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Welcome to our INSTA Revision Plan 2.0 & 3.0 to give wings to your Preparation for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary cum Mains Examination – 2021
The following Insta RevisionTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 2.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Read and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests. If you are already very well prepared, you can give these tests as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
The Insta 70 Days Plan received huge response from all of you. Questions were appreciated. In the Insta 2.0, we are further ensuring that questions are of high quality and are intended to help you eventually ace in the actual preliminary exam 2020 as well as Mains Exam.
We will concentrate solely on Prelims in Insta 3.0.
You are blessed with 4 more months and if you utilise these months smartly and sincerely, you will not only improve Prelims scores, but also get better at writing GS answers and essays before Prelims-2021. All that matters is your consistency.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs)
- These are listed and traded in the stock exchange like shares.
- It contains different types of investments including stocks, commodities, or bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs):
- Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) are mutual funds listed and traded on stock exchanges like shares.
- Typically, an ETF mirrors a particular index, which means the group of stocks in the ETF would be similar to those in the index that it is benchmarked to.
- Usually, ETFs are passive funds where the fund manager doesn’t select stocks on your behalf. Instead, the ETF simply copies an index and endeavours to accurately reflect its performance.
- In an ETF, one can buy and sell units at prevailing market price on a real time basis during market hours.
- ETFs can contain all types of investments including stocks, commodities, or bonds; some offer domestic holdings only, while others are international.
Benefits and significance of ETFs:
- ETFs are cost efficient. Given that they don’t make any stock (or security choices), they don’t use services of star fund managers.
- They allow investors to avoid the risk of poor security selection by the fund manager, while offering a diversified investment portfolio.
- The stocks in the indices are carefully selected by index providers and are rebalanced periodically.
- They offer anytime liquidity through the exchanges.
Mutual fund is like an ETF as it is a unit that comprised of equities of different companies. But ETF and mutual funds differ with respect to tradability. Mutual Fund selling price will be the price of shares at the close of the day. On the other hand, shares of ETF are traded throughout the day. And at any moment, ETF can be bought and sold. In this respect, ETFs have more liquidity and marketability. Another difference is that Mutual Fund is managed by a financial company and its fund managers; whereas the ETF is managed by the investor himself (unless deputed).
Incorrect
Solution: C
Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs):
- Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) are mutual funds listed and traded on stock exchanges like shares.
- Typically, an ETF mirrors a particular index, which means the group of stocks in the ETF would be similar to those in the index that it is benchmarked to.
- Usually, ETFs are passive funds where the fund manager doesn’t select stocks on your behalf. Instead, the ETF simply copies an index and endeavours to accurately reflect its performance.
- In an ETF, one can buy and sell units at prevailing market price on a real time basis during market hours.
- ETFs can contain all types of investments including stocks, commodities, or bonds; some offer domestic holdings only, while others are international.
Benefits and significance of ETFs:
- ETFs are cost efficient. Given that they don’t make any stock (or security choices), they don’t use services of star fund managers.
- They allow investors to avoid the risk of poor security selection by the fund manager, while offering a diversified investment portfolio.
- The stocks in the indices are carefully selected by index providers and are rebalanced periodically.
- They offer anytime liquidity through the exchanges.
Mutual fund is like an ETF as it is a unit that comprised of equities of different companies. But ETF and mutual funds differ with respect to tradability. Mutual Fund selling price will be the price of shares at the close of the day. On the other hand, shares of ETF are traded throughout the day. And at any moment, ETF can be bought and sold. In this respect, ETFs have more liquidity and marketability. Another difference is that Mutual Fund is managed by a financial company and its fund managers; whereas the ETF is managed by the investor himself (unless deputed).
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
- The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
- It works under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI.
The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964).
The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI.
The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964).
The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 points- With reference to Special Zero-Coupon Bonds, consider the following statements
- These recapitalisation bonds are special types of bonds issued by the Reserve Bank of India
- Only nationalized banks can invest in them, nobody else.
- These bonds are not tradable and not transferable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Special Zero-Coupon Bonds:
- These recapitalisation bonds are special types of bonds issued by the Central government specifically to a particular institution.
- Only those banks, whosoever is specified, can invest in them, nobody else.
- It is not tradable; it is not transferable.
- It is limited only to a specific bank, and it is for a specified period.
