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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following was/were the attributes of the Indigo Revolt 1859-60?
- The play Nil Darpan (The Mirror of Indigo) by Dinabandhu Mitra written in 1858 – 59 portrayed the farmers’ situation
- It was led by Degambar and Bishnu Biswas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: C
The peasants were supported by the intelligentsia and press. The play Nil Darpan (The Mirror of Indigo) by Dinabandhu Mitra written in 1858 – 59 portrayed the farmers’ situation accurately. It showed how farmers were coerced into planting indigo without adequate payment. The play became a talking point and it urged the Bengali intelligentsia to lend support to the indigo revolt.
The Indigo revolt was a peasant movement and subsequent uprising of indigo farmers against the indigo planters that arose in Bengal in 1859. It was led by Degambar and Bishnu Biswas.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The peasants were supported by the intelligentsia and press. The play Nil Darpan (The Mirror of Indigo) by Dinabandhu Mitra written in 1858 – 59 portrayed the farmers’ situation accurately. It showed how farmers were coerced into planting indigo without adequate payment. The play became a talking point and it urged the Bengali intelligentsia to lend support to the indigo revolt.
The Indigo revolt was a peasant movement and subsequent uprising of indigo farmers against the indigo planters that arose in Bengal in 1859. It was led by Degambar and Bishnu Biswas.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Namdeo Dhasal
- He was a Dalit activist from Bihar
- He founded the Dalit Panther movement
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Namdeo Laxman Dhasal was a Marathi poet, writer and Dalit activist from Maharashtra, India. Following the example of the American Black Panther movement, he founded the Dalit Panther movement with friends in 1972.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Namdeo Laxman Dhasal was a Marathi poet, writer and Dalit activist from Maharashtra, India. Following the example of the American Black Panther movement, he founded the Dalit Panther movement with friends in 1972.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsKol Uprisings was led by:
Correct
Solution: B
Kol Uprisings by the Kols of Chottanagpur led by Buddho Bhagat (1831); against expansion of British rule on their lands and transfer of their lands to outsiders; the revolt was suppressed.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Kol Uprisings by the Kols of Chottanagpur led by Buddho Bhagat (1831); against expansion of British rule on their lands and transfer of their lands to outsiders; the revolt was suppressed.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsKapu is a social grouping of agriculturists found primarily in
Correct
Solution: A
Kapu literally means cultivator or agriculturist in Telugu. It is a dominant peasant caste found in Telugu speaking states of Andhra Pradesh (AP) and Telangana
Incorrect
Solution: A
Kapu literally means cultivator or agriculturist in Telugu. It is a dominant peasant caste found in Telugu speaking states of Andhra Pradesh (AP) and Telangana
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Revolt of Moamarias
- Moamarias were low-caste peasants who followed the teachings of Aniruddhadeva.
- They revoted against Mughals
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Revolt of Moamarias (1769-99)
The revolt of the Moamarias in 1769 was a potent challenge to the authority of Ahom kings of Assam. The Moamarias were low-caste peasants who followed the teachings of Aniruddhadeva (1553-1624), and their rise was similar to that of other low-caste groups in north India. Their revolts weakened the Ahoms and opened the doors for others to attack the region, for instance, in 1792, the King of Darrang (Krishnanarayan), assisted by his band of burkandazes (the demobilised soldiers of the Muslim armies and zamindars) revolted. To crush these revolts, the Ahom ruler had to request for British help.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Revolt of Moamarias (1769-99)
The revolt of the Moamarias in 1769 was a potent challenge to the authority of Ahom kings of Assam. The Moamarias were low-caste peasants who followed the teachings of Aniruddhadeva (1553-1624), and their rise was similar to that of other low-caste groups in north India. Their revolts weakened the Ahoms and opened the doors for others to attack the region, for instance, in 1792, the King of Darrang (Krishnanarayan), assisted by his band of burkandazes (the demobilised soldiers of the Muslim armies and zamindars) revolted. To crush these revolts, the Ahom ruler had to request for British help.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are properties of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)?
- POPs concentrate in living organisms through another process called bioaccumulation.
- They are not soluble in water but are readily absorbed in fatty tissue
- They are toxic to both humans and wildlife
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) are organic chemical substances, that is, they are carbon-based. They possess a particular combination of physical and chemical properties such that, once released into the environment, they:
- remain intact for exceptionally long periods of time (many years);
- become widely distributed throughout the environment as a result of natural processes involving soil, water and, most notably, air;
- accumulate in the fatty tissue of living organisms including humans, and are found at higher concentrations at higher levels in the food chain; and
- are toxic to both humans and wildlife.
