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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
Post your comments, queries, scores, feedback or suggestions in the comments section. Explode(i.e. bring positivity) this platform with your participation.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Senescent cells
- It is a type of stem cells.
- It produce high amount of nucleotides that builds DNA
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Both the statements are incorrect.
Senescent cells are the opposite of stem cells, they can never divide again. New research finds that ageing, senescent cells stop producing nucleotides, the building block of DNA. When young cells were prevented from producing nucleotides, the cells became senescent.
https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/medicine-and-dentistry/cellular-senescence
Incorrect
Solution: D
Both the statements are incorrect.
Senescent cells are the opposite of stem cells, they can never divide again. New research finds that ageing, senescent cells stop producing nucleotides, the building block of DNA. When young cells were prevented from producing nucleotides, the cells became senescent.
https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/medicine-and-dentistry/cellular-senescence
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements Antarctic Oscillation
- It is the dominant pattern of seasonal tropospheric circulation variations south of 20S.
- It has indirect effect on Indian climate system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
The Antarctic Oscillation (AAO) is the dominant pattern of non-seasonal tropospheric circulation variations south of 20S, and it is characterized by pressure anomalies of one sign centered in the Antarctic and anomalies of the opposite sign centered about 40-50S.
It does not act directly to influence Indian climate but affects the Indian Ocean Meridional Dipole which in turn plays a role in our climatic conditions.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
The Antarctic Oscillation (AAO) is the dominant pattern of non-seasonal tropospheric circulation variations south of 20S, and it is characterized by pressure anomalies of one sign centered in the Antarctic and anomalies of the opposite sign centered about 40-50S.
It does not act directly to influence Indian climate but affects the Indian Ocean Meridional Dipole which in turn plays a role in our climatic conditions.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following agriculture practices is/are promoted by Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF)?
- Soil Aeration
- Intercropping
- Topsoil Mulching
- Vermicomposting
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: C
The Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) method also promotes soil aeration, minimal watering, intercropping, bunds and topsoil mulching and discourages intensive irrigation and deep ploughing. Hence Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) is against vermicomposting, which is the mainstay of typical organic farming, as it introduces the the most common composting worm, the European red wiggler (Eisenia fetida) to Indian soils. Hence Statement 4 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) method also promotes soil aeration, minimal watering, intercropping, bunds and topsoil mulching and discourages intensive irrigation and deep ploughing. Hence Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) is against vermicomposting, which is the mainstay of typical organic farming, as it introduces the the most common composting worm, the European red wiggler (Eisenia fetida) to Indian soils. Hence Statement 4 is incorrect.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Goods & Services Tax (GST) Council
- It is a constitutional body.
- GST Council is chaired by Prime Minister
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
It is a constitutional body (as per Article 279A of the amended Constitution) for making recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to GST. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
It is a constitutional body (as per Article 279A of the amended Constitution) for making recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to GST. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs
Military Exercise Participating countries
- AUSIINDEX India and Australia
- Varuna Russia and India
- Yudh Abhyas India and Nepal
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Yudh Abhyas is one of the largest running joint military training and defence corporation endeavours between India and the US
Varuna naval exercise is an integral part of France–India strategic relationship in the 21st century and consists of naval cooperation drills between the French Navy and the Indian Navy.
AUSINDEX, a joint maritime exercise between India and Australia
Incorrect
Solution: C
Yudh Abhyas is one of the largest running joint military training and defence corporation endeavours between India and the US
Varuna naval exercise is an integral part of France–India strategic relationship in the 21st century and consists of naval cooperation drills between the French Navy and the Indian Navy.
AUSINDEX, a joint maritime exercise between India and Australia
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bharat Stage VI Norms
- India will move to Bharat Stage VI mass emission standards by April 2020
- It sets limit for particle number in engines
- Bharat Stage VI Norms is based on US Emission standards
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Bharat Stage VI Norms is based on EU Standards. So statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Bharat Stage VI Norms is based on EU Standards. So statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsIndia is planned/planning to sign Military Logistics Support Agreements with which of the following countries?
- United States
- Japan
- China
- Australia
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
India is looking to conclude three Military Logistics Support Agreements (MLSA). These will further enhance the operational reach of the military in the region.
India has already signed such agreements with a few countries beginning with the U.S.A. Agreements with Australia, Japan and Russia are in advanced stages.