- It is held at the held-to-maturity (HTM) category of the bank as per the RBI guidelines.
- Since it is held to maturity, it is accounted at the face value (and) no mark-to-market will be there.
- Though zero coupon, these bonds are different from traditional zero-coupon bonds.
- They are being issued at par, there is no interest; in previous cases, since they were issued at discount, they technically were interest bearing.
- The said amount will be paid on the maturity as per the government notification.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Special Zero-Coupon Bonds:
- These recapitalisation bonds are special types of bonds issued by the Central government specifically to a particular institution.
- Only those banks, whosoever is specified, can invest in them, nobody else.
- It is not tradable; it is not transferable.
- It is limited only to a specific bank, and it is for a specified period.
- It is held at the held-to-maturity (HTM) category of the bank as per the RBI guidelines.
- Since it is held to maturity, it is accounted at the face value (and) no mark-to-market will be there.
- Though zero coupon, these bonds are different from traditional zero-coupon bonds.
- They are being issued at par, there is no interest; in previous cases, since they were issued at discount, they technically were interest bearing.
- The said amount will be paid on the maturity as per the government notification.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsThe term “Black Box” often seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: B
Black Box:
- A black box, technically known as an Electronic Flight Data Recorder.
- It is an orange-coloured heavily protected recording device placed in a flight.
- It is used to investigate the details of the events immediately preceding an accident.
- They are compulsory on any commercial flight or corporate jet.
- They are usually kept in the tail of an aircraft, where they are more likely to survive crash.
- Black boxes are also used in vehicles other than planes like railways, cars etc.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Black Box:
- A black box, technically known as an Electronic Flight Data Recorder.
- It is an orange-coloured heavily protected recording device placed in a flight.
- It is used to investigate the details of the events immediately preceding an accident.
- They are compulsory on any commercial flight or corporate jet.
- They are usually kept in the tail of an aircraft, where they are more likely to survive crash.
- Black boxes are also used in vehicles other than planes like railways, cars etc.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsInvestment Trends Monitor Report is being published by
Correct
Solution: B
Investment Trends Monitor Report:
The Global Investment Trend Monitor report, compiled by United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), has been released.
- India was among the top 10 recipients of Foreign Direct Investment in 2019,attracting $49 billion in inflows, a 16 per cent increase from the previous year.
Global scenario:
- The global foreign direct investment remained flat in 2019 at $1.39 trillion, a one per cent decline from a revised $1.41 trillion in 2018.
- Reasons: This is against the backdrop of weaker macroeconomic performance and policy uncertainty for investors, including trade tensions.
- Developing economies continue to absorb more than half of global FDI flows.
- South Asia recorded a 10 per cent increase in FDI to $60 billion and this growth was driven by India, with a 16 per cent increase in inflows to an estimated $49 billion.
- The FDI flows to developed countries remained at a historically low level, decreasing by a further six per cent to an estimated $643 billion.
- There was zero-growth of flows to United States, which received $251 billion FDI in 2019, as compared to $254 billion in 2018, the report said.
- Despite this, the United States remained the largest recipient of FDI, followed by China with flows of $140 billion and Singapore with $110 billion.
- The FDI in the UK was down six per cent as Brexit unfolded.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Investment Trends Monitor Report:
The Global Investment Trend Monitor report, compiled by United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), has been released.
- India was among the top 10 recipients of Foreign Direct Investment in 2019,attracting $49 billion in inflows, a 16 per cent increase from the previous year.
Global scenario:
- The global foreign direct investment remained flat in 2019 at $1.39 trillion, a one per cent decline from a revised $1.41 trillion in 2018.
- Reasons: This is against the backdrop of weaker macroeconomic performance and policy uncertainty for investors, including trade tensions.
- Developing economies continue to absorb more than half of global FDI flows.
- South Asia recorded a 10 per cent increase in FDI to $60 billion and this growth was driven by India, with a 16 per cent increase in inflows to an estimated $49 billion.
- The FDI flows to developed countries remained at a historically low level, decreasing by a further six per cent to an estimated $643 billion.
- There was zero-growth of flows to United States, which received $251 billion FDI in 2019, as compared to $254 billion in 2018, the report said.
- Despite this, the United States remained the largest recipient of FDI, followed by China with flows of $140 billion and Singapore with $110 billion.