As a result of releases to the environment over the past several decades due especially to human activities, POPs are now widely distributed over large regions (including those where POPs have never been used) and, in some cases, they are found around the globe. This extensive contamination of environmental media and living organisms includes many foodstuffs and has resulted in the sustained exposure of many species, including humans, for periods of time that span generations, resulting in both acute and chronic toxic effects.
In addition, POPs concentrate in living organisms through another process called bioaccumulation. Though not soluble in water, POPs are readily absorbed in fatty tissue, where concentrations can become magnified by up to 70,000 times the background levels. Fish, predatory birds, mammals, and humans are high up the food chain and so absorb the greatest concentrations. When they travel, the POPs travel with them. As a result of these two processes, POPs can be found in people and animals living in regions such as the Arctic, thousands of kilometers from any major POPs source.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) are organic chemical substances, that is, they are carbon-based. They possess a particular combination of physical and chemical properties such that, once released into the environment, they:
- remain intact for exceptionally long periods of time (many years);
- become widely distributed throughout the environment as a result of natural processes involving soil, water and, most notably, air;
- accumulate in the fatty tissue of living organisms including humans, and are found at higher concentrations at higher levels in the food chain; and
- are toxic to both humans and wildlife.
As a result of releases to the environment over the past several decades due especially to human activities, POPs are now widely distributed over large regions (including those where POPs have never been used) and, in some cases, they are found around the globe. This extensive contamination of environmental media and living organisms includes many foodstuffs and has resulted in the sustained exposure of many species, including humans, for periods of time that span generations, resulting in both acute and chronic toxic effects.
In addition, POPs concentrate in living organisms through another process called bioaccumulation. Though not soluble in water, POPs are readily absorbed in fatty tissue, where concentrations can become magnified by up to 70,000 times the background levels. Fish, predatory birds, mammals, and humans are high up the food chain and so absorb the greatest concentrations. When they travel, the POPs travel with them. As a result of these two processes, POPs can be found in people and animals living in regions such as the Arctic, thousands of kilometers from any major POPs source.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following National Park has been designated as mixed site in the list of UNESCO’s World Heritage sites?
Correct
Solution: D
Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP), Sikkim has been inscribed as India’s first “Mixed World Heritage Site” on UNESCO World Heritage List, by fulfilling the nomination criteria under both natural and cultural heritage. The 40th Session of the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, at a meeting in Istanbul, Turkey, granted approval for the inscription of India’s on the coveted UNESCO World Heritage List.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP), Sikkim has been inscribed as India’s first “Mixed World Heritage Site” on UNESCO World Heritage List, by fulfilling the nomination criteria under both natural and cultural heritage. The 40th Session of the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, at a meeting in Istanbul, Turkey, granted approval for the inscription of India’s on the coveted UNESCO World Heritage List.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following reports is/are published by World Economic forum (WEF)
- Global Competitiveness Report
- Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Report
- Global Gender Gap Report
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution: D
World Economic forum (WEF) is a not-for-profit foundation established in 1971 and headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
Major Reports and Indices by WEF are
- Global Gender Gap Report
- Global Competitiveness Report
- Global Human Capital Report
- Inclusive Development Index
- Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Report
- Global Energy architecture performance index report.
Incorrect
Solution: D
World Economic forum (WEF) is a not-for-profit foundation established in 1971 and headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
Major Reports and Indices by WEF are
- Global Gender Gap Report
- Global Competitiveness Report
- Global Human Capital Report
- Inclusive Development Index
- Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Report
- Global Energy architecture performance index report.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries are part of G-4 Nations?
Correct
Solution: B
The G4 nations comprising Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan are four countries which support each other’s bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council
Incorrect
Solution: B
The G4 nations comprising Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan are four countries which support each other’s bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsRatapani Tiger Reserve, sometime seen in the news, is located in
Correct
Solution: A
The Ratapani Tiger Reserve, located in the Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh, in Vindhya Range in central India, is one of the finest teak forests in the state and is less than 50 km. away from the capital Bhopal.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Ratapani Tiger Reserve, located in the Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh, in Vindhya Range in central India, is one of the finest teak forests in the state and is less than 50 km. away from the capital Bhopal.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding World Nature Organisation
- It promotes sustainable conduct as regards the natural environment, together with new, environments-friendly technologies, green economies and renewable energies.
- Recently, India as member of World Nature Organization (WNO)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
World Nature Organization (WNO):
- Established When and by Whom: WNO initiative was born in 2010 by states which are threatened by rising sea levels. The WNO Treaty officially entered into force on 1st May 2014.