Incorrect
Solution: D
India is looking to conclude three Military Logistics Support Agreements (MLSA). These will further enhance the operational reach of the military in the region.
India has already signed such agreements with a few countries beginning with the U.S.A. Agreements with Australia, Japan and Russia are in advanced stages.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsAfghanistan shares its land border with which of the following countries?
- India
- Iran
- Kazakhstan
- China
Select the correct answer using the code given below
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Deep Ocean Mission
- Major thrust of the mission will be looking for deep sea creatures
- India has been allotted a site of 75,000 sq. km. in the Central Indian Ocean Basin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
A major thrust of the mission will be looking for metals and minerals. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
India has been allotted a site of 75,000 sq. km. in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) by the UN International Sea Bed Authority for exploitation of polymetallic nodules (PMN). Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
A major thrust of the mission will be looking for metals and minerals. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
India has been allotted a site of 75,000 sq. km. in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) by the UN International Sea Bed Authority for exploitation of polymetallic nodules (PMN). Hence Statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are functions of universal service obligation fund?
- Designing the bidding process and carry out the tendering
- Designing an intelligent subsidy support model underlying the scheme/project.
- Suggesting such changes in policy as may be deemed necessary for implementation of Universal Service Support
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
All the statements given above is/are correct.
The New Telecom Policy (NTP) 1999 of Department of Telecom, GoI had Universal Service as one of its main objectives, as reproduced below –
Strive to provide a balance between the provision of Universal Service to all uncovered areas, including the rural areas, and the provision of high-level services capable of meeting the needs of the country’s economy and encourage development of telecommunication facilities in remote, hilly and tribal areas of the country.
The NTP 1999 provided that the resources for meeting the Universal Service Obligation (USO) were to be generated through a Universal Access Levy (UAL), at a prescribed percentage of the revenue earned by the telecom licensees to be decided in consultation with the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).
Functions
- Implementation of the guidelines laid down by Government for providing Universal Service Support;
- Suggesting such changes in policy as may be deemed necessary for implementation of Universal Service Support;
- Formulating USOF projects/schemes under the various streams provided in the Indian Telegraph Rules, 1951, in consultation with telecom service providers and various stakeholders;
- Designing an intelligent subsidy support model underlying the scheme/project, for reducing/closing the Viability Gap in provisioning of telecommunication service;
- Determining desirable subsidy level, structure & disbursement schedule after undertaking a suitable costing & modeling/benchmarking exercise and competitive tendering process;
- Designing the bidding process and carry out the tendering;
- Entering into aptly drafted Agreements with the Universal Service Providers (USPs) with incentives & disincentives to ensure the achievement of the deliverables;
- Monitoring the implementation of USOF projects/schemes and to disburse subsidy in accordance with the terms & conditions of the respective USOF Agreement;
- Accurate & timely settlement of all claims of subsidy/financial support in respect of USOF schemes
- Designing the format of various records and return to be maintained by the USPs;
- Carrying out post-implementation review of USOF projects/schemes;
- Budgeting and Audit of USOF activities;
- Interfacing with international organizations such as ITU, APT and USO funds of other nations;
- Forecasting the requirement of Universal Service Funds for each financial year and obtaining approval of Government through Department of Telecom;
- Ensuring that the prescribed Universal Service Levy is credited to the appropriate Universal Service Fund on a regular basis.
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the statements given above is/are correct.
The New Telecom Policy (NTP) 1999 of Department of Telecom, GoI had Universal Service as one of its main objectives, as reproduced below –
Strive to provide a balance between the provision of Universal Service to all uncovered areas, including the rural areas, and the provision of high-level services capable of meeting the needs of the country’s economy and encourage development of telecommunication facilities in remote, hilly and tribal areas of the country.
The NTP 1999 provided that the resources for meeting the Universal Service Obligation (USO) were to be generated through a Universal Access Levy (UAL), at a prescribed percentage of the revenue earned by the telecom licensees to be decided in consultation with the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).