- The FDI in the UK was down six per cent as Brexit unfolded.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Boao Forum for Asia (BFA)’ is China’s equivalent of the
Correct
Solution: C
BFA is a non-governmental and non-profit international organisation with the purpose to promote and deepen economic exchange, coordination, and cooperation within Asia and between Asia and other parts of the world.
Incorrect
Solution: C
BFA is a non-governmental and non-profit international organisation with the purpose to promote and deepen economic exchange, coordination, and cooperation within Asia and between Asia and other parts of the world.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Oslo Peace Accord
- It is a set of agreements between the Government of Israeland the United Nations.
- The Oslo Accords marked the start of the Oslo process, a peace process aimed at achieving a peace treaty based on United Nations Security Council Resolutions 242 and 338.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Oslo Peace Accord
The Oslo Accords are a set of agreements between the Government of Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO). Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
The Oslo Accords marked the start of the Oslo process, a peace process aimed at achieving a peace treaty based on United Nations Security Council Resolutions 242 and 338, and at fulfilling the right of the Palestinian people to self-determination. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Oslo Peace Accord
The Oslo Accords are a set of agreements between the Government of Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO). Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
The Oslo Accords marked the start of the Oslo process, a peace process aimed at achieving a peace treaty based on United Nations Security Council Resolutions 242 and 338, and at fulfilling the right of the Palestinian people to self-determination. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements Avangard Hypersonic Intercontinental Ballistic Missile
- It is Russia’s first Avangard hypersonic intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM).
- Avangard hypersonic missile system can fly 27 times the speed of sound.
- The Avangard missiles have a range of over 10,000 km and weigh approximately 2,000 kg.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
It is Russia’s first Avangard hypersonic intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM).
Avangard hypersonic missile system that can fly 27 times the speed of sound.
The Avangard missiles have a range of over 6,000 km, weigh approximately 2,000 kg and can withstand temperatures of over 2000 degree Celsius.
Incorrect
Solution: D
It is Russia’s first Avangard hypersonic intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM).
Avangard hypersonic missile system that can fly 27 times the speed of sound.
The Avangard missiles have a range of over 6,000 km, weigh approximately 2,000 kg and can withstand temperatures of over 2000 degree Celsius.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU)
- The EAEU provides for free movement of goods, services, capital and labor, pursues coordinated, harmonized and single policy in the sectors determined by the Treaty
- Uzbekistan is a member state of Eurasian Economic Union
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Eurasian Economic Union is an international organization for regional economic integration.
The EAEU provides for free movement of goods, services, capital and labor, pursues coordinated, harmonized and single policy in the sectors determined by the Treaty and international agreements within the Union. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
The Member-States of the Eurasian Economic Union are:
- Republic of Armenia
- Republic of Belarus
- Republic of Kazakhstan
- Kyrgyz Republic
- Russian Federation. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Eurasian Economic Union is an international organization for regional economic integration.
The EAEU provides for free movement of goods, services, capital and labor, pursues coordinated, harmonized and single policy in the sectors determined by the Treaty and international agreements within the Union. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
The Member-States of the Eurasian Economic Union are:
- Republic of Armenia
- Republic of Belarus
- Republic of Kazakhstan
- Kyrgyz Republic
- Russian Federation. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Chabahar port
- The port provides access to the resources and markets of landlocked Afghanistan and Central Asia bypassing Pakistan.
- Located in the Sistan-Baluchistan Provinceon Iran’s South-eastern coast
- Chabahar port will be linked to International North-South Transport Corridor(INSTC)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
All the statements given above are correct.
The Chabahar port project will be the first overseas venture for Indian state-owned ports such as JNPT and the Deendayal Port Trust. It is located in the Sistan-Baluchistan Province on Iran’s South-eastern coast (outside the Persian Gulf).
The port provides access to the resources and markets of landlocked Afghanistan and Central Asia bypassing Pakistan. Chabahar port will be linked to International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), thus serve as India’s outreach in region to Afghanistan and beyond to Russia, Eastern Europe.
Incorrect
Solution: B
All the statements given above are correct.
The Chabahar port project will be the first overseas venture for Indian state-owned ports such as JNPT and the Deendayal Port Trust. It is located in the Sistan-Baluchistan Province on Iran’s South-eastern coast (outside the Persian Gulf).