- Location: Geneva
Key Functions:
- It is an intergovernmental organisation which promotes global environmental protection.
- WNO acts as a centre of competence for environmental protection, green technologies and sustainability, and as a mediator and initiator, making available experience of practical applications and strategies, offering support on all issues related to responsible conduct as regards the natural environment and its resources and assisting States to benefit from efficient development and from scientific and technology transfer.
- The World Nature Organization promotes sustainable conduct as regards the natural environment, together with new, environments-friendly technologies, green economies and renewable energies.
India is not a member of WNO
Incorrect
Solution: A
World Nature Organization (WNO):
- Established When and by Whom: WNO initiative was born in 2010 by states which are threatened by rising sea levels. The WNO Treaty officially entered into force on 1st May 2014.
- Location: Geneva
Key Functions:
- It is an intergovernmental organisation which promotes global environmental protection.
- WNO acts as a centre of competence for environmental protection, green technologies and sustainability, and as a mediator and initiator, making available experience of practical applications and strategies, offering support on all issues related to responsible conduct as regards the natural environment and its resources and assisting States to benefit from efficient development and from scientific and technology transfer.
- The World Nature Organization promotes sustainable conduct as regards the natural environment, together with new, environments-friendly technologies, green economies and renewable energies.
India is not a member of WNO
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)
- It is a statutory Board constituted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
- The board is advisory in nature and can only advise the Government on policy making for conservation of wildlife.
- It is chaired by the Union Environment minister
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)
- National Board for Wildlife is a statutory Board constituted officially in 2003 under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
- The NBWL is chaired by the Prime Minister and is responsible for promotion of conservation and development of wildlife and forests.
- The board is ‘advisory’ in nature and can only advise the Government on policy making for conservation of wildlife.
- It is an important body because it serves as an apex body for the review of all wildlife-related matters and for the approval of projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries.
- The standing committee of NBWL is chaired by the Minister of Environment Forest and Climate Change.
Incorrect
Solution: A
National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)
- National Board for Wildlife is a statutory Board constituted officially in 2003 under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
- The NBWL is chaired by the Prime Minister and is responsible for promotion of conservation and development of wildlife and forests.
- The board is ‘advisory’ in nature and can only advise the Government on policy making for conservation of wildlife.
- It is an important body because it serves as an apex body for the review of all wildlife-related matters and for the approval of projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries.
- The standing committee of NBWL is chaired by the Minister of Environment Forest and Climate Change.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Eco-Sensitive Zones
- These are areas notified within 50km around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
- The term Eco-Sensitive Zone is clearly defined under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- ESZs are notified by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, under Environment Protection Act, 1986.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Eco-Sensitive Zones:
- Eco-Sensitive Zones or Ecologically Fragile Areas are areas within 10 kms around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
- In case of places with sensitive corridors, connectivity and ecologically important patches, crucial for landscape linkage, even areas beyond 10 km width can be included in the eco-sensitive zone.
- ESZs are notified by MoEFCC, under Environment Protection Act, 1986.
- The basic aim is to regulate certain activities around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries so as to minimise the negative impacts of such activities on the fragile ecosystem encompassing the protected areas.
- The purpose of declaring ESZs is to create some kind of “shock absorbers” to the protected areas by regulating and managing the activities around such areas.
- They also act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas involving lesser protection.
- The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 does not mention the word “Eco-Sensitive Zones”.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Eco-Sensitive Zones:
- Eco-Sensitive Zones or Ecologically Fragile Areas are areas within 10 kms around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
- In case of places with sensitive corridors, connectivity and ecologically important patches, crucial for landscape linkage, even areas beyond 10 km width can be included in the eco-sensitive zone.
- ESZs are notified by MoEFCC, under Environment Protection Act, 1986.
- The basic aim is to regulate certain activities around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries so as to minimise the negative impacts of such activities on the fragile ecosystem encompassing the protected areas.
- The purpose of declaring ESZs is to create some kind of “shock absorbers” to the protected areas by regulating and managing the activities around such areas.
- They also act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas involving lesser protection.
- The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 does not mention the word “Eco-Sensitive Zones”.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are possible uses of Lichens?
- Separation of minerals by eroding rocks.
- Key ingredient in many cuisines.
- Used in sunscreen creams, dyes, and some medicines.
- Act as Bioindicators
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Correct
Solution: D
Lichens
- Lichen is a composite organism that emerges from algae or cyanobacteria living among the filaments of the fungi, living in a symbiotic relationship.
- Whereas algae normally grow only in aquatic or extremely moist environments, lichens can potentially be found on almost any surface (especially rocks) or as epiphytes (meaning that they grow on other plants).
