dioxide (SO2). Power plants and motor vehicles create this pollutant by
burning sulfur-containing fuels, especially diesel and coal. Sulfur dioxide can react in the atmosphere to form fine particles and, as other air pollutants, poses the largest health risk to young children and asthmatics. - Greenhouse gases. Motor vehicles also emit pollutants, predominantly carbon dioxide, that contribute to global climate change.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Aichi Target’ is associated with which of the following Conventions/Protocols?
Correct
Solution: C
The ‘Aichi Target’ adopted by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) at its Nagoya conference. In the COP-10 meeting, the parties agreed that previous biodiversity protection targets are not achieved, So we need to do come up with new plans and targetThe short term plan provides a set of 20 ambitious yet achievable targets, collectively known as the Aichi Targets.Incorrect
Solution: C
The ‘Aichi Target’ adopted by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) at its Nagoya conference. In the COP-10 meeting, the parties agreed that previous biodiversity protection targets are not achieved, So we need to do come up with new plans and targetThe short term plan provides a set of 20 ambitious yet achievable targets, collectively known as the Aichi Targets. -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following protocol/convention was amended through Kigali
amendment?Correct
Solution: B
The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the
Ozone Layer entered into force on 1 January 2019, following ratification by 65
countries. The UN Environment Programme (UNEP, or UN Environment)
announced the entry into force, and noted that it will help reduce the production and consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), potent greenhouse gases (GHGs), and thus to avoid global warming by up to 0.4°C this century.
The need for the Amendment emerged from the 1987 Montreal Protocol process, which controls ozone-depleting substances. With HFCs’ use as an alternative to ozone-depleting substances in cooling equipment, their role in warming the atmosphere became a greater concern.
In 2016, the Parties to the Montreal Protocol adopted the agreement on HFCs at the close of the 28th Meeting of the Parties (MOP 28) in Kigali, Rwanda.
Governments agreed that it would enter into force on 1 January 2019, provided
that at least 20 Parties to the Montreal Protocol had ratified it.
Under the Amendment, all countries will gradually phase down HFCs by more
than 80 percent over the next 30 years and replace them with more
environmentally friendly alternatives. A specified group of developed countries
will begin the phase-down in 2019. Several developing countries will freeze HFC consumption levels in 2024, followed by additional countries in 2028. The
Amendment also includes agreements on technologies to destroy HFCs, data
reporting requirements, and provisions for capacity building for developing
countries.
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/kigali-amendment-enters-into-force-bringingpromise-of-reduced-global-warming/Incorrect
Solution: B
The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the
Ozone Layer entered into force on 1 January 2019, following ratification by 65
countries. The UN Environment Programme (UNEP, or UN Environment)
announced the entry into force, and noted that it will help reduce the production and consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), potent greenhouse gases (GHGs), and thus to avoid global warming by up to 0.4°C this century.
The need for the Amendment emerged from the 1987 Montreal Protocol process, which controls ozone-depleting substances. With HFCs’ use as an alternative to ozone-depleting substances in cooling equipment, their role in warming the atmosphere became a greater concern.
In 2016, the Parties to the Montreal Protocol adopted the agreement on HFCs at the close of the 28th Meeting of the Parties (MOP 28) in Kigali, Rwanda.
Governments agreed that it would enter into force on 1 January 2019, provided
that at least 20 Parties to the Montreal Protocol had ratified it.
Under the Amendment, all countries will gradually phase down HFCs by more
than 80 percent over the next 30 years and replace them with more
environmentally friendly alternatives. A specified group of developed countries
will begin the phase-down in 2019. Several developing countries will freeze HFC consumption levels in 2024, followed by additional countries in 2028. The
Amendment also includes agreements on technologies to destroy HFCs, data
reporting requirements, and provisions for capacity building for developing
countries.
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/kigali-amendment-enters-into-force-bringingpromise-of-reduced-global-warming/ -
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is/are true about the Coastal Regulation
Zones (CRZ) in India?1. They are notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. Under Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification 2018, a No Development Zone (NDZ) of 20 meters has been stipulated for all Islands.Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
With the objective of conservation and protection of the coastal
environment, under the Environment Protection Act, 1986, notification was issued in February 1991, for regulation of activities in the coastal area by the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF), which was subsequently revised in 2011. The notification was amended from time to time based on
representations received.
A No Development Zone (NDZ) of 20 meters has been stipulated for all
Islands: For islands close to the main land coast and for all Backwater Islandsin the main land, in wake of space limitations and unique geography of such
regions, bringing uniformity in treatment of such regions, NDZ of 20 m has been stipulated.Incorrect
Solution: C
With the objective of conservation and protection of the coastal
environment, under the Environment Protection Act, 1986, notification was issued in February 1991, for regulation of activities in the coastal area by the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF), which was subsequently revised in 2011. The notification was amended from time to time based on
representations received.