The port provides access to the resources and markets of landlocked Afghanistan and Central Asia bypassing Pakistan. Chabahar port will be linked to International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), thus serve as India’s outreach in region to Afghanistan and beyond to Russia, Eastern Europe.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Global Refugee Forum
- It is first ever global refugee forum
- The forum is the practical implementation of the 2018 Global Compact on Refugees (GCR)
- It is jointly hosted by United Nations Refugee Agency (UNHCR) along with Government of Switzerland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
Global Refugee Forum is the first ever Global Refugee Forum is being held in Geneva, Switzerland. It is being jointly hosted by United Nations Refugee Agency (UNHCR) along with Government of Switzerland.
The forum is the practical implementation of the 2018 Global Compact on Refugees (GCR)
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
Global Refugee Forum is the first ever Global Refugee Forum is being held in Geneva, Switzerland. It is being jointly hosted by United Nations Refugee Agency (UNHCR) along with Government of Switzerland.
The forum is the practical implementation of the 2018 Global Compact on Refugees (GCR)
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsGlobal Diplomacy Index, sometime seen in the news, is related by
Correct
Solution: C
Global Diplomacy Index Sydney based Lowy Institute. Index visualises the diplomatic networks of 61 G20, OECD and Asian countries and territories, allowing users to compare the most significant diplomatic networks in the world.
China now has more diplomatic posts across the world than United States in 2019.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Global Diplomacy Index Sydney based Lowy Institute. Index visualises the diplomatic networks of 61 G20, OECD and Asian countries and territories, allowing users to compare the most significant diplomatic networks in the world.
China now has more diplomatic posts across the world than United States in 2019.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The density of population increased in all states and union territories between 1991 and
- Bihar is the most thickly populated state with 1,106 persons per sq. km followed by West Bengal 1,028 and Kerala 860.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
The population of India as on March 1, 2011 stood at 1,210.9 million (623.2 million males and 587.6 million females). India accounts for a meagre 2.4 per cent of the world surface area of 135.79 million sq. km. Yet, it supports and sustains a whopping per cent of the world population.
The population, which at the turn of the twentieth century was around 238.4 million, increased to reach 1,210.9 million by 2011. As recorded at each decennial census from 1901 the population has grown steadily except for a decrease during 1911-21.One of the important indices of population concentration is the density of population. It is defined as the number of persons per sq. km. The population density of India in 2011 was 382 per sq. km-decadal growth 17.72 per cent.
The density of population increased in all states and union territories between 1991 and 2011. Among major states, Bihar is the most thickly populated state with (a population density of) 1,106 persons per sq. km followed by West Bengal 1,028 and Kerala 860.Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
The population of India as on March 1, 2011 stood at 1,210.9 million (623.2 million males and 587.6 million females). India accounts for a meagre 2.4 per cent of the world surface area of 135.79 million sq. km. Yet, it supports and sustains a whopping per cent of the world population.
The population, which at the turn of the twentieth century was around 238.4 million, increased to reach 1,210.9 million by 2011. As recorded at each decennial census from 1901 the population has grown steadily except for a decrease during 1911-21.One of the important indices of population concentration is the density of population. It is defined as the number of persons per sq. km. The population density of India in 2011 was 382 per sq. km-decadal growth 17.72 per cent.
The density of population increased in all states and union territories between 1991 and 2011. Among major states, Bihar is the most thickly populated state with (a population density of) 1,106 persons per sq. km followed by West Bengal 1,028 and Kerala 860. -
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The Brahmaputra in Bangladesh fed by Teesta.
- The Barak river, the head stream of Meghna, rises in the hills in Manipur.
- The Godavari in the southern Peninsula has the second largest river basin covering 10 percent of the area of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
The principal tributaries of Brahmaputra in India are the Subansiri, Jia Bhareli, Dhansiri, Puthimari, Pagladiya and the Manas. The Brahmaputra in Bangladesh fed by Teesta, etc. finally falls into the Ganga. The Barak river, the head stream of Meghna, rises in the hills in Manipur.
The Godavari in the southern Peninsula has the second largest river basin covering 10 per cent of the area of India. Next to it is the Krishna basin in the region and the Mahanadi is another large basin of the region. The basin of the Narmada in the uplands of the Deccan, flowing to the Arabian Sea and of the Cauvery in the south, falling into the Bay of Bengal are about the same size, though with different character and shape
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
The principal tributaries of Brahmaputra in India are the Subansiri, Jia Bhareli, Dhansiri, Puthimari, Pagladiya and the Manas. The Brahmaputra in Bangladesh fed by Teesta, etc. finally falls into the Ganga. The Barak river, the head stream of Meghna, rises in the hills in Manipur.