Functions
- Implementation of the guidelines laid down by Government for providing Universal Service Support;
- Suggesting such changes in policy as may be deemed necessary for implementation of Universal Service Support;
- Formulating USOF projects/schemes under the various streams provided in the Indian Telegraph Rules, 1951, in consultation with telecom service providers and various stakeholders;
- Designing an intelligent subsidy support model underlying the scheme/project, for reducing/closing the Viability Gap in provisioning of telecommunication service;
- Determining desirable subsidy level, structure & disbursement schedule after undertaking a suitable costing & modeling/benchmarking exercise and competitive tendering process;
- Designing the bidding process and carry out the tendering;
- Entering into aptly drafted Agreements with the Universal Service Providers (USPs) with incentives & disincentives to ensure the achievement of the deliverables;
- Monitoring the implementation of USOF projects/schemes and to disburse subsidy in accordance with the terms & conditions of the respective USOF Agreement;
- Accurate & timely settlement of all claims of subsidy/financial support in respect of USOF schemes
- Designing the format of various records and return to be maintained by the USPs;
- Carrying out post-implementation review of USOF projects/schemes;
- Budgeting and Audit of USOF activities;
- Interfacing with international organizations such as ITU, APT and USO funds of other nations;
- Forecasting the requirement of Universal Service Funds for each financial year and obtaining approval of Government through Department of Telecom;
- Ensuring that the prescribed Universal Service Levy is credited to the appropriate Universal Service Fund on a regular basis.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)
- It was constituted under SEBI Act
- It is an appellate tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders passed by Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) was constituted under Section 410 of the ‘Companies Act, 2013’ for hearing appeals against the orders of National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), with effect from 1st June, 2016. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
It is also the Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders passed by NCLT(s) under Section 61 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC), with effect from 1st December, 2016.
It is also the Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders passed by Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India under Section 202 and Section 211 of IBC. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
It is also the Appellate Tribunal to hear and dispose of appeals against any direction issued or decision made or order passed by the Competition Commission of India (CCI), as per the amendment brought to Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013 by Section 172 of the Finance Act, 2017, with effect from 26th May, 2017.
Incorrect
Solution: B
National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) was constituted under Section 410 of the ‘Companies Act, 2013’ for hearing appeals against the orders of National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), with effect from 1st June, 2016. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
It is also the Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders passed by NCLT(s) under Section 61 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC), with effect from 1st December, 2016.
It is also the Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders passed by Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India under Section 202 and Section 211 of IBC. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
It is also the Appellate Tribunal to hear and dispose of appeals against any direction issued or decision made or order passed by the Competition Commission of India (CCI), as per the amendment brought to Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013 by Section 172 of the Finance Act, 2017, with effect from 26th May, 2017.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow strait that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea.
- The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow strait that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea and separates Gibraltar and Peninsular Spain in Europe from Morocco in Africa. The two continents are separated by 14.3 kilometres of ocean at the Strait’s narrowest point.
The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. It provides the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean and is one of the world’s most strategically important choke points.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow strait that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea and separates Gibraltar and Peninsular Spain in Europe from Morocco in Africa. The two continents are separated by 14.3 kilometres of ocean at the Strait’s narrowest point.
The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. It provides the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean and is one of the world’s most strategically important choke points.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsOperation Samadhan, sometime seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: A
Operation ‘SAMADHAN’ is the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)’s to counter the Naxal problem
Incorrect
Solution: A
Operation ‘SAMADHAN’ is the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)’s to counter the Naxal problem
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Dracaena Cambodiana
- It is an important medicinal plant as well as an ornamental tree.
- Several antifungal and antibacterial compounds, antioxidants have been extracted from various parts of the plant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
Dracaena Cambodiana is an important medicinal plant as well as an ornamental tree.
It is a major source of dragon’s blood, a precious traditional medicine in China. Several antifungal and antibacterial compounds, antioxidants, flavonoids, etc., have been extracted from various parts of the plant.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/indias-first-dragon-blood-oozing-tree/article28701517.ece
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
Dracaena Cambodiana is an important medicinal plant as well as an ornamental tree.
It is a major source of dragon’s blood, a precious traditional medicine in China. Several antifungal and antibacterial compounds, antioxidants, flavonoids, etc., have been extracted from various parts of the plant.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/indias-first-dragon-blood-oozing-tree/article28701517.ece
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsSilver Line project, sometime seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: C
The Silver Line project is a proposal of the Kerala government that aims to connect major districts and towns with semi high-speed trains that will run on their own tracks.
Ministry of Railways have recently granted in-principle approval for the project.