- Lichens are slow growing and can live for centuries.
Major uses of lichens:
- Lichens have the ability to separate minerals by eroding rocks.
- Lichen is also a key ingredient in many cuisines.
- They are used to prepare an indigenous perfume in Kannauj.
- They are also used in sunscreen creams, dyes, and some medicines.
- Some lichens are very tolerant to pollutants such as nitrogen and sulphur compounds, while others are very sensitive to the presence of one or both of these chemicals. Hence, the species act as
- Also, it absorbs and stores radioactive substances, such as cesium and strontium compounds, without apparent harm.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Lichens
- Lichen is a composite organism that emerges from algae or cyanobacteria living among the filaments of the fungi, living in a symbiotic relationship.
- Whereas algae normally grow only in aquatic or extremely moist environments, lichens can potentially be found on almost any surface (especially rocks) or as epiphytes (meaning that they grow on other plants).
- Lichens are slow growing and can live for centuries.
Major uses of lichens:
- Lichens have the ability to separate minerals by eroding rocks.
- Lichen is also a key ingredient in many cuisines.
- They are used to prepare an indigenous perfume in Kannauj.
- They are also used in sunscreen creams, dyes, and some medicines.
- Some lichens are very tolerant to pollutants such as nitrogen and sulphur compounds, while others are very sensitive to the presence of one or both of these chemicals. Hence, the species act as
- Also, it absorbs and stores radioactive substances, such as cesium and strontium compounds, without apparent harm.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsEnvironmental performance index has been released by
Correct
Solution: D
Environmental performance index
- 12th edition of the biennial Environment Performance Index (EPI Index 2020) has been released by Yale University.
- The Environmental Performance Index (EPI) is a method of quantifying and numerically marking the environmental performance of a state’s policies.
- This index was developed from the Pilot Environmental Performance Index, first published in 2002, and designed to supplement the environmental targets set forth in the United Nations Millennium Development Goals.
- The index ranks 180 countries on 32 performance indicators across 11 categories covering environmental health and ecosystem vitality.
- The index is a method of quantifying and numerically marking the environmental performance of a state’s policies.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Environmental performance index
- 12th edition of the biennial Environment Performance Index (EPI Index 2020) has been released by Yale University.
- The Environmental Performance Index (EPI) is a method of quantifying and numerically marking the environmental performance of a state’s policies.
- This index was developed from the Pilot Environmental Performance Index, first published in 2002, and designed to supplement the environmental targets set forth in the United Nations Millennium Development Goals.
- The index ranks 180 countries on 32 performance indicators across 11 categories covering environmental health and ecosystem vitality.
- The index is a method of quantifying and numerically marking the environmental performance of a state’s policies.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following battle ended with the Treaty of Allahabad?
Correct
Solution: B
The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on August 16, 1765 between Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II of Bengal and Lord Clive of the British East India Company after the Battle of Buxar (1764). Based on the terms of the agreement, Shah Alam II granted Diwani rights to the East India Company. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on August 16, 1765 between Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II of Bengal and Lord Clive of the British East India Company after the Battle of Buxar (1764). Based on the terms of the agreement, Shah Alam II granted Diwani rights to the East India Company. Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Raja Sawai Jai Singh (Jai Singh II), consider the following statements:
- He initiated socio –religious reforms such as the abolition of Sati.
- He commissioned the Jantar Mantar observatories at multiple places in India.
- He constructed the city of Ahmadabad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Jai Singh II (3 November 1688 – 21 September 1743) was he Hindu Rajput ruler of the kingdom of Amber, he later founded the fortified city of Jaipur and made it his capital. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Ahmedabad was founded by the, ruler of Gujarat, Sultan Ahmed Shah in 1411 AD.
Being initiated in the Nimbarka Sampradaya of the Vaishnava religion, Raja Sawai Jai Singh also promoted Sanskrit learning and initiated reforms in Hindu society like the abolition of Sati and curbing the wasteful expenditures in Rajput weddings. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
He built five observatories at Delhi, Mathura (in his Agra province), Benares, Ujjain (capital of his Malwa province), and his own capital of Jaipur. His astronomical observations were remarkably accurate.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Jai Singh II (3 November 1688 – 21 September 1743) was he Hindu Rajput ruler of the kingdom of Amber, he later founded the fortified city of Jaipur and made it his capital. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Ahmedabad was founded by the, ruler of Gujarat, Sultan Ahmed Shah in 1411 AD.
