DAY – 30( INSTA REVISION TEST – 30)INSTA REVISION PLAN 3.0, 2021

Solution: D

By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States

Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

The following provisions can be amended in this way:
1. Election of the President and its manner.
2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
3. Supreme Court and High courts. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
4. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
5. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
6. Representation of states in Parliament. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
7. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).

Elections to Parliament and State legislatures can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

In the Shankari Prasad Case (1951), the constitutional validity of the First Amendment Act (1951), which curtailed the right to property, was challenged.

The Supreme Court ruled that the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution under Article 368 also includes the power to amend Fundamental Rights.

The present position is that the Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.

However, the Supreme Court is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.

Solution: D

All the statements given above are correct.

Features of Parliamentary Government

Majority Party Rule: The political party which secures majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government. The leader of that party is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President.

Dissolution of the Lower House: The lower house of the Parliament (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by the President on recommendation of the Prime Minister. In other words, the prime minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term and hold fresh elections.

Political Homogeneity: Usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and hence they share the same political ideology. In case of coalition government, the minister are bound by consensus.

Solution: C

Parliamentary System is not conductive to administrative efficiency as the ministers are not experts in their fields. The Prime Minister has a limited choice in the selection of ministers.

Against Separation of Powers In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are together and inseparable. The cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the executive.  Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Government by Amateurs the parliamentary system is not conductive to administrative efficiency as the ministers are not experts in their fields. The Prime Minister has a limited choice in the selection of ministers; his choice is restricted to the members of Parliament alone and does not extend to external talent.

Solution: C

He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session. An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone.

An ordinance like any other legislation, can be retrospective, that is, it may come into force from a back date. It may modify or repeal any act of Parliament or another ordinance. It can alter or amend a tax law also.

Solution: B

The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

There is also one more situation when the president may have to exercise his individual judgement in the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister, that is, when the Prime Minister in office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor. However, this does not imply that the president is free to appoint any one as the Prime Minister. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Solution: D

All the statements given above are correct.

The Prime Minister enjoys the following powers as head of the Union council of ministers:

1. He recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the president. The President can appoint only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Prime Minister.
   2. He allocates and reshuffles various portfolios among the ministers.
   3. He can ask a minister to resign or advise the President to dismiss him in case of difference of
   opinion.
   4. He presides over the meeting of council of ministers and influences its decisions.
   5. He guides, directs, controls, and coordinates the activities of all the ministers.
   6. He can bring about the collapse of the council of ministers by resigning from office.

Solution: A

The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the union territories in the Lok Sabha.
Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Direct Election to the House of the People) Act, 1965, by which the members of Lok Sabha from the union territories are also chosen by direct election. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha is not a continuing chamber. Its normal term is five years from the date of its first meeting after the general elections, after which it automatically dissolves. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

However, the President is authorised to dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time even before the completion of five years and this cannot be challenged in a court of law.

The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representation of the People Act (1951) provided that the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: C

Disqualifications

Under the Constitution, a person shall be disqu-alified for being elected as a member of Parliament:

1. if he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament).
   2. if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court.
   3. if he is an undischarged insolvent.
   4. if he is not a citizen of India or has volun-tarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state; and
   5. if he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament.

The Parliament has laid down the following additional disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951):

1. He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant.

A House can declare the seat of a member vacant if he is absent from all its meetings for a period of sixty days without its permission. In computing the period of sixty days, no account shall be taken of any period during which the House is prorogued or adjourned for more than four consecutive days

Solution: B

Simon Commission In November 1927 itself (i.e., 2 years before the schedule), the British Government announced the appointment a seven-member statutory commission under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon to report on the condition of India under its new Constitution.

All the members of the commission were British and hence, all the parties boycotted the commission.

The commission submitted its report in 1930 and recommended

• The abolition of dyarchy, Hence Statement 2 is
• extension of responsible government in the provinces,
• Establishment of a federation of British India. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
• Princely states, continuation of communal electorate and so on. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

To consider the proposals of the commission, the British Government convened three round table conferences of the representatives of the British
Government, British India and Indian princely states.

Solution: C

Both these aspects of freedom — the absence of external constraints as well as the existence of conditions in which people can develop their talents — are important. A free society would be one which enables all its members to develop their potential with the minimum of social constraints.

No individual living in society can hope to enjoy total absence of any kind of constraints or restrictions. It becomes necessary then to determine which social constraints are justified and which are not, which are acceptable and which should be removed.

It implies that freedom can be a component of only democratic societies, but it is not true. Even autocratic societies have some sense of freedom.

Moreover, in order to be free, an individual should be able to make decisions individually, with a support of collective decision-making in which no one individual dominates the others. So, it is wrong to say that ALL decisions should be made collectively to enjoy freedom.

Hence Statement 2 is incorrect and all other statements are correct.

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

Rights are reasonable claims of persons recognised by society and sanctioned by law. However, in most cases the claimed rights are directed towards the state. That is, through these rights people make demands upon the state.

When I assert my right to education, I call upon the state to make provisions for my basic education. Society may also accept the importance of education and contribute to it on its own.

Different groups may open schools and fund scholarships so that children of all classes can get the benefit of education. But the primarily responsibility rests upon the state. It is the state that must initiate necessary steps to ensure that my right to education is fulfilled.

If a right can be enjoyed only by an individual or a group of people, it is not a right, but a privilege. Your freedom to drive a car on the street conjoins the freedom of other to drive on the same street.

