INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the following statements:
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- It aims to grant Indian citizenship to all persecuted minorities from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan.
- It does not apply to areas under the sixth schedule of the Constitution.
- It does not apply to states that have the inner-line permit regime.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: The objective of the CAA is to grant Indian citizenship to persecuted minorities — Hindu, Sikh, Jain, Buddhist, Parsi and Christian — from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan.
- It does not protect all religious minorities, nor does it apply to all neighbours. Ex: Ahmedia Muslim sect in Pakistan, Rohingya Muslims and Hindus from Burma etc.
- S2: The Act does not apply to tribal areas of Tripura, Mizoram, Assam and Meghalaya because of being included in the 6th Schedule of the Constitution.
- S3: Also areas that fall under the Inner Limit notified under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation, 1873, will also be outside the Act’s purview.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/09/09/citizenship-amendment-act-2019/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: The objective of the CAA is to grant Indian citizenship to persecuted minorities — Hindu, Sikh, Jain, Buddhist, Parsi and Christian — from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan.
- It does not protect all religious minorities, nor does it apply to all neighbours. Ex: Ahmedia Muslim sect in Pakistan, Rohingya Muslims and Hindus from Burma etc.
- S2: The Act does not apply to tribal areas of Tripura, Mizoram, Assam and Meghalaya because of being included in the 6th Schedule of the Constitution.
- S3: Also areas that fall under the Inner Limit notified under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation, 1873, will also be outside the Act’s purview.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/09/09/citizenship-amendment-act-2019/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Whenever a vacancy is expected to arise in the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court, the President of India will initiate proposal to fill up the vacancy.
- The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: Whenever a vacancy is expected to arise in the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India will initiate proposal and forward his recommendation to the Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs to fill up the vacancy.
- S2: The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/09/09/supreme-court-collegium-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: Whenever a vacancy is expected to arise in the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India will initiate proposal and forward his recommendation to the Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs to fill up the vacancy.
- S2: The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/09/09/supreme-court-collegium-2/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Iran Nuclear Deal:
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- It was a preliminary framework agreement reached in 2015 between Iran and Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
- As part of the deal, Iran agreed to reduce its stockpile of enriched uranium by 50% and limit uranium enrichment to 2%.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: Also known as the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA).
- The JCPOA was the result of prolonged negotiations from 2013 and 2015 between Iran and P5+1 (China, France, Germany, Russia, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union, or the EU).
- S2: As part of the deal, Iran agreed to reduce its number of centrifuges – tube-shaped machines that help enrich uranium – by two-thirds. It also agreed to reduce its stockpile of enriched uranium by 98% and limit uranium enrichment to 3.67%.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/09/09/iran-nuclear-deal-4/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: Also known as the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA).
- The JCPOA was the result of prolonged negotiations from 2013 and 2015 between Iran and P5+1 (China, France, Germany, Russia, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union, or the EU).
- S2: As part of the deal, Iran agreed to reduce its number of centrifuges – tube-shaped machines that help enrich uranium – by two-thirds. It also agreed to reduce its stockpile of enriched uranium by 98% and limit uranium enrichment to 3.67%.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/09/09/iran-nuclear-deal-4/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Union Budget 2021-22 had announced that Minimum support price (MSP) would be kept at levels of 1.5 the cost of production.
- The MSP is fixed twice a year on the recommendations of the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA).
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: The Union Budget for 2018-19 had announced that MSP would be kept at levels of 1.5 the cost of production.
- S2: The MSP is fixed twice a year on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which is a statutory body and submits separate reports recommending prices for kharif and rabi seasons.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/09/09/minimum-support-price-msp-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: The Union Budget for 2018-19 had announced that MSP would be kept at levels of 1.5 the cost of production.
- S2: The MSP is fixed twice a year on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which is a statutory body and submits separate reports recommending prices for kharif and rabi seasons.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/09/09/minimum-support-price-msp-2/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsAs per the Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Thickness of plastic carry bags to be increased from 50 microns –
- to 75 microns from 30th September, 2021
- to 120 microns from the 31st December, 2022
- The waste management infrastructure in the States/UTs is being strengthened through the Swachh Bharat Mission.
- Refer: Government notifies the Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021, prohibiting identified single use plastic items by 2022.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/08/16/plastic-waste-management-amendment-rules-2021/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Thickness of plastic carry bags to be increased from 50 microns –
- to 75 microns from 30th September, 2021
- to 120 microns from the 31st December, 2022
- The waste management infrastructure in the States/UTs is being strengthened through the Swachh Bharat Mission.
- Refer: Government notifies the Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021, prohibiting identified single use plastic items by 2022.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/08/16/plastic-waste-management-amendment-rules-2021/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about “Montreal Protocol”:
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- It is the landmark multilateral environmental agreement that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific consensus.