A No Development Zone (NDZ) of 20 meters has been stipulated for all
Islands: For islands close to the main land coast and for all Backwater Islandsin the main land, in wake of space limitations and unique geography of such
regions, bringing uniformity in treatment of such regions, NDZ of 20 m has been stipulated. -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following organization/institution constituted Himalayan State Regional Council?
Correct
Solution: C
NITI Aayog has constituted the ‘Himalayan State Regional Council’ to
ensure sustainable development of the Indian Himalayan region. The
Council has been constituted to review and implement identified action points
based on the Reports of five Working Groups, which were established along
thematic areas to prepare a roadmap for action.Incorrect
Solution: C
NITI Aayog has constituted the ‘Himalayan State Regional Council’ to
ensure sustainable development of the Indian Himalayan region. The
Council has been constituted to review and implement identified action points
based on the Reports of five Working Groups, which were established along
thematic areas to prepare a roadmap for action. -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Petroleum Conservation Research Association (PCRA)
- It is a national government agency engaged in promoting energy efficiency in various sectors of economy.
- It is a registered society under the aegis of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Petroleum Conservation Research Association (PCRA)
PCRA is a national government agency engaged in promoting energy efficiency in various sectors of economy. It is a registered society under the aegis of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
It was established as a non-profit organisation in 1978. It helps government in proposing policies and strategies aimed at reducing India’s dependency on oil, in order to save money, reduce environmental impact of oil use and also conserve fossil fuel.
PCRA aims at making oil conservation a national movement. As part of its mandate, PCRA is entrusted with the task of creating awareness amongst the masses about the importance, methods and benefits of conserving petroleum products & emission reduction.
Over the years, PCRA has developed a number of films, TV spots and radio jingles in various languages for promoting oil conservation. PCRA also publishes quarterly a journal and a newsletter. Active Conservation Techniques (ACT), is a journal containing articles on technology by energy experts. It also brings out successful case studies leading to conservation of energy. The conservation news is an in-house newsletter highlighting the major activities carried out by PCRA in the core sectors.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Petroleum Conservation Research Association (PCRA)
PCRA is a national government agency engaged in promoting energy efficiency in various sectors of economy. It is a registered society under the aegis of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
It was established as a non-profit organisation in 1978. It helps government in proposing policies and strategies aimed at reducing India’s dependency on oil, in order to save money, reduce environmental impact of oil use and also conserve fossil fuel.
PCRA aims at making oil conservation a national movement. As part of its mandate, PCRA is entrusted with the task of creating awareness amongst the masses about the importance, methods and benefits of conserving petroleum products & emission reduction.
Over the years, PCRA has developed a number of films, TV spots and radio jingles in various languages for promoting oil conservation. PCRA also publishes quarterly a journal and a newsletter. Active Conservation Techniques (ACT), is a journal containing articles on technology by energy experts. It also brings out successful case studies leading to conservation of energy. The conservation news is an in-house newsletter highlighting the major activities carried out by PCRA in the core sectors.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Humification leads to accumulation of a dark colored amorphous substance called humus.
- Humus is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate.
- Humus serves as a reservoir of nutrients.
- The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occurs by the process known as catabolism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Detrivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is called fragmentation.
By the process of leaching, watersoluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts.
Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process is called as catabolism. It is important to note that all the above steps in decomposition operate simultaneously on the detritus.
Humification and mineralization occur during decomposition in the soil. Humification leads to accumulation of a dark colored amorphous substance called humus that is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate. Being colloidal in nature it serves as a reservoir of nutrients. The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occurs by the process known as mineralization.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Detrivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is called fragmentation.
By the process of leaching, watersoluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts.
Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process is called as catabolism. It is important to note that all the above steps in decomposition operate simultaneously on the detritus.
Humification and mineralization occur during decomposition in the soil. Humification leads to accumulation of a dark colored amorphous substance called humus that is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate. Being colloidal in nature it serves as a reservoir of nutrients. The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occurs by the process known as mineralization.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Pashmina goat
- It is a special breed of goat indigenous to the high altitude regions of Ladakh.
- These goats are generally domesticated and reared by Bharwad nomadic community.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has published an Indian Standard for identification, marking and labelling of Pashmina products to certify its purity.
Significance and the need for certification:
- The certification will help curb the adulteration of Pashmina.
- Protect the interests of local artisans and nomads who are the producers of Pashmina raw material.
- Assure the purity of Pashmina for customers.
- Discourage counterfeit or substandard products presently mislabeled and sold as genuine Pashmina in the market.