The Godavari in the southern Peninsula has the second largest river basin covering 10 per cent of the area of India. Next to it is the Krishna basin in the region and the Mahanadi is another large basin of the region. The basin of the Narmada in the uplands of the Deccan, flowing to the Arabian Sea and of the Cauvery in the south, falling into the Bay of Bengal are about the same size, though with different character and shape
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- National Election Watch is a mechanism brought out by Election Commission of India to ensure free and fair elections of 17th Lok Sabha.
- Association for Democratic Reforms is a non-partisan, non-governmental organization which works in the area of electoral and political reforms since 1999
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
National Election Watch (NEW) is a nationwide campaign comprising of more than 1200 NGOs and other citizen led organizations working together on electoral reforms, improving democracy and governance in India. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Association for Democratic Reforms is a non-partisan, non-governmental organization which works in the area of electoral and political reforms since 1999. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
National Election Watch (NEW) is a nationwide campaign comprising of more than 1200 NGOs and other citizen led organizations working together on electoral reforms, improving democracy and governance in India. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Association for Democratic Reforms is a non-partisan, non-governmental organization which works in the area of electoral and political reforms since 1999. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about the Bharat Rang Mahotsav (BRM)
- It is organised biennially by the National School of Drama.
- BRM has evolved to international scope, hosting theatre groups from around the world, and is now the largest theatre festival of Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Both the statements are correct.
Bharat Rang Mahotsav (BRM), the annual international theatre festival of India is organized by the National School of Drama (NSD), was established two decades ago to stimulate the growth and development of theatre across India.
Originally a national festival showcasing the work of the most creative theatre workers in India, BRM has evolved to international scope, hosting theatre groups from around the world, and is now the largest theatre festival of Asia. Till date, BRM was celebrated in New Delhi and has travelled to several cities in India, presenting an overwhelming 1787 plays, and riveted thousands of audiences who basked in the glory of heart-winning stories and superior performances
Incorrect
Solution: D
Both the statements are correct.
Bharat Rang Mahotsav (BRM), the annual international theatre festival of India is organized by the National School of Drama (NSD), was established two decades ago to stimulate the growth and development of theatre across India.
Originally a national festival showcasing the work of the most creative theatre workers in India, BRM has evolved to international scope, hosting theatre groups from around the world, and is now the largest theatre festival of Asia. Till date, BRM was celebrated in New Delhi and has travelled to several cities in India, presenting an overwhelming 1787 plays, and riveted thousands of audiences who basked in the glory of heart-winning stories and superior performances
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Bansagar dam is on the river of Sone
- Rajaghat dam project on river Betwa is a joint project of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pardesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Bansagar Control Board is another subordinate office of the Ministry. The Board was set up in 1976. This Board resolution was set up in 1973 for sharing the waters of river Sone and the cost of the Bansagar Dam. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Betwa River Board (B.R.B) was constituted in 1976 to execute the Rajghat Dam Project and Power House. Rajghat Power House, is a joint venture of U.P. and M.P Electricity Boards. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Bansagar Control Board is another subordinate office of the Ministry. The Board was set up in 1976. This Board resolution was set up in 1973 for sharing the waters of river Sone and the cost of the Bansagar Dam. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Betwa River Board (B.R.B) was constituted in 1976 to execute the Rajghat Dam Project and Power House. Rajghat Power House, is a joint venture of U.P. and M.P Electricity Boards. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Kuttiyam Theatre has been recognised by UNESCO as intangible heritage of humanity
- Sangeet Natak Akademi has been functioning as the apex body of the performing arts in the country, preserving and promoting the vast intangible heritage of India’s diverse culture expressed in the forms of music, dance and drama.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Sangeet Natak Akademi has been functioning as the apex body of the performing arts in the country, preserving and promoting the vast intangible heritage of India’s diverse culture expressed in the forms of music, dance and drama. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Akademi’s projects of national importance are in Kutiyattam theatre of Kerala, commenced in 1991. Kutiyattam was recognized by UNESCO as a masterpiece of oral and intangible heritage of humanity in 2001. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Sangeet Natak Akademi has been functioning as the apex body of the performing arts in the country, preserving and promoting the vast intangible heritage of India’s diverse culture expressed in the forms of music, dance and drama. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Akademi’s projects of national importance are in Kutiyattam theatre of Kerala, commenced in 1991. Kutiyattam was recognized by UNESCO as a masterpiece of oral and intangible heritage of humanity in 2001. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following departments do not fall under Ministry of Finance