It involves laying the railway lines from Kasaragod in the north to Thiruvananthapuram in the south.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Silver Line project is a proposal of the Kerala government that aims to connect major districts and towns with semi high-speed trains that will run on their own tracks.
Ministry of Railways have recently granted in-principle approval for the project.
It involves laying the railway lines from Kasaragod in the north to Thiruvananthapuram in the south.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsAs per the National Family Health Survey-5, consider the following statements:
- Sex ratio at birth has remained unchanged or increased in most States/UTs.
- There has been an increase in child marriages in Tripura, Manipur and Assam.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
National Family Health Survey (NFHS)
- The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India.
- The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India has designated the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS) Mumbai, as the nodal agency for providing coordination and technical guidance for the survey.
Findings of NFHS 5:
The survey provides data of States and UTs on over 130 parameters. On various parameters, major number of states have worsened over the last round of survey (NFHS 4 – 2015-16).
- The children born between 2014 and 2019 are more malnourished than the previous generation.
- Infant and child mortality declinedin most of the Indian states.
- Sikkim, Assam, Goa and Jammu & Kashmir witnessed a steep decline in Neonatal Mortality Rate (NMR), Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) and Under-Five Mortality Rate (U5MR).
- Meghalaya, Manipur and Andaman & Nicobar Island reported increase in all the three categories of child mortality – NMR, IMR and U5MR.
- Among all the surveyed states and UTs, Bihar displayed the highest prevalence in Infant and child mortality in all three categories, while the lowest death rate was reported in Kerala.
Child Stunting:
- The most surprising reversalshave happened in child stunting, which reflects chronic undernutrition, and refers to the percentage of children who have low height for their age.
- Stunting, more than any other factor, is likely to have long-lasting adverse effects on the cognitive and physical developmentof a child.
- Telangana, Gujarat, Kerala, Maharashtra, and West Bengal saw increased levels of child stunting.
Child Marriages:
- There has been an increase in child marriages in Tripura (40.1% from 33.1% in 2015-16), Manipur (16.3% from 13.7% in 2015-16) and Assam (31.8% from 30.8 % in 2015-16).
- States such as Tripura, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh and Nagaland have also shown an increase in teenage pregnancies.
Sex ratio at birth (SRB) has remained unchanged or increased in most States/UTs.
- Majority of the states are in normal sex ratio of 952 or above.
- SRB is below 900 in Telangana, Himachal Pradesh, Goa, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu.
Incorrect
Solution: C
National Family Health Survey (NFHS)
- The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India.
- The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India has designated the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS) Mumbai, as the nodal agency for providing coordination and technical guidance for the survey.
Findings of NFHS 5:
The survey provides data of States and UTs on over 130 parameters. On various parameters, major number of states have worsened over the last round of survey (NFHS 4 – 2015-16).
- The children born between 2014 and 2019 are more malnourished than the previous generation.
- Infant and child mortality declinedin most of the Indian states.
- Sikkim, Assam, Goa and Jammu & Kashmir witnessed a steep decline in Neonatal Mortality Rate (NMR), Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) and Under-Five Mortality Rate (U5MR).
- Meghalaya, Manipur and Andaman & Nicobar Island reported increase in all the three categories of child mortality – NMR, IMR and U5MR.
- Among all the surveyed states and UTs, Bihar displayed the highest prevalence in Infant and child mortality in all three categories, while the lowest death rate was reported in Kerala.
Child Stunting:
- The most surprising reversalshave happened in child stunting, which reflects chronic undernutrition, and refers to the percentage of children who have low height for their age.
- Stunting, more than any other factor, is likely to have long-lasting adverse effects on the cognitive and physical developmentof a child.
- Telangana, Gujarat, Kerala, Maharashtra, and West Bengal saw increased levels of child stunting.
Child Marriages:
- There has been an increase in child marriages in Tripura (40.1% from 33.1% in 2015-16), Manipur (16.3% from 13.7% in 2015-16) and Assam (31.8% from 30.8 % in 2015-16).
- States such as Tripura, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh and Nagaland have also shown an increase in teenage pregnancies.
Sex ratio at birth (SRB) has remained unchanged or increased in most States/UTs.
- Majority of the states are in normal sex ratio of 952 or above.