Being initiated in the Nimbarka Sampradaya of the Vaishnava religion, Raja Sawai Jai Singh also promoted Sanskrit learning and initiated reforms in Hindu society like the abolition of Sati and curbing the wasteful expenditures in Rajput weddings. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
He built five observatories at Delhi, Mathura (in his Agra province), Benares, Ujjain (capital of his Malwa province), and his own capital of Jaipur. His astronomical observations were remarkably accurate.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Battle of Colachel was fought between the Indian kingdom of Travancore and the British East India Company.
- The Serampur Mission Press was established by the Dutch missionaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Both statements given above are incorrect.
The Battle of Colachel was fought on 10 August 1741 between the Indian kingdom of Travancore and the Dutch East India Company, during the Travancore-Dutch War. Travancore, under Raja Marthanda Varma, defeated the Dutch East India Company.
The Serampur Mission Press was a book and newspaper publisher that operated in Serampur, Danish India, from 1801 to 1837. The Press was founded by William Carey, William Ward, and other British Baptist missionaries at the Serampur Mission.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Both statements given above are incorrect.
The Battle of Colachel was fought on 10 August 1741 between the Indian kingdom of Travancore and the Dutch East India Company, during the Travancore-Dutch War. Travancore, under Raja Marthanda Varma, defeated the Dutch East India Company.
The Serampur Mission Press was a book and newspaper publisher that operated in Serampur, Danish India, from 1801 to 1837. The Press was founded by William Carey, William Ward, and other British Baptist missionaries at the Serampur Mission.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the British policy of Subsidiary Alliance system, consider the following statements:
- It was given definite shape under the Governor Generalship of Lord Wallesley.
- Under the system, the ruler of the allying Indian state was compelled to accept the permanent stationing of a British force within his territory and to pay a subsidy for its maintenance.
- It usually provided that the Indian ruler would agree to the posting at his court of a British Resident.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
While the practice of helping an Indian ruler with a paid British force was quite old, it was given definite shape by Wellesley who used it to subordinate the Indian states to the paramount authority of the Company. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Under his Subsidiary Alliance system, the ruler of the allying Indian state was compelled to accept the permanent stationing of a British force within his territory and to pay a subsidy for its maintenance. All this was done allegedly for his protection but was, in fact, a form through which the Indian ruler paid tribute to the Company. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The ‘Subsidiary Treaty’ usually also provided that the Indian ruler would agree to the posting at his court of a British Resident, that he would not employ any European in his service without the approval of the British, and that he would not negotiate with any other Indian ruler without consulting the Governor-General. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
In return, the British undertook to defend the ruler from his enemies. They also promised non-interference in the internal affairs of the allied state, but this was a promise they seldom kept.
Incorrect
Solution: D
While the practice of helping an Indian ruler with a paid British force was quite old, it was given definite shape by Wellesley who used it to subordinate the Indian states to the paramount authority of the Company. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Under his Subsidiary Alliance system, the ruler of the allying Indian state was compelled to accept the permanent stationing of a British force within his territory and to pay a subsidy for its maintenance. All this was done allegedly for his protection but was, in fact, a form through which the Indian ruler paid tribute to the Company. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The ‘Subsidiary Treaty’ usually also provided that the Indian ruler would agree to the posting at his court of a British Resident, that he would not employ any European in his service without the approval of the British, and that he would not negotiate with any other Indian ruler without consulting the Governor-General. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
In return, the British undertook to defend the ruler from his enemies. They also promised non-interference in the internal affairs of the allied state, but this was a promise they seldom kept.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- First Anglo Sikh war was fought between British and Ranjit Singh.
- By the treaty of Amritsar Ranjit Singh promised not to expand east of the Sutlej.