- Economic Affairs
- Financial Services
- Investment and Public Asset Management
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
Ministry of Finance consists of five departments, namely, (i) Economic Affairs, (ii) Expenditure, (iii) Revenue, (iv) Investment and Public Asset Management; and (v) Financial Services. Hence, option D is correct. Hence, option D is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Ministry of Finance consists of five departments, namely, (i) Economic Affairs, (ii) Expenditure, (iii) Revenue, (iv) Investment and Public Asset Management; and (v) Financial Services. Hence, option D is correct. Hence, option D is correct.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)
- It is a statutory body
- It investigates fraud cases of the corporate and political parties
- SFIO doesn’t have the powers to arrest people for the violation of the Company law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) was set up in July, 2003. The Companies Act, 2013, inter alia, has accorded statutory status to SFIO and its functions and powers have been enhanced substantially with number of enabling provisions in the Act and it was established under Section 211 of the Companies Act, 2013. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The main function of SFIO is to investigate corporate frauds of serious and complex nature. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
SFIO also has powers to arrest people for the violation of the Company law. Hence, statement is 3 incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) was set up in July, 2003. The Companies Act, 2013, inter alia, has accorded statutory status to SFIO and its functions and powers have been enhanced substantially with number of enabling provisions in the Act and it was established under Section 211 of the Companies Act, 2013. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The main function of SFIO is to investigate corporate frauds of serious and complex nature. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
SFIO also has powers to arrest people for the violation of the Company law. Hence, statement is 3 incorrect.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding welfare and protection of women
- Department of Telecommunication notified to manoeuvre existing buttons as ‘Panic button’ in mobile phones for women in distress situations linked with GPS
- Acid attack is recognized as a form of disability for availing disability benefits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Panic Button and Global Positioning System in Mobile Phone Handsets Rules, 2016’ have been notified by the Department of Telecommunications. Under these rules, all new feature phones will have the facility of panic button configured to the numeric key 5 or 9 and all smart phones will have it configured to three times short pressing of the on-off button. Further, all new mobile phones will be required to have the facility of identifying the location through satellite based OPS. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The recently enacted Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 notified in 2016, included acid attack as a kind of disability. Acid attack victims can now avail disability benefits. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Panic Button and Global Positioning System in Mobile Phone Handsets Rules, 2016’ have been notified by the Department of Telecommunications. Under these rules, all new feature phones will have the facility of panic button configured to the numeric key 5 or 9 and all smart phones will have it configured to three times short pressing of the on-off button. Further, all new mobile phones will be required to have the facility of identifying the location through satellite based OPS. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The recently enacted Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 notified in 2016, included acid attack as a kind of disability. Acid attack victims can now avail disability benefits. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding The International Network for Bamboo and Rattan (INBAR)
- INBAR was established in 2000.
- INBAR is dedicated to improving the social, economic, and environmental benefits of bamboo and rattan
- India is not a member of it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The International Network for Bamboo and Rattan (INBAR) is an intergovernmental organization established in 1997. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
INBAR is dedicated to improving the social, economic, and environmental benefi ts of bamboo and rattan. INBAR connects a global network of partners from the government, private, and non-for-profi t sectors in over 50 countries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
India is its member. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The International Network for Bamboo and Rattan (INBAR) is an intergovernmental organization established in 1997. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
INBAR is dedicated to improving the social, economic, and environmental benefi ts of bamboo and rattan. INBAR connects a global network of partners from the government, private, and non-for-profi t sectors in over 50 countries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
India is its member. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian National Commission for Cooperation with UNESCO
- It was set up in 1949 by the Government of India.
- It functions under the Ministry of Culture.