- SRB is below 900 in Telangana, Himachal Pradesh, Goa, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWith reference to President’s Rule, consider the following statements
- The President’s Rule is imposed through the invocation of Article 356 of the Constitution by the President on the advice of the respective State Governor.
- A proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation requires parliamentary approval.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
President’s Rule
- Article 356 of the Constitution of Indiagives President of India the power to suspend state government and impose President’s rule of any state in the country “if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution”.
- The President’s Rule is imposed through the invocation of Article 356 of the Constitution by the President on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers.
- It is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’.
Implications:
Upon the imposition of this rule, there would be no Council of Ministers.
- The state will fall under the direct control of the Union government, and the Governor will continue to head the proceedings, representing the President of India.
Parliamentary Approval and Duration:
- A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two monthsfrom the date of its issue.
- The approval takes place through simple majority in either House,that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
- Initially valid for six months,the President’s Rule can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months.
Report of the Governor:
- Under Article 356, President’s Rule is imposed if the President, upon receipt of the report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Revocation:
- A proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval.
Incorrect
Solution: D
President’s Rule
- Article 356 of the Constitution of Indiagives President of India the power to suspend state government and impose President’s rule of any state in the country “if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution”.
- The President’s Rule is imposed through the invocation of Article 356 of the Constitution by the President on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers.
- It is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’.
Implications:
Upon the imposition of this rule, there would be no Council of Ministers.
- The state will fall under the direct control of the Union government, and the Governor will continue to head the proceedings, representing the President of India.
Parliamentary Approval and Duration:
- A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two monthsfrom the date of its issue.
- The approval takes place through simple majority in either House,that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
- Initially valid for six months,the President’s Rule can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months.
Report of the Governor:
- Under Article 356, President’s Rule is imposed if the President, upon receipt of the report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Revocation:
- A proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The conduct of all elections to the Panchayats and the Municipalities is undertaken by State Election Commission.
- State Election Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of Governor.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
State Election Commission:
- The Constitution of Indiavests in the State Election Commission, consisting of a State Election Commissioner, the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats and the Municipalities (Articles 243K, 243ZA).
- The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor.
- As per article 243(C3) the Governor,when so requested by the State Election Commission, make available to the State Election Commission such staff as may be necessary for the discharge of the functions conferred on the SEC by clause (1).
Incorrect
Solution: A
State Election Commission:
- The Constitution of Indiavests in the State Election Commission, consisting of a State Election Commissioner, the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats and the Municipalities (Articles 243K, 243ZA).
- The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor.
- As per article 243(C3) the Governor,when so requested by the State Election Commission, make available to the State Election Commission such staff as may be necessary for the discharge of the functions conferred on the SEC by clause (1).
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
- It is an inter-governmental body and an initiative of the WTO.
- The FATF Secretariat is housed at the OECD headquarters in Paris.
- India is a member to FATF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
- The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 on the initiative of the G7.
- It is a “policy-making body” which works to generate the necessary political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in various areas.
- The FATF Secretariat is housed at the OECD headquarters in Paris.
- The FATF currently comprises 37 member jurisdictions and 2 regional organisations (the Gulf Cooperation Council and the European Commission), representing most major financial centres in all parts of the globe.
- The FATF currently has 39 members including two regional organisations — the European Commission and Gulf Cooperation Council. India is a member of the FATF.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
- The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 on the initiative of the G7.
- It is a “policy-making body” which works to generate the necessary political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in various areas.
- The FATF Secretariat is housed at the OECD headquarters in Paris.
- The FATF currently comprises 37 member jurisdictions and 2 regional organisations (the Gulf Cooperation Council and the European Commission), representing most major financial centres in all parts of the globe.
- The FATF currently has 39 members including two regional organisations — the European Commission and Gulf Cooperation Council. India is a member of the FATF.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsThe Trade & Development Report is being released by
Correct
Solution: C
The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) has released its latest Trade and Development Report.
United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD):
- UNCTAD is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United NationsGeneral Assembly in 1964.
- It is part of the UN Secretariat. It reports to the UN General Assembly and the Economic and Social Council,but has its own membership, leadership, and budget. It is also a part of the United Nations Development Group.
Objectives and roles:
It supports developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively. Along with other UN departments and agencies, it also measures the progress made in the Sustainable Development Goals, as set out in Agenda 2030.