- Lord Dalhousie annexed the whole of the Punjab to the British Empire after the Second Anglo-Sikh war.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The loose confederation of the Sikhs of Punjab was unified into a compact powerful unit by Ranjit Singh. He expanded his empire through conquests. To check his advance beyond the Sutlej the East India Company persuaded Ranjit Singh to sign the Treaty of Amritsar (1809). By this treaty he promised not to expand east of the Sutlej and confine his conquests to the north. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
After Ranjit Singh’s death, the Punjab went through a period of chaos and confusion. In 1843, Ranjit Singh’s minor son, Dalip Singh, became the ruler with Rani Jindan as the Regent. To weaken the army and keep it engaged, Rani Jindan deliberately encouraged the army to cross the river Sutlej and attack the English. In December 1845 the Sikh army crossed the Sutlej and invaded the Company’s territories. This led to the First Anglo-Sikh War (1845-1846). Sikh soldiers fought very bravely but they were completely defeated. The British army occupied Lahore. War ended with signing of treaty of Lahore.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
British control over the Punjab aroused a lot of resentment among the Sikhs. In 1848 a number of revolts against the British broke out in the Punjab. The Governor-General, Lord Dalhousie, declared war. The Sikh army which had been reduced by the Treaty of Lahore was completely crushed. By a proclamation in 1849, Lord Dalhousie annexed the whole of the Punjab to the British Empire. Dalip Singh was pensioned off. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The loose confederation of the Sikhs of Punjab was unified into a compact powerful unit by Ranjit Singh. He expanded his empire through conquests. To check his advance beyond the Sutlej the East India Company persuaded Ranjit Singh to sign the Treaty of Amritsar (1809). By this treaty he promised not to expand east of the Sutlej and confine his conquests to the north. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
After Ranjit Singh’s death, the Punjab went through a period of chaos and confusion. In 1843, Ranjit Singh’s minor son, Dalip Singh, became the ruler with Rani Jindan as the Regent. To weaken the army and keep it engaged, Rani Jindan deliberately encouraged the army to cross the river Sutlej and attack the English. In December 1845 the Sikh army crossed the Sutlej and invaded the Company’s territories. This led to the First Anglo-Sikh War (1845-1846). Sikh soldiers fought very bravely but they were completely defeated. The British army occupied Lahore. War ended with signing of treaty of Lahore.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
British control over the Punjab aroused a lot of resentment among the Sikhs. In 1848 a number of revolts against the British broke out in the Punjab. The Governor-General, Lord Dalhousie, declared war. The Sikh army which had been reduced by the Treaty of Lahore was completely crushed. By a proclamation in 1849, Lord Dalhousie annexed the whole of the Punjab to the British Empire. Dalip Singh was pensioned off. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Tipu Sultan, consider the following statements:
- He commissioned a military manual called Fathul Mujahidin.
- Tipu Sultan laid the foundation for the construction of the present-day Krishna Raja Sagara or KRS dam on the Kaveri river.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both statements given above are correct.
Tipu Sultan commissioned a military manual called Fathul Mujahidin. The manual explains the operation of Mysore rockets.
Tipu Sultan laid the foundation for the construction of the Kannambadi dam (present-day Krishna Raja Sagara or KRS dam) on the Kaveri river, as attested by an extant stone plaque bearing his name, but was unable to begin the construction. The dam was later built and opened in 1938. It is a major source of drinking water for the people of Mysore and Bangalore.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both statements given above are correct.
Tipu Sultan commissioned a military manual called Fathul Mujahidin. The manual explains the operation of Mysore rockets.
Tipu Sultan laid the foundation for the construction of the Kannambadi dam (present-day Krishna Raja Sagara or KRS dam) on the Kaveri river, as attested by an extant stone plaque bearing his name, but was unable to begin the construction. The dam was later built and opened in 1938. It is a major source of drinking water for the people of Mysore and Bangalore.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the British Policy towards Princely States, consider the following statements:
- Under the Policy of Ring of Fence the East India Company undertook to organize Awadh’s defence to safeguard Bengal’s security.
- The Butler Committee (1927) was set up to examine the nature of relationship between the Princely states and British Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both statements given above are correct.
Policy of Ring of Fence was reflected in Warren Hastings’ wars against the Marathas and Mysore, and aimed at creating buffer zones to defend the Company’s frontiers. The main threat was from the Marathas and Afghan invaders (the Company undertook to organize Awadh’s defence to safeguard Bengal’s security).
The Butler Committee (1927) was set up to examine the nature of relationship between the states and Government.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both statements given above are correct.
Policy of Ring of Fence was reflected in Warren Hastings’ wars against the Marathas and Mysore, and aimed at creating buffer zones to defend the Company’s frontiers. The main threat was from the Marathas and Afghan invaders (the Company undertook to organize Awadh’s defence to safeguard Bengal’s security).
The Butler Committee (1927) was set up to examine the nature of relationship between the states and Government.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Social Movement: Region:
- The Satnami Movement Chhattisgarh
- Adi Dharma Movement Maharashtra
- Mahar Movement Punjab
Which of the pairs given above is correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: A
Dalit movements and the meaning of identity, there has been a common quest for equality, self-dignity and eradication of untouchability.
This can be seen in the Satnami Movement of the Chamars in the Chattisgarh plains in eastern MP, Adi Dharma Movement in Punjab, the Mahar Movement in Maharashtra, the socio-political mobilisation among the Jatavas of Agra and the Anti –Brahman Movement in south India.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Dalit movements and the meaning of identity, there has been a common quest for equality, self-dignity and eradication of untouchability.