Also, you cannot have a right that harms or hurts others. You cannot have a right to drive such a way that it hurts others on the street.

My right to liberty as a person, for instance, suggests that the state can not simply arrest me at its own will. If it wishes to put me behind bars it must defend that action; it must give reasons for curtailing my liberty before a judicial court. This is why the police are required to produce an arrest warrant before taking me away. My rights thus place certain constraints upon state actions.

Solution: D

Learning: Right to Equality includes the following laws:

• Equality before law
• Equal protection of laws
• Prohibition on discrimination on ground of religion
• Equal access to shops, bathing ghats, hotels etc.
• Equality of opportunity in employment
• Abolition of titles
• Abolition of untouchability

Solution: D

All the statements given above are correct.

The Article 22 has two parts—the first part deals with the cases of ordinary law and the second part deals with the cases of preventive detention law.
(a) The first part of Article 22 confers the following rights on a person who is arrested or detained under an ordinary law:
(i) Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest.
(ii) Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.
(iii) Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours, excluding the journey time.
(iv) Right to be released after 24 hours unless the magistrate authorises further detention.

These safeguards are not available to an alien or a person arrested or detained under a preventive detention law

Solution: C

Solution: D

All the statements given above are correct.

The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935. In the words of Dr B R Ambedkar, ‘the Directive
Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.

The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Therefore, the government (Central, state and local) cannot be compelled to implement them

The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution.

Solution: D

The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of
six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. However, they can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing their resignation to the governor. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Although the chairman and members of a SPSC are appointed by the
governor, they can be removed only by the president. The president can remove them on the same grounds and in the same manner as he can remove a chairman or a member of the UPSC. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: D

All the above statements are incorrect.

If I am not registered as a voter in any Constituency, can I contest election?

Ans. No

For contesting an election as a candidate a person must be registered as a voter. Sec 4 (d) of Representation People Act, 1951 precludes a person from contesting unless he is an elector in any parliamentary constituency. Section 5 (c) of R. P. Act, 1951 has a similar provision for Assembly Constituencies. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

If you are a registered voter in Delhi, you can contest an election to Lok Sabha from any constituency in the country except Assam, Lakshadweep and Sikkim, as per Section 4 (c), 4 (cc) and 4 (ccc) of the R. P. Act, 1951. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Can a person confined in jail vote in an election?

Ans. No

According to section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the police. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

https://eci.gov.in/faqs/elections/contesting-for-elections/faqs-contesting-for-elections-r4/

Solution: C

The NSG was founded in response to the Indian nuclear test in May 1974 and first met in November 1975. The test demonstrated that certain non-weapons specific nuclear technology could be readily turned to weapons development. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

The NSG looks after critical issues relating to nuclear sector and its members are allowed to trade in and export nuclear technology. The group works under the principle of unanimity and even one country’s vote against India will scuttle its bid. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

As of August 2016, 191 states have adhered to the treaty, though North Korea, which acceded in 1985 but never came into compliance, announced its withdrawal from the NPT in 2003, following detonation of nuclear devices in violation of core obligations. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nuclear_Suppliers_Group

Solution: D

All the statements given above are correct.

The Group of 7 (G7) is a group consisting of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States. The European Union is also represented within the G7.

As of 2018, the seven countries involved represent 58% of the global net wealth ($317 trillion) and more than 46% of the global gross domestic product (GDP) based on nominal values, and more than 32% of the global GDP based on purchasing power parity.

Canada has least population amongst G7 countries (35,467,000).

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Group_of_Seven

Solution: B

The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a partnership among governments, multilateral development banks, private sector investors, and financiers. It is designed to provide a new way to collaborate on preparing, structuring, and implementing complex projects that no single institution could handle on its own.

The World Bank (WB) has launched the Global Infrastructure Facility.

https://www.globalinfrafacility.org/what-is-the-gif

Solution: D

The IAEA LEU Bank will be a reserve of LEU owned and controlled by the IAEA, and a mechanism of last resort for Member States in case the supply of LEU to a nuclear power plant is disrupted due to exceptional circumstances and the Member State is unable to secure LEU from the commercial market or by any other means.

World’s first IAEA was established in Kazakhstan.

https://www.iaea.org/topics/iaea-low-enriched-uranium-bank

Solution: B

Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists, Jain and Zorastrians (Parsis) have been notified as minority communities under of the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

Prime Minister’s 15 point programme for minorities is a programme launched by Indian government in 2006 for welfare of religious minorities. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

National Minorities Development & Finance Corporation (NMDFC) aims to promote the economic & developmental activities for the benefit of backward sections of notified minorities. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
The average score of student in 3 tests is N points. Hence the total score = 3N points.
Given the score in fourth test = N + 20, the average score of student in four tests will be
= (3N +N+20)/4 = N+5

Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
From S1: A>=B
From S2: D>=C
From S3: B>C
We can derive it as : A>=B>C
Now if B (which is either equal or elder than A) is greater than C, then A has to be older than C

Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
The price of the costliest and cheapest mobile = (80*30000) – (78*29500) = 99000
Cheapest Mobile Price = 99000 – 80000 = 19000

Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Suppose initially price per kg of rice is 100 then their expenditure is 5000.
Now their expenditure is only increased by only 20% i.e – 6000.
Increased price of rice = 130.
So new consumption = 6000/130 = 46

Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Commission for marker=(35*12)*10/100=42
Commission for Gel pen =(65*8)*20/100=104
Total Commission earned in 2 weeks is, (104+42)*14=2044