- It led to the replacement of Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) with Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which do not destroy the Ozone layer.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation;
- S1: The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is the landmark multilateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone depleting substances (ODS). When released to the atmosphere, those chemicals damage the stratospheric ozone layer, Earth’s protective shield that protects humans and the environment from harmful levels of ultraviolet radiation from the sun. Adopted on 15 September 1987, the Protocol is to date the only UN treaty ever that has been ratified every country on Earth – all 198 UN Member States.
- S2: The Montreal Protocol led to the replacement of CFCs with Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) which do not destroy the Ozone layer.
- Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) are gases used worldwide in refrigeration, air-conditioning and foam applications, but they are being phased out under the Montreal Protocol since deplete the ozone layer. HCFCs are both ODS and powerful greenhouse gases: the most commonly used HCFC is nearly 2,000 times more potent than carbon dioxide in terms of its global warming potential (GWP).
- Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), were introduced as non-ozone depleting alternatives to support the timely phase out of CFCs and HCFCs. HFCs are now widespread in air conditioners, refrigerators, aerosols, foams and other products. While these chemicals do not deplete the stratospheric ozone layer, some of them have high GWPs ranging from 12 to 14,000.
Refer: https://www.unep.org/ozonaction/who-we-are/about-montreal-protocol
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation;
- S1: The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is the landmark multilateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone depleting substances (ODS). When released to the atmosphere, those chemicals damage the stratospheric ozone layer, Earth’s protective shield that protects humans and the environment from harmful levels of ultraviolet radiation from the sun. Adopted on 15 September 1987, the Protocol is to date the only UN treaty ever that has been ratified every country on Earth – all 198 UN Member States.
- S2: The Montreal Protocol led to the replacement of CFCs with Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) which do not destroy the Ozone layer.
- Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) are gases used worldwide in refrigeration, air-conditioning and foam applications, but they are being phased out under the Montreal Protocol since deplete the ozone layer. HCFCs are both ODS and powerful greenhouse gases: the most commonly used HCFC is nearly 2,000 times more potent than carbon dioxide in terms of its global warming potential (GWP).
- Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), were introduced as non-ozone depleting alternatives to support the timely phase out of CFCs and HCFCs. HFCs are now widespread in air conditioners, refrigerators, aerosols, foams and other products. While these chemicals do not deplete the stratospheric ozone layer, some of them have high GWPs ranging from 12 to 14,000.
Refer: https://www.unep.org/ozonaction/who-we-are/about-montreal-protocol
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 points“Climate Change 2021: The Physical Science Basis” released by which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Recently, Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change released its Sixth Assessment Report “Climate Change 2021: The Physical Science”.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/08/14/ipccs-sixth-assessment-report/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Recently, Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change released its Sixth Assessment Report “Climate Change 2021: The Physical Science”.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/08/14/ipccs-sixth-assessment-report/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Sutlej River, consider the following statements:
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- It rises near Rakastal which is fed by the lake Mansrover.
- It is known as Singi Khamban inside Tibet/China.
- Its main tributary in India are Ravi and Beas.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: The Sutlej river rises near Rakastal which is fed by the lake Mansrover in the Tibetan Plateau at an elevation level (EL) of about 4,572 M.
- S2: The river Sutlej is known as Langqen Zagbo inside Tibet/China.
- S3: The main tributary in India are Ravi and Beas
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: The Sutlej river rises near Rakastal which is fed by the lake Mansrover in the Tibetan Plateau at an elevation level (EL) of about 4,572 M.
- S2: The river Sutlej is known as Langqen Zagbo inside Tibet/China.
- S3: The main tributary in India are Ravi and Beas
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsIn its 2015 report, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) identified 302 polluted stretches on 275 rivers, spanning 28 States and six Union Territories. As per this study, which one of the following state has the maximum number of polluted river stretches in India?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in 2018 identified 351 polluted river stretches in India. The assessment of water quality for identification of polluted river stretches found that 31 states and Union territories (UT) had rivers and streams that did not meet the water quality criteria. These states / UTs have to submit their action plans for the same.
- Maharashtra has the highest number of polluted river stretches (53), followed by Assam (44), Madhya Pradesh (22), Kerala (21), Gujarat (20), Odisha (19), and West Bengal and Karnataka (17).
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in 2018 identified 351 polluted river stretches in India. The assessment of water quality for identification of polluted river stretches found that 31 states and Union territories (UT) had rivers and streams that did not meet the water quality criteria. These states / UTs have to submit their action plans for the same.
- Maharashtra has the highest number of polluted river stretches (53), followed by Assam (44), Madhya Pradesh (22), Kerala (21), Gujarat (20), Odisha (19), and West Bengal and Karnataka (17).
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsIn which one of the following States is Lemru Elephant Reserve located?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Chhattisgarh government is considering extending the area of the proposed Lemru Elephant Reserve (LER) following demands from the activists, who are advocating the inclusion of the total catchment area of the Hasdeo River within the pachyderms’ new habitat.
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Chhattisgarh government is considering extending the area of the proposed Lemru Elephant Reserve (LER) following demands from the activists, who are advocating the inclusion of the total catchment area of the Hasdeo River within the pachyderms’ new habitat.
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