This can be seen in the Satnami Movement of the Chamars in the Chattisgarh plains in eastern MP, Adi Dharma Movement in Punjab, the Mahar Movement in Maharashtra, the socio-political mobilisation among the Jatavas of Agra and the Anti –Brahman Movement in south India.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Tej Bahadur Sapru, consider the following statements:
- He was a law member of the Viceroy’s Council.
- He had participated in all three Round Table Conference sessions
- He was also one of the main lawyers engaged to defend captured soldiers of the Indian National Army.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru, was a prominent Indian freedom fighter, lawyer and politician. He was a key figure in India’s struggle for independence, helping draft the Indian Constitution. He was the leader of the Liberal party in British-ruled India.
He was knighted in 1922. He was a member of the United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh) Legislative Council (1913–16) and of the Imperial Legislative Council (1916–20), a law member of the Viceroy’s Council (1920–23), and a delegate to the three Round Table Conference sessions in London (1930–32) concerning the government of India. His mediation helped to bring about the Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931), by which the Indian nationalist leader Mohandas K. Gandhi terminated a civil disobedience campaign and was allowed to attend the second session of the Round Table Conference. Sapru was also in part responsible for the Poona Pact modifying the British plan for a separate electorate of Hindu untouchables
He was also one of the main lawyers engaged to defend captured soldiers of the Indian National Army.
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru, was a prominent Indian freedom fighter, lawyer and politician. He was a key figure in India’s struggle for independence, helping draft the Indian Constitution. He was the leader of the Liberal party in British-ruled India.
He was knighted in 1922. He was a member of the United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh) Legislative Council (1913–16) and of the Imperial Legislative Council (1916–20), a law member of the Viceroy’s Council (1920–23), and a delegate to the three Round Table Conference sessions in London (1930–32) concerning the government of India. His mediation helped to bring about the Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931), by which the Indian nationalist leader Mohandas K. Gandhi terminated a civil disobedience campaign and was allowed to attend the second session of the Round Table Conference. Sapru was also in part responsible for the Poona Pact modifying the British plan for a separate electorate of Hindu untouchables
He was also one of the main lawyers engaged to defend captured soldiers of the Indian National Army.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the social reformers of India, consider the following statements:
- Pandita Ramabai founded Arya Mahila Samaj.
- Pandita Ramabai wrote the book ‘High-Caste Hindu Woman’ .
- Kandukiri Viresalingam started the a journal called Viveka Vardhini.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
Pandita Ramabai Sarasvati (23 April 1858 – 5 April 1922) was an Indian social reformer, a pioneer in the education and emancipation of women in India. She was the first woman to be accorded the titles of Pandita as a Sanskrit scholar and Sarasvati after being examined by the faculty of the University of Calcutta. She was one of the 10 women delegates of the Congress session of 1889
Pandita Ramabai founded Arya Mahila Samaj. The purpose of the society was to promote the cause of women’s education and deliverance from the oppression of child marriage. When in 1882 a commission was appointed by Government of India to look into education, Ramabai gave evidence before it.
Pandita Ramabai wrote the book ‘High-Caste Hindu Woman’. This was also the first book that she wrote in English. Ramabai dedicated this book to Dr. Joshi, The High-Caste Hindu Woman-to be specific a Brahmin woman which showed the darkest aspects of the life of Hindu women, including child brides and child widows.
Rao Bahadur Kandukuri Veeresalingam Pantulu (16 April 1848 – 27 May 1919) was a social reformer and writer of Andhra Pradesh, India One of the greatest reforms of Veeresalingam was to promote women’s education, which was considered to be a taboo in those days. In 1876, he started a journal called Viveka Vardhini and published articles about women’s issues of that era. The magazine was initially printed at Chennai (then Madras), but with his writings gaining popularity, he established his own press at Rajahmundry.
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
Pandita Ramabai Sarasvati (23 April 1858 – 5 April 1922) was an Indian social reformer, a pioneer in the education and emancipation of women in India. She was the first woman to be accorded the titles of Pandita as a Sanskrit scholar and Sarasvati after being examined by the faculty of the University of Calcutta. She was one of the 10 women delegates of the Congress session of 1889
Pandita Ramabai founded Arya Mahila Samaj. The purpose of the society was to promote the cause of women’s education and deliverance from the oppression of child marriage. When in 1882 a commission was appointed by Government of India to look into education, Ramabai gave evidence before it.
Pandita Ramabai wrote the book ‘High-Caste Hindu Woman’. This was also the first book that she wrote in English. Ramabai dedicated this book to Dr. Joshi, The High-Caste Hindu Woman-to be specific a Brahmin woman which showed the darkest aspects of the life of Hindu women, including child brides and child widows.