- Motivate the younger generation to continue in this profession as well as encourage more families to take up this occupation.
Background:
The nomadic Pashmina herders live in the hostile and tough terrain of Changthang and are solely dependent on Pashmina for their livelihood. At present, there are 2400 families rearing 2.5 lakh goats.
About Changthangi or Pashmina goat:
- It is a special breed of goat indigenous to the high altitude regions of Ladakh Union Territory.
- They are raised for ultra-fine cashmere wool, known as Pashmina once woven.
- These goats are generally domesticated and reared by nomadic communities called the Changpa in the Changthang region of Greater Ladakh.
- The Changthangi goats have revitalized the economy of Changthang, Leh and Ladakh region.
The Bharwad is a Hindu caste found in the state of Gujarat in India. The term Bharwad is reported to be a modified form of the word ‘Badawad‘ and ‘bada’ means sheep and ‘wada’ in Gujarati refers to compound or enclosure. The person who possess compounds or pens in this caste of shepherds were known as Badawad which in course of time came to be known as Gadarieas.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has published an Indian Standard for identification, marking and labelling of Pashmina products to certify its purity.
Significance and the need for certification:
- The certification will help curb the adulteration of Pashmina.
- Protect the interests of local artisans and nomads who are the producers of Pashmina raw material.
- Assure the purity of Pashmina for customers.
- Discourage counterfeit or substandard products presently mislabeled and sold as genuine Pashmina in the market.
- Motivate the younger generation to continue in this profession as well as encourage more families to take up this occupation.
Background:
The nomadic Pashmina herders live in the hostile and tough terrain of Changthang and are solely dependent on Pashmina for their livelihood. At present, there are 2400 families rearing 2.5 lakh goats.
About Changthangi or Pashmina goat:
- It is a special breed of goat indigenous to the high altitude regions of Ladakh Union Territory.
- They are raised for ultra-fine cashmere wool, known as Pashmina once woven.
- These goats are generally domesticated and reared by nomadic communities called the Changpa in the Changthang region of Greater Ladakh.
- The Changthangi goats have revitalized the economy of Changthang, Leh and Ladakh region.
The Bharwad is a Hindu caste found in the state of Gujarat in India. The term Bharwad is reported to be a modified form of the word ‘Badawad‘ and ‘bada’ means sheep and ‘wada’ in Gujarati refers to compound or enclosure. The person who possess compounds or pens in this caste of shepherds were known as Badawad which in course of time came to be known as Gadarieas.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ecotone
- Mangrove forests represent an ecotone.
- The organisms which occur primarily or most abundantly in this zone are known as edge species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Ecotone
Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. For e.g. the mangrove forests represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystem. Other examples are – grassland, estuary and river bank
Characteristics of Ecotone
- It may be very narrow or quite wide.
- It has the conditions intermediate to the adjacent ecosystems. Hence it is a zone of tension.
- It is linear as it shows progressive increase in species composition of one in coming community and a simultaneous decrease in species of the other outgoing adjoining community.
- A well-developed ecotone contains some organisms which are entirely different from that of the adjoining communities.
- Sometimes the number of species and the population density of some of the species is much greater in this zone than either community. This is called edge effect.
The organisms which occur primarily or most abundantly in this zone are known as edge species. In the terrestrial ecosystems edge effect is especially applicable to birds.
For example, the density of birds is greater in the mixed habitat of the ecotone between the forest and the desert.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Ecotone
Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. For e.g. the mangrove forests represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystem. Other examples are – grassland, estuary and river bank
Characteristics of Ecotone
- It may be very narrow or quite wide.
- It has the conditions intermediate to the adjacent ecosystems. Hence it is a zone of tension.
- It is linear as it shows progressive increase in species composition of one in coming community and a simultaneous decrease in species of the other outgoing adjoining community.
- A well-developed ecotone contains some organisms which are entirely different from that of the adjoining communities.
- Sometimes the number of species and the population density of some of the species is much greater in this zone than either community. This is called edge effect.
The organisms which occur primarily or most abundantly in this zone are known as edge species. In the terrestrial ecosystems edge effect is especially applicable to birds.
For example, the density of birds is greater in the mixed habitat of the ecotone between the forest and the desert.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding biomass production
- Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis.
- Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs.
- Secondary productivity is gross primary productivity minus respiration losses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The rate of biomass production is called productivity. It is expressed in terms of gm–2 yr–1 or (kcal m–2) yr–1 to compare the productivity of different ecosystems. It can be divided into gross primary productivity (GPP) and net primary productivity (NPP). Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plants in respiration. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP).
GPP – R = NPP
Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbiviores and decomposers).
Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The rate of biomass production is called productivity. It is expressed in terms of gm–2 yr–1 or (kcal m–2) yr–1 to compare the productivity of different ecosystems. It can be divided into gross primary productivity (GPP) and net primary productivity (NPP). Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plants in respiration. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP).
GPP – R = NPP
Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbiviores and decomposers).
Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsOne half of a two digit number exceeds its one third by 6. What is the sum of the digits of the number?
Correct
Solution: B
Let the given number be : x
It is given that x/2 – x/3 = 6
Or x/6 =6 or x =36
Therefore, sum of the digits 3+6 = 9
Incorrect
Solution: B
Let the given number be : x
It is given that x/2 – x/3 = 6
Or x/6 =6 or x =36
Therefore, sum of the digits 3+6 = 9
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsMahesh’s age is two didn’t number. If the digits of the age of Mr. Mahesh are reversed then the new age so obtained is the age of his wife. 1/11 of the sum of their ages is equal to the difference between their ages. If Mr. Mahesh is elder than his wife then find the ratio of their ages?
Correct
Solution: D
Let the present age of Mr. Mahesh = (10x + y) yrs.
Present age of his wife = (10y + x) yrs
It is given that,
(1/11)Sum of their ages = Difference of their ages
(1/11)(10x + y + 10y + x) = (10x + y) – (10y + x)
(1/11)(11x + 11y) = 9x – 9y
x + y = 9x – 9y
-8x = -10y
x/y = 10/8
x/y = 5/4
x : y = 5 : 4
Age of Mr. Mahesh = 10(5) + 4 = 54 yrs
Age of his wife = 10(4) + 5 = 45 yrs
Required ratio = 54/45 = 6 : 5.Incorrect
Solution: D
Let the present age of Mr. Mahesh = (10x + y) yrs.
Present age of his wife = (10y + x) yrs
It is given that,
(1/11)Sum of their ages = Difference of their ages
(1/11)(10x + y + 10y + x) = (10x + y) – (10y + x)
(1/11)(11x + 11y) = 9x – 9y
x + y = 9x – 9y
-8x = -10y
x/y = 10/8
x/y = 5/4
x : y = 5 : 4
Age of Mr. Mahesh = 10(5) + 4 = 54 yrs
Age of his wife = 10(4) + 5 = 45 yrs
Required ratio = 54/45 = 6 : 5. -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsA is twice as good a work man as B and together they finish the work in 14 days. In how many days A alone can finish the work?
Correct
Solution: A
Let A takes x days to finish the work
Then the work done by A for one day = 1/x
Work done by B for one day = 1/2x
It is given that 1/x + 1/2x = 1/14
Thus, 3/2x = 1/14
Or 2x = 42 or x= 21
Days taken by A to complete the work is 21 days
Incorrect
Solution: A
Let A takes x days to finish the work
Then the work done by A for one day = 1/x
Work done by B for one day = 1/2x
It is given that 1/x + 1/2x = 1/14
Thus, 3/2x = 1/14
Or 2x = 42 or x= 21
Days taken by A to complete the work is 21 days
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThe distance between Mumbai and Pune is 110 kms. A starts from Mumbai with a speed of 20 kmph at 7 AM for Pune and B starts from Pune with a speed of 25 kmph at 8 AM for Mumbai. When will they meet?
Correct
Solution: B
Since second train starts 8 AM, first train which is leaving from Mumbai at 7 AM had already travelled a distance of 20 Km.
Thus, remaining distance to be covered is D = 110 – 20 = 90
Since, two trains are moving opposite direction, their relative speed (RS) = 20 + 25 = 45 Kmph
Therefore, Time taken= Distance/Speed = 90/45 = 2 hours
Time of Meeting will 2 hrs from 8 AM i.e 10 AMIncorrect
Solution: B
Since second train starts 8 AM, first train which is leaving from Mumbai at 7 AM had already travelled a distance of 20 Km.
Thus, remaining distance to be covered is D = 110 – 20 = 90
Since, two trains are moving opposite direction, their relative speed (RS) = 20 + 25 = 45 Kmph
Therefore, Time taken= Distance/Speed = 90/45 = 2 hours
Time of Meeting will 2 hrs from 8 AM i.e 10 AM -
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsHow many 4 digit even number can formed by using the digits 1,3,7 and 8 only once ?
Correct
Solution: C
To be an even number, the units digit has to even number, in this case only 8 should come in the unit’s place.
Thus, remaining places can be filled by remaining three numbers in 3! Ways or 6 ways.
Incorrect
Solution: C
To be an even number, the units digit has to even number, in this case only 8 should come in the unit’s place.
Thus, remaining places can be filled by remaining three numbers in 3! Ways or 6 ways.