- The main objective of the Commission is to advise the Government in matters falling in the domain of UNESCO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Indian National Commission for Cooperation with UNESCO
It was set up in 1949 by the Government of India. A permanent Commission was established in 1951. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
It functions under the Department of Secondary and Higher Education in the Ministry of Human Resource Development. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
The main objective of the Commission is to advise the Government in matters falling in the domain of UNESCO and to play a role in UNESCO’s work particularly in the formulation and execution of its programmes. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
The Commission consists of five Sub-Commissions namely:
- Education
- Natural Sciences
- Social Sciences
- Communication
Composition:
- President: The Minister of Human Resource Development.
- Secretary General: The Secretary in the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Human Resource Development.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Indian National Commission for Cooperation with UNESCO
It was set up in 1949 by the Government of India. A permanent Commission was established in 1951. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
It functions under the Department of Secondary and Higher Education in the Ministry of Human Resource Development. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
The main objective of the Commission is to advise the Government in matters falling in the domain of UNESCO and to play a role in UNESCO’s work particularly in the formulation and execution of its programmes. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
The Commission consists of five Sub-Commissions namely:
- Education
- Natural Sciences
- Social Sciences
- Communication
Composition:
- President: The Minister of Human Resource Development.
- Secretary General: The Secretary in the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Human Resource Development.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs)
- They are a diverse group of communicable diseasesthat prevail in tropical and subtropical conditions in 149 countries.
- According to the WHO, 30 health conditionsare categorized as Neglected tropical diseases.
- Dengue and Chikungunya are the Neglected Tropical Diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) are a diverse group of communicable diseases that prevail in tropical and subtropical conditions in 149 countries. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, protozoa and helminthes.
NTDs are considered diseases of poverty and are often left out of the global health conversation.
Populations living in poverty, without adequate sanitation and in close contact with infectious vectors and domestic animals and livestock are those worst affected.
They blind, disfigure, and debilitate people in the poorest regions of the world.
According to the WHO, 20 health conditions are categorized as Neglected tropical diseases. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Buruli ulcer
- Chagas disease
- Dengue and Chikungunya. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
- Dracunculiasis (guinea-worm disease)
- Echinococcosis
- Foodborne trematodiases
- Human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)
- Leishmaniasis
- Leprosy(Hansen’s disease)
- Lymphatic filariasis
- Mycetoma, chromoblastomycosis and other deep mycoses
- Onchocerciasis (river blindness)
- Rabies
- Scabies and other ectoparasites
- Schistosomiasis
- Soil-transmitted helminthiases
- Snakebite envenoming
- Taeniasis/Cysticercosis
- Trachoma
- Yaws (Endemic treponematoses)
Incorrect
Solution: C
Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) are a diverse group of communicable diseases that prevail in tropical and subtropical conditions in 149 countries. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, protozoa and helminthes.
NTDs are considered diseases of poverty and are often left out of the global health conversation.
Populations living in poverty, without adequate sanitation and in close contact with infectious vectors and domestic animals and livestock are those worst affected.
They blind, disfigure, and debilitate people in the poorest regions of the world.
According to the WHO, 20 health conditions are categorized as Neglected tropical diseases. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Buruli ulcer
- Chagas disease
- Dengue and Chikungunya. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
- Dracunculiasis (guinea-worm disease)
- Echinococcosis
- Foodborne trematodiases
- Human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)
- Leishmaniasis
- Leprosy(Hansen’s disease)
- Lymphatic filariasis
- Mycetoma, chromoblastomycosis and other deep mycoses
- Onchocerciasis (river blindness)
- Rabies
- Scabies and other ectoparasites
- Schistosomiasis
- Soil-transmitted helminthiases
- Snakebite envenoming
- Taeniasis/Cysticercosis
- Trachoma
- Yaws (Endemic treponematoses)
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Classical Languages
- Sanskrit was the first language to be declared as Classical language.
- Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminencein classical Indian languages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Classical Language in India is an official status within the Republic of India, awarded by the Government of India.
- There are six languagesenjoy the ‘Classical’ status:
- Tamil (declared in 2004). Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Sanskrit (2005)
- Kannada (2008)
- Telugu (2008)
- Malayalam (2013)
- Odia (2014)
Criteria’s for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ are:
- High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
- A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers.
- The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
- The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Benefits Once A Language Is Notified As A Classical Language:
- Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminencein classical Indian languages. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- A Centre of Excellencefor studies in Classical Languages is set up
- The University Grants Commission is requested to create, to start with at least in the Central Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairsfor the Classical Languages so declared.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Classical Language in India is an official status within the Republic of India, awarded by the Government of India.