Reports published by UNCTAD are:
- Trade and Development Report
- World Investment Report
- Technology and Innovation Report
- Digital Economy Report
Incorrect
Solution: C
The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) has released its latest Trade and Development Report.
United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD):
- UNCTAD is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United NationsGeneral Assembly in 1964.
- It is part of the UN Secretariat. It reports to the UN General Assembly and the Economic and Social Council,but has its own membership, leadership, and budget. It is also a part of the United Nations Development Group.
Objectives and roles:
It supports developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively. Along with other UN departments and agencies, it also measures the progress made in the Sustainable Development Goals, as set out in Agenda 2030.
Reports published by UNCTAD are:
- Trade and Development Report
- World Investment Report
- Technology and Innovation Report
- Digital Economy Report
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsHow is the World Bank Group (WBG) President selected?
Correct
Solution: A
Traditionally, the Bank President has always been a U.S. citizen nominated by the President of the United States, the largest shareholder in the bank. The nominee is subject to confirmation by the Board of Governors, to serve for a five-year, renewable term. The president is responsible for chairing the meetings of the Boards of Directors and for overall management of the World Bank Group. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Traditionally, the Bank President has always been a U.S. citizen nominated by the President of the United States, the largest shareholder in the bank. The nominee is subject to confirmation by the Board of Governors, to serve for a five-year, renewable term. The president is responsible for chairing the meetings of the Boards of Directors and for overall management of the World Bank Group. Hence, option (a) is correct.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
- It was set up in 1989 by International Monetary Fund with headquarters in Paris.
- FATF acts as an international watchdog on issues of money-laundering and financing of
- The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) and the European Commission (EC) are members of it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Financial Action Task Force was set up in 1989 by the G7 countries with headquarters in Paris. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
FATF acts as an “international watchdog‟ on issues of money-laundering and financing of terrorism. It has 37 members, which include all 5 permanent members of the Security Council and other countries with economic influence. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Two regional organisations, the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) and the European Commission (EC) are also its members. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Financial Action Task Force was set up in 1989 by the G7 countries with headquarters in Paris. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
FATF acts as an “international watchdog‟ on issues of money-laundering and financing of terrorism. It has 37 members, which include all 5 permanent members of the Security Council and other countries with economic influence. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Two regional organisations, the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) and the European Commission (EC) are also its members. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding BRICS
- South Africa joined BRICS in 2010
- Last summit of BRICS was held at China.
- BRICS established The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
BRICS is the acronym coined for an association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. Originally the first four were grouped as “BRIC” (or “the BRICs”), before the induction of South Africa in 2010. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Last summit of BRICS was held at South Africa. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
The proposal for the creation of an “Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank” was first made by the Vice Chairman of the China Center for International Economic Exchanges, a Chinese thinktank, at the Bo’ao Forum in April 2009. The initiative was officially launched by Chinese President Xi Jinping on a state visit to Indonesia in October 2013. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
BRICS is the acronym coined for an association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. Originally the first four were grouped as “BRIC” (or “the BRICs”), before the induction of South Africa in 2010. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Last summit of BRICS was held at South Africa. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
The proposal for the creation of an “Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank” was first made by the Vice Chairman of the China Center for International Economic Exchanges, a Chinese thinktank, at the Bo’ao Forum in April 2009. The initiative was officially launched by Chinese President Xi Jinping on a state visit to Indonesia in October 2013. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) was set up in 1974 as a reaction to India’s nuclear tests to stop what it called the misuse of nuclear material meant for peaceful purposes.
- The NSG works under the principle of unanimity and even one country’s vote against prospective member will scuttle its bid.