Rao Bahadur Kandukuri Veeresalingam Pantulu (16 April 1848 – 27 May 1919) was a social reformer and writer of Andhra Pradesh, India One of the greatest reforms of Veeresalingam was to promote women’s education, which was considered to be a taboo in those days. In 1876, he started a journal called Viveka Vardhini and published articles about women’s issues of that era. The magazine was initially printed at Chennai (then Madras), but with his writings gaining popularity, he established his own press at Rajahmundry.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsA bag contains five white and four red balls. Two balls are picked at random from the bag. What is the probability that they both are different color?
Correct
Solution: C
Two balls can be picked from nine balls in ⁹C₂ ways.
We select one white ball and one red ball from five white balls and four red balls. This can be done ⁵C₁ * ⁴C₁ ways.
The required probability = (5 * 4)/⁹C₂ = 20/36 = 5/9
Incorrect
Solution: C
Two balls can be picked from nine balls in ⁹C₂ ways.
We select one white ball and one red ball from five white balls and four red balls. This can be done ⁵C₁ * ⁴C₁ ways.
The required probability = (5 * 4)/⁹C₂ = 20/36 = 5/9
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA number 21332145x is divisible by 8. What can be the minimum value of x?
Correct
Solution: A
For a number to be divisible by 8; its last 3 digits should be divisible by 8
So (45x) is divisible by 8
Thus, x = 6 is the correct answerIncorrect
Solution: A
For a number to be divisible by 8; its last 3 digits should be divisible by 8
So (45x) is divisible by 8
Thus, x = 6 is the correct answer -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsTwo trains of equal length, running with the speeds of 60 and 40 kmph, take 50 seconds to cross each other while they are running in the same direction. What time will they take to cross each other if they are running in opposite directions?
Correct
Solution: B
Relative Speed of trains when moving in same direction = (60 -40) kmph = 20 * 5/18 = 100/18 m/s
Time = 50 sec
Total Distance = Relative Speed * Time = 100/18 * 50 = 2500/9 m
Relative Speed when moving in opposite direction = (60 + 40) kmph = 100 * 5/18 m/s = 500/18 m/s
Therefore, Time taken = Distance/Speed = 2500/9 * 18/500 = 10 secIncorrect
Solution: B
Relative Speed of trains when moving in same direction = (60 -40) kmph = 20 * 5/18 = 100/18 m/s
Time = 50 sec
Total Distance = Relative Speed * Time = 100/18 * 50 = 2500/9 m
Relative Speed when moving in opposite direction = (60 + 40) kmph = 100 * 5/18 m/s = 500/18 m/s
Therefore, Time taken = Distance/Speed = 2500/9 * 18/500 = 10 sec -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThe respective ratio of the ages of Ramya and her mother is 1 : 2, after 6 years, the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 20. What was the respective ratio of their ages before 9 years?
Correct
Solution: B
Let the present age of Ramya and her mother be X and 2X respectively.
After 6 years, the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 20
= (X + 6)/(2X + 6) = 11/20
= 20X + 120 = 22X + 66
= 2X = 54 or X = 27
So, present age of Ramya = 27 yrs
Present age of her mother = 54 yrs
Therefore, before 9 years, ratio of Ramya and her mother
= (27 – 9)/(54 – 9)
= 18/45
= 2 : 5.Incorrect
Solution: B
Let the present age of Ramya and her mother be X and 2X respectively.
After 6 years, the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 20
= (X + 6)/(2X + 6) = 11/20
= 20X + 120 = 22X + 66
= 2X = 54 or X = 27
So, present age of Ramya = 27 yrs
Present age of her mother = 54 yrs
Therefore, before 9 years, ratio of Ramya and her mother
= (27 – 9)/(54 – 9)
= 18/45
= 2 : 5. -
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsA and B can do a piece of work in 7 days. With the help of C they finish the work in 5 days. C alone can do that piece of work in?
Correct
Solution: B
Work done by A, B and C together in one day = 1/5
Work done by A and B in one day = 1/7
Therefore, work done by C alone in one day = 1/5 – 1/7 = 2/35
Therefore, total time taken by C alone to complete the work = 35/2 days or 17.5 days.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Work done by A, B and C together in one day = 1/5
Work done by A and B in one day = 1/7
Therefore, work done by C alone in one day = 1/5 – 1/7 = 2/35
Therefore, total time taken by C alone to complete the work = 35/2 days or 17.5 days.