- There are six languagesenjoy the ‘Classical’ status:
- Tamil (declared in 2004). Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Sanskrit (2005)
- Kannada (2008)
- Telugu (2008)
- Malayalam (2013)
- Odia (2014)
Criteria’s for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ are:
- High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
- A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers.
- The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
- The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Benefits Once A Language Is Notified As A Classical Language:
- Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminencein classical Indian languages. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- A Centre of Excellencefor studies in Classical Languages is set up
- The University Grants Commission is requested to create, to start with at least in the Central Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairsfor the Classical Languages so declared.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsIn the face of limited resources and competing priorities, health care service providers, biomedical and public health investigators, and policy-makers are often forced to make difficult choices abouthow best to secure optimal health outcomes for individuals and populations. Demands for rapid action may leave little time for adequate consideration of ethical issues. However, a failure to give explicit attention to ethics may result in various wrongs, such as harm and injustice, the consequences of which are often borne disproportionately by the most vulnerable groups.
Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the above passage?
Correct
Correct Answer: C
Answer Justification:
Ans. C. B and D are not in tune with what is being conveyed in the passage. A is extraneous to the issue under discussion in the passage. C is the most accurate inference.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Answer Justification:
Ans. C. B and D are not in tune with what is being conveyed in the passage. A is extraneous to the issue under discussion in the passage. C is the most accurate inference.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsWeather disasters are being affected by climate change that is caused by humans. The devastation is worsened by the collective failure of governments and businesses to invest in building resilience despite the evidence on runaway climate change.
Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct
Correct Answer: B
Answer Justification:
Ans. B. Statement A is wrong as the passage as the focus of the passage is not on understanding the reason why climate change occurs but the focus is on highlighting the issues in our response to disasters caused by climate change. Statement C is extraneous to the passage. Involvement of communities is the not the topic of discussion as per the passage. Hence B is the most logical and rational inference.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B
Answer Justification:
Ans. B. Statement A is wrong as the passage as the focus of the passage is not on understanding the reason why climate change occurs but the focus is on highlighting the issues in our response to disasters caused by climate change. Statement C is extraneous to the passage. Involvement of communities is the not the topic of discussion as per the passage. Hence B is the most logical and rational inference.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsWeather disasters are being affected by climate change that is caused by humans. The devastation is worsened by the collective failure of governments and businesses to invest in building resilience despite the evidence on runaway climate change.
Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct
Correct Answer: B
Answer Justification:
Ans. B. Statement A is wrong as the passage as the focus of the passage is not on understanding the reason why climate change occurs but the focus is on highlighting the issues in our response to disasters caused by climate change. Statement C is extraneous to the passage. Involvement of communities is the not the topic of discussion as per the passage. Hence B is the most logical and rational inference.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B
Answer Justification:
Ans. B. Statement A is wrong as the passage as the focus of the passage is not on understanding the reason why climate change occurs but the focus is on highlighting the issues in our response to disasters caused by climate change. Statement C is extraneous to the passage. Involvement of communities is the not the topic of discussion as per the passage. Hence B is the most logical and rational inference.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThe price of a car is Rs. 4,50,000. It was insured to 80% of its price. The car was damaged completely in an accident and the insurance company paid 90% of the insurance. What was the difference between the price of the car and the amount received?
Correct
Correct Answer: D
Answer Justification:
Explanation
Rs.1,26,000 Explanation:
4,50,000*( 80/100)*(90/100)= 324000
450000 – 126000 = Rs.1,26,000.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D
Answer Justification:
Explanation
Rs.1,26,000 Explanation:
4,50,000*( 80/100)*(90/100)= 324000
450000 – 126000 = Rs.1,26,000.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsA dishonest trader marks up his goods by 80% and gives discount of 25% .Besides he gets 20% more amount per kg from wholeseller and sells 10% less per kg to customer. What is the overall profit percentage?
Correct
Correct Answer: D
Answer Justification:
Solution:
CP = 100/120 = 10/12
SP = 135/90 = 18/12
Profit % = {[(18/12) – (10/12)]/(10/12)}
*100 = 80%Incorrect
Correct Answer: D
Answer Justification:
Solution:
CP = 100/120 = 10/12
SP = 135/90 = 18/12
Profit % = {[(18/12) – (10/12)]/(10/12)}
*100 = 80%