- India, Pakistan, Israel, South Sudan and North Korea are among the four UN member states which have not signed the NPT.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The NSG was founded in response to the Indian nuclear test in May 1974 and first met in November 1975. The test demonstrated that certain non-weapons specific nuclear technology could be readily turned to weapons development. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
The NSG looks after critical issues relating to nuclear sector and its members are allowed to trade in and export nuclear technology. The group works under the principle of unanimity and even one country’s vote against India will scuttle its bid. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
As of August 2016, 191 states have adhered to the treaty, though North Korea, which acceded in 1985 but never came into compliance, announced its withdrawal from the NPT in 2003, following detonation of nuclear devices in violation of core obligations. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The NSG was founded in response to the Indian nuclear test in May 1974 and first met in November 1975. The test demonstrated that certain non-weapons specific nuclear technology could be readily turned to weapons development. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
The NSG looks after critical issues relating to nuclear sector and its members are allowed to trade in and export nuclear technology. The group works under the principle of unanimity and even one country’s vote against India will scuttle its bid. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
As of August 2016, 191 states have adhered to the treaty, though North Korea, which acceded in 1985 but never came into compliance, announced its withdrawal from the NPT in 2003, following detonation of nuclear devices in violation of core obligations. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Group of 7 (G7) countries
- G7 is a group consisting of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
- Canada has least population amongst G7 countries
- G7 countries represent more than 40% of the net global wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
The Group of 7 (G7) is a group consisting of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States. The European Union is also represented within the G7.
As of 2018, the seven countries involved represent 58% of the global net wealth ($317 trillion) and more than 46% of the global gross domestic product (GDP) based on nominal values, and more than 32% of the global GDP based on purchasing power parity.
Canada has least population amongst G7 countries (35,467,000).
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
The Group of 7 (G7) is a group consisting of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States. The European Union is also represented within the G7.
As of 2018, the seven countries involved represent 58% of the global net wealth ($317 trillion) and more than 46% of the global gross domestic product (GDP) based on nominal values, and more than 32% of the global GDP based on purchasing power parity.
Canada has least population amongst G7 countries (35,467,000).
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsA container whose capacity is 60 l contains milk and water in the ratio 3 : 2. How much quantity of the mixture should be replaced with pure milk so that in the final mixture, ratio of milk to water is 7 : 3?
Correct
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Solution:
In 60 l of mixture, milk = 3/5 * 60 = 36 l,
so water = 24 l
Let x litres of mixture is replaced
So
Remaining Milk after replacement is = 36 –
(3/5)*x + x = 36 + 2x/5
So (36 + 2x/5)/60 = 7/10
Solve, x = 15 l
Incorrect
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Solution:
In 60 l of mixture, milk = 3/5 * 60 = 36 l,
so water = 24 l
Let x litres of mixture is replaced
So
Remaining Milk after replacement is = 36 –
(3/5)*x + x = 36 + 2x/5
So (36 + 2x/5)/60 = 7/10
Solve, x = 15 l
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA starts a business with Rs 25000. After few months B join him with Rs 20000. If the ratio of their profit after 1 year is 15:8 find after how many months B joined A?
Correct
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Solution:
25000*12 : 20000(12-x)
15 : 8
solve and get x=4 months
Incorrect
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Solution:
25000*12 : 20000(12-x)
15 : 8
solve and get x=4 months
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsM, N and P can all together do piece of work in 20 days, in which N takes twice as long as M and P together do the work and P takes twice as long as M and N together take to do the work. In how many days N can alone do the work?
Correct
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Solution:
(M+P) in x days so N completes in 2x days
then (1/x) + (1/2x) = 1/20
solve, x = 30
so N 2x =60days
Incorrect
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Solution:
(M+P) in x days so N completes in 2x days
then (1/x) + (1/2x) = 1/20
solve, x = 30
so N 2x =60days
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsPipe A is 4 times as fast as B in filling a tank. If A takes 20 minutes to fill a tank, then what is the time taken by both the pipe A and B to fill the tank?
Correct
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Explanation :
A takes 20 minutes and it is 4 times faster than
B, it means B will take 80 minutes to fill the
tank.
(1/20 + 1/80)*t = 1. We get t = 16
Incorrect
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Explanation :
A takes 20 minutes and it is 4 times faster than
B, it means B will take 80 minutes to fill the
tank.
(1/20 + 1/80)*t = 1. We get t = 16
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsA woman rides his bike 20 km at an average speed of 8 km/hr and again travels 45 km at an average speed of 10 km/hr. What is her average speed for the ride approximately?
Correct
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Average speed=total distance/total time
Total time=20/8 + 45/10
Avg speed=(20+45)/(20/8 + 45/10)
= 65/((200+360)/80)
=65*80/560 = 65/7
=9.3km/hr
Incorrect
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Average speed=total distance/total time
Total time=20/8 + 45/10
Avg speed=(20+45)/(20/8 + 45/10)
= 65/((200+360)/80)
=65*80/560 = 65/7
=9.3km/hr










